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EMT 214 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a characteristic of battering?

A) Does not include physical abuse

B) Occurs between spouses or intimate partners only

C) Establishes control and fear in a relationship through violence and threats

D) Describes the abuse of children by someone other than a parent

A

Establishes control and fear in a relationship through violence and threats

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2
Q

What is the most common type of child abuse?

A) Psychological abuse

B) Sexual abuse

C) Neglect

D) Battering

A

Neglect

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3
Q

Who is the most common perpetrator of child abuse?

A) The victim’s father

B) The victim’s mother

C) A nonparental relative in the home

D) A caretaker or child-care provider

A

The victim’s mother

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4
Q

What form of child abuse is most commonly attributed to female perpetrators?

A) Sexual abuse

B) Neglect

C) Battering

D) Emotional abuse

A

Neglect

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5
Q

What is a characteristic of a child abuser?

A) Shows overt feelings of love and caring for the child

B) Feels intense guilt and remorse over his or her actions

C) Blames the child for the injury

D) Highly praises the child in public

A

Blames the child for the injury

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6
Q

What is the age range of most victims of child abuse?

A) Less than 18 months of age

B) Less than 1 year of age

C) 6 to 10 years of age

D) More than 5 years of age

A

Less than 1 year of age

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7
Q

What is the most common type of injury seen in child abuse?

A) Soft tissue injury

B) Fractures

C) Head injury

D) Abdominal injury

A

Soft tissue injury

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8
Q

What is a major factor in the likelihood of child abuse?

A) Living in a home where spouse or partner abuse occurs

B) The gender of the victim

C) The presence of non-family members in the home

D) The marital status of the caretakers

A

Living in a home where spouse or partner abuse occurs

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9
Q

Which is most suggestive of possible abuse in a 2-year-old child?

A) Second- and third-degree burns in a “V” that begins on the right side of the face and extends to the abdomen

B) Linear third-degree burns on the palm of the left hand

C) Scald burns on both lower legs from the knees down

D) Small third-degree burns at both corners of the mouth

A

Scald burns on both lower legs from the knees down

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10
Q

Paramedics are dispatched to a sexual assault. The victim exhibits petechiae of the face and conjunctiva. What would this be indicative of?

A) Closed head trauma

B) Soft tissue injury to the orbit

C) Choking of the victim

D) Pressure applied to the abdomen

A

Choking of the victim

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11
Q

Which of the following types of deafness may be curable?

A) Conductive deafness

B) Sensorineural deafness

C) Complete deafness

D) Dyskinetic deafness

A

Conductive deafness

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12
Q

What is a characteristic of sensorineural deafness?

A) Occurs when the tympanic membrane ruptures

B) Is often caused by an accumulation of earwax in the outer ear canal

C) Can be caused by water or fluid in the middle ear

D) May occur later in life because of prolonged exposure to loud noises

A

May occur later in life because of prolonged exposure to loud noises

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13
Q

Paramedics are dispatched to the home of a 42-year-old male who complains of diarrhea for the past 3 days. He has been unable to eat for the past 24 hours and would like to go to the emergency department. He is visually impaired by complete blindness and has a leader/work dog to assist him. He states that he can walk and would prefer walking to being carried on a stretcher. How should the paramedic proceed?

A) Get behind the patient and gently push him toward the stretcher

B) Insist on carrying him to the stretcher so he doesn’t injure himself

C) Allow the patient to take your arm and lead him to the stretcher

D) Take the patient by the hand and gently pull him behind you to the stretcher

A

Allow the patient to take your arm and lead him to the stretcher

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14
Q

Which of the following describes an eye disease described as damage to the optic nerve fibers caused by an increase of internal pressure?

A) Glaucoma

B) Cataract

C) Hyperopia

D) Optic Nerve Hypoplasia

A

Glaucoma

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15
Q

Stuttering is an example of which type of speech disorder?

A) Fluency

B) Dysarthria

C) Articulation

D) Voice production

A

Fluency

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16
Q

What is the definition of obesity?

A) More than 30 pounds overweight

B) Patients affected by chronic illnesses because of excessive weight

C) More than 30% body fat

D) Thirty percent or more above the ideal body weight

A

Thirty percent or more above the ideal body weight

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17
Q

What is the definition of bariatrics?

