EMS Flashcards 2

1
Q

Pneumonia - Mode of Transmission, Incubation

A

Oral and nasal droplets and secretions - several days

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2
Q

Tuberculosis (TB) - Mode of Transmission, Incubation

A

Respiratory secretions; airborne or on contaminated objects - 2 to 6 weeks

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3
Q

Whooping cough (pertussis)Mode of Transmission, Incubation

A

Respiratory secretions or airborne droplets - 6 to 20 days

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4
Q

Ryan White CARE Act

A

Notification when a patient is diagnosed with an infectious disease

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5
Q

CISM

A

Critical Incident Stress Management- comprehensive system to prevent and deal with stress

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6
Q

MCI

A

Multiple Casualty Incident

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7
Q

Pathogens

A

organisms that cause infection such as viruses and bacteria

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8
Q

Standard Precautios

A

Strict form of infection control

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9
Q

Bariatric

A

patients who are significantly overweight or obese

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10
Q

body mechanics

A

proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving and prevent injury

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11
Q

direct carry

A

transferring a patient from bed to stretcher in which rescuers curl the patient to their chests and reverse to the stretcher (bridal carry)

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12
Q

direct ground lift

A

lifting and carrying from ground level to a stretcher; two or more kneel; curl the patient to their chests; stand; then reverse to stretcher

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13
Q

draw-sheet method

A

transfering from bed to stretcher by grabbing loosened bottom sheet

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14
Q

extremeity lift

A

slip hands under patient’s armpits and grasps the wrists while second grasps the knees

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15
Q

power grip

A

using as much hand surface as possible at least 10 inches apart

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16
Q

power lift

A

lift from squatting position with weight close to body

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17
Q

abandonment

A

leaving a patient after care has been initiated but before transferred to a medical authority

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18
Q

advance directive

A

A DNR order; written

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19
Q

assault

A

in fear of bodily harm

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20
Q

battery

A

causing bodily harm

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21
Q

confidentiality

A

obligation not to reveal information except to health care professionals involved in the patient’s care or under subpoena; court; or patient release signed

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22
Q

consent

A

permission from patient for care

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23
Q

DNR

A

legal document usually signed by patient and physician

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24
Q

Duty to act

A

obligation to provide care to a patient

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25
Q

expressed consent

A

given by patients of legal age and mentally competent

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26
Q

Good Samaritan laws

A

limited legal protections for citizens and some health care providers

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27
Q

HIPAA

A

Health Insurance Portablility And Accountability Act

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28
Q

Implied Consent

A

presumed a patient or patient’s guardian would give if they could

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29
Q

In Loco Parentis

A

in place of the parents; indicates someone who has authority to give parental permissions

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30
Q

libel

A

false or injurious information in written form

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31
Q

negligence

A

finding of failure to act properly in which there was a duty to act; as would be resonably expected

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32
Q

res ipsa loquitur

A

the thing speaks for itself

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33
Q

safe haven law

A

permits a person to drop off an infant or child at a police; fire; or EMS station or any public safety personnel

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34
Q

scope of practice

A

define the scope; or extent of limits of the EMS’s job

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35
Q

slander

A

false or injurious information stated verbally

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36
Q

standard of care

A

care that could resonably be expected

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37
Q

tort

A

civil offense

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38
Q

Divisions of the spine

A

Cervical (7); thoracic (12); Lumbar (5); sacral (5); coccyx (4)

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39
Q

Atypically

A

Unusually

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40
Q

Pale and sweaty a result of

A

constricted blood vessels

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41
Q

abdominal quadrants

A

right and left; upper and lower

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42
Q

acetabulum

A

pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint

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43
Q

acromioclavicular joint

A

where the acromion and clavicle meet

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44
Q

acromion process

A

highest portion of the shoulder

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45
Q

alveoli

A

microscopic sacs of the lungs where gas exchange with the bloodstream

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46
Q

anatomical position

A

standard reference positionf for the body the body is standing erect; facing the observer; with arms down at the sides and palms forward

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47
Q

anatomy

A

study of body structure

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48
Q

anterior

A

front of the body or body part

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49
Q

aorta

A

largest artery in the body transports blood from the left ventricle to begin systemic circulation

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50
Q

appendix

A

small tube located near the juntion of the small and large intestines in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen

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51
Q

arteriole

A

smallest kind of artery

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52
Q

artery

A

vessel carrying blood away from the heart

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53
Q

atria

A

two upper chambers of the heart. The right atrium receives unoxygenated blood returning from the body. The left atria receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

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54
Q

automaticity

A

the ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impluses on its own

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55
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor function

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56
Q

bilateral

A

on both sides

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57
Q

bladder

A

organ of the renal system

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58
Q

blood pressure

A

blood exerting force diastolic blood pressure - pressure at rest while left ventricle is refilling - systolic pressure - pressure when left ventricle contracts

