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EMT 170 > EMT 170 > Flashcards

EMT 170 Flashcards

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1
Q

If you recognize that conditions could be rapidly fatal for the patient, what should you consider?

A

Emergent removal

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2
Q

What is the process of making a pathway through the wreckage of an accident and removing wreckage from patients?

A

disentanglement

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3
Q

what is the mechanical entrapment that places a person in a confined space?

A

engulfment

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4
Q

what is a device that provides nearly unlimited supply of air from a source located outside the confined space?

A

Supplied air breathing apparatus (SABA)

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5
Q

What is an event for which immediately available resources are insufficient to manage the number of casualties?

A

Mass Casualty Incident (MCI)

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6
Q

What type of flotation device is an off-shore life jacket?

A

Type I

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7
Q

What type of flotation device is a near-shore bouyant vest?

A

Type II

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8
Q

What type of flotation device is a flotation aid?

A

Type III

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9
Q

What type of flotation device is a throwable flotation ring?

A

Type VI

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10
Q

EMS providers involved in rescue should have a minimum of what PPE?

A

Impact resistant helmet, safety goggles, puncture resistant coat and pants, slip resistant gloves, and steel toe boots

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11
Q

What can EMS providers do, who are not trained in specialized rescue, in a rescue situation?

A

Assist the rescue team only if they can do so safely without entering the space

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12
Q

What are potential complications of the SABA?

A

Equipment malfunction, damaged or entangled air lines, limitations imposed by length of the air hose.

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13
Q

What is a universal framework designed to improve coordination and efficient control of emergency response operations and resources?

A

Incident Command System

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14
Q

The person responsible for all incident activities, including the development of strategies and tactics and the ordering and release of resources?

A

Incident commander

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15
Q

what is the section that is responsible for providing supplies and equipment, facilities, services, food and communications support?

A

logistics

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16
Q

what is the section that directs and coordinates all emergency scene operations?

A

Operations section

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17
Q

what is the section that is responsible for providing past, present and future information about the incident and the status of resources?

A

planning section

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18
Q

what section is responsible for tracking costs and reimbursement?

A

finance/administration section

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19
Q

which priority of the ICS is to the safety of the responders and the public?

A

Life safety

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20
Q

which priority of ICS focuses on deciding strategies to minimize the effect of the incident on an area?

A

incident stability

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21
Q

which ICS responsibility is for minimizing the damage to property and environment while achieving the incident objectives?

A

property conservation

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22
Q

which triage system was developed as a national all-hazards mass-casualty initial triage standard for all patients?

A

SALT (sort, assess, lifesaving interventions, treatment/transport) triage

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23
Q

which triage assessment is a 60 second assessment that focuses on the patient’s ability to walk, respiratory effort, pulses/perfusion, and mental status?

A

START triage

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24
Q

Which system uses the international agreement on color coding and priorities to alert emergency care personnel and staff members of the receiving medical facility to the patient’s category?

A

METTAG system

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25
Q

Which system uses four color triage coding cards that have military bar codes for tracking patients?

A

SMART tag system

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26
Q

What is an obstruction that allows a current to flow through but can trap objects such as boats or people?

A

Strainers

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27
Q

what type of flow obstruction can be commonly found in rivers and on low-head dams and often appear harmless at first glance?

A

Recirculating currents

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28
Q

how high does fast moving water have to be to be considered unsafe?

A

knee-high in depth

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29
Q

what is the temperature that water has to be at to induce hypothermia

A

less than 98 degrees

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30
Q

how cold does water have to be for a person to be unable to maintain their body heat?

A

92 degrees F

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31
Q

how long does someone have to be submerged in cold water for hypothermia to be a significant contributer to death?

A

30-60 minutes

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32
Q

in cases of sudden immersion, what posture should the victim maintain to reduce heat loss?

A

a fetal position (heat escape lessening posture or HELP posture)

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33
Q

what is also known as the cold-protective response?

A

mamallian diving reflex

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34
Q

what factors go into considering rescue versus body recovery?

A

temperature of water, length of time, known or possible trauma, environmental conditions, victims age and physical condition, and time until rescure or removal is achieved

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35
Q

in temperatures 41 degrees F or below, how long should resucitation be attempted?

A

90 minutes

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36
Q

what is the recommended water rescue model?

A

reach, throw, row, go

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37
Q

What is defined as any group of people who engage in socially disruptive or criminal behavior?

A

gang

38
Q

what is the most visible sign of gang criminal activity?

A

graffiti

39
Q

why would gangs attack an EMS personnel?

A

they often “look like” law enforcement

40
Q

what is a four-sided, diamond shaped sign displayed on hazardous materials containers that usually are yellow, orange, white, or green?

A

Placards

41
Q

what class are explosives?

A

class 1

42
Q

what class are gases?

A

class 2

43
Q

what class are flammable and combustible liquids?

A

class 3

44
Q

what class are flammable solids?

A

class 4

45
Q

what class are oxidizers and organic peroxides?

A

class 5

46
Q

what class are poisonous and infectious materials?

A

class 6

47
Q

what class are radioactive materials

A

class 7

48
Q

what class are corrosives?

A

class 8

49
Q

what class are miscellanious hazard materials?

A

class 9

50
Q

what is the weight of a material as compared with the weight of an equal volume of water?

A

specific gravity

51
Q

what is the weight of a pure vapor or gas compared witht he weight of an equal volume of dry air at the same temperature and pressure?