A) A weight-loss program that includes strict reduction of caloric intake

B) Any of a number of surgeries that surgically reduce the size of the stomach

C) The field of medicine focused on the treatment and control of obesity

D) Any chronic disease that is aggravated by being obese

A

The field of medicine focused on the treatment and control of obesity

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18
Q

Which would the paramedic expect in a patient with paraplegia?

A) Loss of urinary control

B) Diaphragmatic breathing

C) Ventilator dependence

D) Weakness in the upper extremities

A

Loss of urinary control

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19
Q

What causes schizophrenia?

A) A biochemical imbalance

B) Anxiety

C) Substance abuse

D) Childhood abuse

A

A biochemical imbalance

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20
Q

What are the characteristic facial features of patients with Down syndrome?

A) Folds of skin on either side of the nose that cover the inner corners of the eyes

B) A large face and large facial features

C) A small tongue and only 20 teeth

D) Eyes that are widely spaced and frequently do not move in synchronicity with each other

A

Folds of skin on either side of the nose that cover the inner corners of the eyes

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21
Q

A condition common in patients with cerebral palsy is involuntary writhing movements called ________.

A) Ataxia

B) Spastic paralysis

C) Athetosis

D) Muscular atrophy

A

Athetosis

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22
Q

Paramedics are called to a local elementary school for a special-needs 9-year-old male with an unknown medical problem. The school nurse informs EMS that the patient suffered some neurological impairment as the result of a head injury when involved in a motor vehicle collision. The patient’s 12-year-old sister is present and tells the paramedics that the patient has been vomiting all morning. While treating this patient, the paramedics observe that he overreacts to minor stimuli such as a penlight. He alternates between being profoundly agitated and periods of sleepiness and lethargy. To assess this patient’s mental status, how should the paramedic proceed?

A) Assume this is his normal mental status

B) Assess the patient using the BRAIN-ONE scale

C) Ask the patient’s sister about his normal mental status

D) Assess the patient as they would any other 9-year-old male

A

Ask the patient’s sister about his normal mental status

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23
Q

Paramedics are transporting an unresponsive cancer patient who accidentally overdosed on narcotic pain medication. The protocol states that EMS should administer naloxone for narcotic overdoses. Which intervention is most correct in the case of a cancer patient?

A) Do not administer the naloxone; the patient will go into withdrawal

B) Administer the medication through the patient’s MediPort

C) Use a higher dose of naloxone than usual because the patient takes regular doses of narcotics

D) Be especially careful to use aseptic techniques because this patient is most likely immunocompromised

A

Be especially careful to use aseptic techniques because this patient is most likely immunocompromised

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24
Q

Which of the following are NOT a known cause of Cerebral Palsy?

A) Birth trauma injuring the infants skull

B) Pregnancy induced hypertension

C) Low birth weight

D) Rh incompatibility between the mother and the fetus

A

Pregnancy induced hypertension

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25
Q

Paramedics are called to a grocery store for a 68-year-old female who suffered a ground-level fall. She informs EMS that she slipped on a water puddle and fell over forward, striking her chin on a display shelf. She is complaining of cervical neck pain. Her medical history includes arthritis, which she states has been “a product of the aging process.” This patient most likely suffers from which type of arthritis?

A) Inflammatory

B) Osteoarthritis

C) Rheumatoid

D) Restrictive

A

Osteoarthritis

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26
Q

All of the following are classic symptoms of Cystic Fibrosis Except;

A) Pale, greasy-looking, foul-smelling stools

B) Abnormally salty sweat

C) Persistent productive cough

D) Obesity

A

Obesity

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27
Q

Your 22 year old male patient is complaining of mood changes, an inability to focus on tasks and personality changes after a recent head injury. Which lobe of the cerebral cortex was most likely affected by the injury?

A) Parietal lobe

B) Occipital lobe

C) Frontal lobe

D) Brainstem

A

Parietal lobe

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28
Q

Cystic Fibrosis primarily affects which of the following?

A) Lungs

B) Liver

C) Voluntary muscles

D) Bowels

A

Lungs

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29
Q

Who is the single largest payer of home health care services in the United States?