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59
Q

brachial artery

A

upper arm

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60
Q

bronchi

A

two large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs right and left bronchi; bronchus singular

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61
Q

calcaneus

A

the heel bone

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62
Q

capillary

A

blood vessel where o2/co2 and nutrient/waste exchange occurs

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63
Q

cardiac conduction system

A

specialized muscle tissues the conducts electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat

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64
Q

cardiac muscle

A

specialized involuntary muscle found only in the heart

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65
Q

cardiovasuclar system

A

system made up of the heart and the blood vessels also called the circulatory system

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66
Q

carotid arteries

A

large neck arteries; one on each side carry blood from the heart to the head

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67
Q

carpals

A

wrist bones

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68
Q

central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

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69
Q

central pulses

A

carotid and femoral pulses in the central part of the body

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70
Q

clavicle

A

collarbone

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71
Q

combining form

A

word root with an added vowel joined with other words; root or suffix to form new word

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72
Q

compound

A

word formed from two or more

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73
Q

coronary arteries

A

blood vessels that supple the muscle of the heart

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74
Q

cranium

A

top; back; and sides of the skull

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75
Q

cricoid cartilage

A

ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx

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76
Q

dermis

A

inner (second) layer of skin; rich in blood vessels and nerves; found beneath the epidermis

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77
Q

diaphragm

A

muscle that devides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity Major muscle of respiration

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78
Q

distal

A

farther away from the torso; oposite proximal

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79
Q

dorsal

A

back of the body or hand or foot; same as posterior

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80
Q

dorsalis pedis artery

A

artery supplying the foot; lateral to the large tendon of the big toe

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81
Q

endocrine system

A

glands that produce hormones that regulate body activities and functions

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82
Q

epidermis

A

outer layer of skin

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83
Q

epiglottis

A

leaf shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea

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84
Q

epinephrine

A

hormone produced by the body that dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

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85
Q

exhalation

A

a passive process in which intercostal(rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax; causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and air to flow out of the lungs

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86
Q

femoral artery

A

major artery supplying the leg

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87
Q

femur

A

large bone of the thigh

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88
Q

fibula

A

the lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg

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89
Q

fowler position

A

sitting

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90
Q

gallbladder

A

sac on the underside of the liver that stores bile produced by the liver

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91
Q

humerus

A

bone of the upper arm; between the shoulder and the elbow

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92
Q

hypoperfusion

A

inadequate perfusion of the cells and tissues fo the body casued by insuffiient flow of blood thru the capillaries; also called shock

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93
Q

illium

A

superior and widest portion of the pelvis

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94
Q

inferior

A

away from the head; (beneath) the lips are inferior to the nose - opposite is superior

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95
Q

inhalation

A

active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm contract; expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

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96
Q

insulin

A

hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by diabetics

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97
Q

involuntary muscle

A

responds automatically to brain signals but cannot be conciously controlled

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98
Q

ischium

A

lower posterior portion of the pelvis

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99
Q

joint

A

two bones come together

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100
Q

kidneys

A

renal system filter blood and regulate fluid levels

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101
Q

large intestine

A

muscular tube removes water from waste received from small intestine and moves everything not absorbed by the body toward exrcretion

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102
Q

larynx

A

voice box

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103
Q

lateral

A

to the side; away from the midline of the body - opposite is medial

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104
Q

ligament

A

bone to bone connection tissue

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105
Q

liver

A

largest organ; produces bile to assist breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in the body

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106
Q

lungs

A

organ where exchange of atmospheric o2 and waste co2 take place

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107
Q

malleolus

A

protrusion on the side of the ankle lateral malleolus; at the lower end of the fibula is seen on the outer ankle; the medial malleolus at the lower end of the tibia; is seen on the inner ankle

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108
Q

mandible

A

lower jaw bone

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109
Q

manubrium

A

superior portion fo the sternum

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110
Q

maxillae

A

two fused bones forming the upper jaw

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111
Q

medial

A

toward the midline of the body - opposite is lateral

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112
Q

metatarsals

A

foot bones

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113
Q

metacarpals

A

hand bones

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114
Q

mid-axillary

A

line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle

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115
Q

mid-clavicular

A

line through the center of the clavicle

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116
Q

midline

A

drawn down center of the body; dividing right and left

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117
Q

muscle

A

tissue that can contract to allow movement of a body part

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118
Q

musculoskeletal system

A

bones and skeletal muscles that support and protect the body and permit movement

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119
Q

nasal bones

A

nose

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120
Q

nasopharynx

A

area directly posterior to the nose

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121
Q

nervous system

A

brain; spinal cord; and nerves that govern sensation; movement; and thought

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122
Q

orbits

A

bony structures around the eyes; eye sockets

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123
Q

oropharynx

A

area directly posterior to the mouth

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124
Q

ovaries

A

egg-producing organs within the female reproductive system

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125
Q

palmar

A

palm of the hand

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126
Q

pancreas

A

gland located behind the stomach that produces insulin and juices that assist in digestion of food in the duodenum of the small intestine