A

vapor density

52
Q

what are paramedics required to do, according to NFPA 473, standard for competencies for EMS personnel responding to hazardous materials/weapons of mass destruction?

A

anazlyze the scene to determine potential health risks, deliver ALS to patients, and implement a prehospital treatment plan for patients who have been exposed, and begin care after appropriate decontamination

53
Q

which type of corrosive burns more extensively on human skin contact, and could possibly lead to liquefaction?

A

Strong bases (Alkalis)

54
Q

Which level of EPA protection provides the highest level of skin, respiratory, and eye protection?

A

level A

55
Q

Which EPA protection is used during the transport of contaminated patients?

A

Level C

56
Q

Which EPA level protection is typically worn by the decontamination team?

A

Level B

57
Q

what is the exposure to a hazardous substance that is harmful only to the person exposed and that poses little risk of exposure to others?

A

primary contamination

58
Q

what is the exposure to a hazardous substance whereby liquid and particulate substances are transferred easily to others by touching?

A

secondary contamination

59
Q

patient care in the hot zone are limited to what?

A

initial airway management and hemorrhage control

60
Q

when supporting mass contaminations, patient care provisions of airway, breathing, and circulatory support should begin when?

A

as soon as the patient is contacted and conditions allow.

61
Q

when decontaminating patients contaminated with dry agent, what should you be careful of?

A

introducing the agent into the patient’s airway

62
Q

what chemical threat inhibits the effects of acetylcholinesterase, which causes a cholinergic “overdrive”?

A

Nerve Agents

63
Q

What are chemicals with highly irritating properties that produce fluid filled pockets on the skin and damage to the eyes lungs and other mucous membranes?

A

blister agents

64
Q

which poisonous gas can cause pulmonary edema to develop within 2-4 hours?

A

Chlorine gas

65
Q

which gas can kill you within 48 hours after exposure?

A

phosgene gas

66
Q

What factors would you consider calling an air ambulance?

A

time needed to transport, weather or road conditions, critical care personnel needed for treatment

67
Q

what is the ideal space requirement for a helicopter landing zone?

A

100x100

68
Q

what special consideration should be implemented with night time landing of helicopters?

A

emergency vehicles with lighted bar lights should be situated at the perimeter of the LZ

69
Q

when and how should you approach a helicopter?

A

when signaled by the pilot and crouched, approaching the nose

70
Q

What is also known as a “dirty nuke” or “dirty bomb”?

A

Radiologic dispersion device

71
Q

what would be something every first responder would need when responding to a radiologic dispersion device disaster

A

a radiation detection monitor

72
Q

what is the standard system for the identification of the hazards of materials for emerency response, that is maintained by the u.s. based national fire protection association?

A

NFPA 704

73
Q

which phase of rescue operations requires the paramedic to determine what is needed at a specific emergency event?

A

First phase: scene size up

74
Q

Which phase is the phase of rescue in which on scene dangers are quickly identified and managed by the first arriving crew?

A

Phase 2: Hazard control

75
Q

Which phase of rescue requires the rapid extrication to gain access to an ill or injured person?

A

Phase 3: Gaining access to the patient

76
Q

Which phase of rescue involves the paramedic performing a rapid primary survey to identify and manage any life threats?

A

Phase 4: Medical Treatment

77
Q

Which phase of rescue involves making a pathway through the wreckage of an incident and removing the wreckage from the patient?

A

Phase 5: Disentanglement

78
Q

Which phase of rescue involves stabilizing the patient physically and preparing the person for transport?

A

Phase 6: Patient packaging

79
Q

Which Phase of rescue involves moving the patient to the appropriate hospital

A

Phase 7: Transport

80
Q

What patient movement device is standard for rough-terrain evacuation?

A

Basket stretcher

81
Q

What equipment may be required for moving a patient over rough terrain?

A

load-lifting straps, anchors, and rope lowering/hauling systems

82
Q

how many rescuers are required to carry a litter across rough, flat terrain?

A

6, 4 to carry and 2 to scout potential hazards

83
Q

what machinery hazard is responsible for many farm injuries, such as amputations, severe lacerations, multiple fractures, spine and neck injuries, or complete body destruction, and is typically found on tractors or other farm machinery?

A

Power take-off

84
Q

What is the position called when the paramedics park the ambulance diagonally about 50 feet in front of the scene?

A

the fend off position

85
Q

when using lights and sirens, what does this indicate to other drivers?

A

a request for permission to proceed

86
Q

what percentage of ambulance crashes occur in intersections where ambulance proceeds against a red light?

A

43%-53%

87
Q

When proceeding against the flow of traffic in an ambulance, what should your max speed be?

A

less than 20 miles per hour

88
Q

what is the part of the vehicle that separates the engine and the occupant compartment?

A

firewall

89
Q

what is the part of the car designed to provide structural integrity to the vehicle and protection to the occupants during front-impatc and side-impact collisions?

A

door

90
Q

what should you try first when trying to gain access to a trapped victim in a car?

A

open all car doors

91
Q

what should be worn to improve safety of the paramedic during day and night time operations?

A

a fucking reflective belt (or a reflective striped clothing)

92
Q

what is designed into a car door to prevent it from opening during impact that could prove troublesome if engaged during a crash?

A

Nader pin/latch

EMT 170 (1 decks)

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