A) Medicare

B) Veterans Administration

C) Private insurance

D) Health maintenance organizations

A

Medicare

30
Q

Seatbelts are a form of which of the following?

A) Primary injury prevention

B) Secondary injury prevention

C) Tertiary injury prevention

D) Health promotion

A

Secondary injury prevention

31
Q

Which of the following infectious diseases is contagious enough to warrant airborne precautions?

A) Measles

B) Ebola

C) Croup

D) Staphylococcus aureus

A

Measles

32
Q

In what way, if any, is the initial assessment of home health care patients different from the initial assessment of acute care (out-of-home) patients?

A) The initial assessment is no different in the home health care setting

B) In the home setting, the initial assessment of airway, breathing and circulation is performed in reverse order because the majority of these patients (60%) have primary circulatory compromise

C) In the home setting, the initial assessment focuses on patient history, whereas in the field setting, the initial assessment focuses on airway, breathing and circulation

D) In the home setting, the initial assessment is performed only after the paramedic has been educated (by either the patient or a home health provider) about the home health equipment (ventilators, catheters, airway adjuncts, etc.) involved in the patient’s long-term care

A

The initial assessment is no different in the home health care setting

33
Q

What does CPAP stand for?

A) Continuous positive airway pressure

B) Counter-pressure and airway profusion

C) Canister-powered airway pressurization

D) Continued percussion and pressurization

A

Continuous positive airway pressure

34
Q

Which of the following oxygen systems do not have to be resupplied?

A) Liquid oxygen

B) Oxygen concentrator

C) Compressed gas

D) Nitrous system

A

Oxygen concentrator

35
Q

Which of the following is a ventilator support system that cycles through preset levels of inspiratory and expiratory positive airway pressure?

A) CPAP

B) BiPAP

C) NIPPV

D) PEEP

A

BiPAP

36
Q

A 47-year-old female’s home ventilator is malfunctioning. She states that during normal operation, this “poncho” style ventilator augments her inhalations by dropping the pressure in the lungs, thus drawing air in. What is this type of ventilator referred to as?

A) Compliance ventilator

B) Constant-pressure ventilator

C) Negative-pressure ventilator

D) Positive end-expiratory pressure (PEPP) ventilator

A

Negative-pressure ventilator

37
Q

For what type of illness would a negative-pressure ventilator be recommended?

A) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease

B) Cystic fibrosis

C) Spinal cord trauma

D) Asthma

A

Spinal cord trauma

38
Q

In the home health care setting, which of the following devices will enhance alveolar ventilation and gas exchange MOST effectively?

A) Tracheostomy

B) CPAP machine

C) An iron lung

D) Venturi mask

A

CPAP machine

39
Q

A patient who is anxious and fighting against an endotracheal tube will typically trigger what type of ventilator alarm?

A) High-pressure

B) Low-pressure

C) Oxygen failure

D) Nonoperational

A

High-pressure

40
Q

The “P” of the DOPE pneumonic stands for which of the following?

A) Pneumothorax

B) Pleural decompression

C) Pneumonia

D) Put it back

A

Pneumothorax

41
Q

If your patient’s ventilator is indicating that there is water in the ventilator tubing, how should you respond?

A) Replace the tubing

B) Remove the patient’s ET tube and re-intubate

C) Disconnect the tubing and allow it to drain before reconnecting

D) Suction the tubing

A

Disconnect the tubing and allow it to drain before reconnecting

42
Q

Your 66 year old male patient is unconscious and unresponsive. His wife states that he recently had an LVAD placed. Upon assessment your partner state’s that he cannot feel a pulse on the patient. What should be your next step?

A) Begin CPR

B) Ask the wife how long he has been like this

C) Contact the LVAD manufacturer

D) Call medical control

A

Contact the LVAD manufacturer

43
Q

Which of the following is not a potential cause of an air embolism?

A) IV fluid containers running dry

B) Loose connections in catheter tubing

C) Catheter breakage

D) No flicking the bubbles out of a syringe before injection

A

No flicking the bubbles out of a syringe before injection

44
Q

What are PICC, Hickman and Groshong all types of?

A) Urinary catheters

B) Ventilation machines

C) Vascular access devices

D) Ventricular shunts

A

Vascular access devices

45
Q

What is a PEG tube a type of?

A) Vascular access device

B) Tracheostomy tube

C) Indwelling nutritional-support device

D) Urinary bladder catheter

A

Indwelling nutritional-support device

46
Q

When inserting a urinary catheter in a male patient, how far should the catheter be advanced?

A) Urine enters the catheter

B) It is fully inserted near the point of catheter bifurcation

C) The balloon is at least 6 inches past the urethral opening

D) The balloon may be infused with up to 10 mL of fluid without excessive resistance

A

Urine enters the catheter

47
Q

A 23-year-old female is complaining of vaginal bleeding. She states that she delivered her first child 5 weeks ago, has not had a return of her normal menstrual cycle and has a very heavy flow of dark-red vaginal bleeding. Which statement is true of this presentation?

A) This episode marks the return of this patient’s menstrual cycle

B) This may be postpartum hemorrhage, which can be delayed by up to 6 weeks

C) This is a nonemergent presentation, referred to as postpartum menorrhea, that will decrease in intensity with subsequent pregnancies and births

D) This is common finding among women who breast-feed their newborns and would require medical attention only if it continued for more than 7 to 10 days

A

This may be postpartum hemorrhage, which can be delayed by up to 6 weeks

48
Q

Which guideline correctly identifies the parameters of infantile apnea?

A) Any respiratory effort with fewer than 30 breaths per minute

B) Cessation of breathing with accompanying seizure activity or loss of consciousness

C) Cessation of respirations for greater than 20 seconds, with bradycardia

D) Cessation of respirations for less than 10 seconds, with ventricular ectopy

A

Cessation of respirations for greater than 20 seconds, with bradycardia

49
Q

Palliative care is a unique form of care provided for terminally ill patients. What is a primary goal of palliative care?

A) Assist the patient in finding a means of ending life (euthanasia)

B) Provide pain relief, family assurance and comfort as death approaches

C) Financially assist the patient with issues such as wills, trusts and life insurance policies

D) Help the patient find resources for alternative types of medicine in an attempt to cure or halt the disease

A

Provide pain relief, family assurance and comfort as death approaches

50
Q

Who is palliative care programs service directed by?

A) Clergy

B) A physician

C) A social worker

D) A board composed of terminally injured patients and their families

A

A physician

51
Q

Field of Medicine that focuses on treatment and control of obesity

A

bariatrics

52
Q

80% of stomach is removed during what procedure?

A

sleeve gastrectomy

53
Q

what is a special consideration when assessing a patient with emotional impairment?

A

assume the most serious cause

54
Q

50% of children with down syndrome have what condition at birth?

A

heart defect

55
Q

in 2016, how many Americans did not have health insurance?

A

28 million

56
Q

what goes unnoticed in the progression of visual impairment until advanced stages?

A

loss of peripheral vision

57
Q

when hearing loss occurs when there is damage to CNS, rather than to ear structures, it is called what?

A

central hearing loss

58
Q

partial hearing loss often results from an ear disease, true or false?

A

true

59
Q

mild intellectual disability often does not have a specific cause, true or false?

A

true

60
Q

what demographic is cystic fibrosis most prevalant?

A

caucasians

61
Q

what should be included in the care plan of a patient on home ventilator support?

A

description of equipment function and configuration

62
Q

immediate treatment for a suspected air embolism in a patient with long term vascular access?

A

aspirate air and fluid

63
Q

earliest form of home health care focused on what?

A

preventative care

64
Q

you should be concerned the most about an air embolus in a patient with a:

A

central line

65
Q

which organization supports the medical home concept?

A

American college of emergency physicians

66
Q

what is typical in a premature baby who is discharged home?

A

pulmonary dysplasia

67
Q

a patient who has pathologic conditions of the airway may require what in a home care setting?

A

alveolar ventilation

68
Q

a thoracic wall disorder, in which the patient is unable to maintain adequate ventilation for long periods of time is called what?

A

myasthenia gravis

69
Q

a condition that presents with abnormal pauses or slowing of breathing is called what?

A

sleep apnea

70
Q

if ventilation does not improve following all check points, the paramedic should:

A

apply positive pressure ventilation via bag-valve device

EMT 214 (1 decks)

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