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127
Q

patella

A

kneecap

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128
Q

pelvis

A

supports the spine and is the point of proximal attachment for the lower extremities

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129
Q

perfusion

A

supply of o2 to and removal of wastes from cells and tissues as a result of flow of blood thru the capillaries

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130
Q

peripheral nervous system (PNS)

A

nerves that enter and leave the spinal cord and travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord

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131
Q

peripheral pulses

A

radial; brachial; posterior tibial; and dorsalis pedis pulses; which can be felt at peripheral (outlying) points of the body.

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132
Q

phalages

A

toe bones and finger bones

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133
Q

pharynx

A

area directly posterior to the mouth and nose. Made up of the oropharynx and the nasopharynx

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134
Q

physiology

A

study of the body function

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135
Q

plantar

A

sole of the foot

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136
Q

plasma

A

fluid portion of the blood

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137
Q

platlets

A

membrane-enclosed fragments of specialized cells

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138
Q

posterior

A

back of the body or body part

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139
Q

posterior tibial artery

A

supplying the foot behind the medial ankle

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140
Q

prone

A

lying face down

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141
Q

proximal

A

closer to the body; opposite distal

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142
Q

pubis

A

medial anterior portion of the pelvis

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143
Q

pulmonary arteries

A

vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs

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144
Q

pulmonary veins

A

carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium

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145
Q

radial artery

A

lower arm; felt when taking the pulse in the wrist

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146
Q

radius

A

lateral bone of the forarm

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147
Q

recovery position

A

lying on side also called lateral recumbent position

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148
Q

red blood cells

A

components of the bllod that carry oxygento and carbon dioxide away from the cells

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149
Q

renal system

A

regulates fluid balance and filtration of blood; also called urinary system

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150
Q

reproductive system

A

responsible for human reproduction

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151
Q

respiration (cellular)

A

process of moving o2 and co2 between circulating blood and the cells

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152
Q

respiratory system

A

nose; mouth; throat; lungs; and muscles that bring o2 into the body and expels co2

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153
Q

scapula

A

shoulder blade

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154
Q

shock

A

hypoperfusion

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155
Q

skeleton

A

bones of the body

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156
Q

skin

A

tissue between the body and the external environment

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157
Q

skull

A

bony structure of the head

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158
Q

small intestine

A

muscular tube between the stomach and the large intestine; divided into duodenum; the jejunum; and the ileum; which receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues digestion. Nutrients are absorbed by the body thru its walls

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159
Q

spleen

A

located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and acts as a blood filtration system and reservoir by the body for reserves of blood

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160
Q

sternum

A

breastbone

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161
Q

stomach

A

between the esophagus and the small intestine

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162
Q

subcutaneous layers

A

layers of fat and soft tissue found below the dermis

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163
Q

superior

A

toward the head; opposite inferior

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164
Q

supine

A

lying on the back

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165
Q

tarsals

A

ankle bones

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166
Q

tendon

A

muscle to bone

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167
Q

testes

A

male organs of reproduction used for the production of sperm

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168
Q

thorax

A

the chest

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169
Q

thyroid cartilage

A

wing-shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms the adams apple

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170
Q

tibia

A

medial and larger bone of the lower leg

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171
Q

torso

A

trunk of the body; without the head and extremities

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172
Q

trachea

A

windpipe; structure that connects the pharynx to the lungs

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173
Q

trendelenburg posisition

A

patient’s feet and legs are higher than the head

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174
Q

ulna

A

medial bone of the forearm

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175
Q

ureters

A

tubes connecting the kidneys to the bladder

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176
Q

urethra

A

tube connecting the bladder to the vagina or penis

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177
Q

uterus

A

female organ of reproduction used to house the developing fetus

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178
Q

vagina

A

female organ of reproduction used for both sexual intercourse and as an exit from the uterus for the fetus

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179
Q

valve

A

structure that opens and closes to permit the flow of a fluid in only one direction

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180
Q

vein

A

blood vessel returning blood to the heart

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181
Q

venae cavae

A

superior vena cava and the inferior vena cavae major veins return blood from the body to the right atrium( vena cava singular)

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182
Q

ventricles

A

two lower chambers of the heart right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs; left ventricle sends oxygenated blood to the body

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183
Q

venule

A

smallest kind of vein

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184
Q

vertebrae

A

33 bones of the spinal column

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185
Q

voluntary muscle

A

can be consciously controlled

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186
Q

white blood cells

A

produce substances that help the body fight infection

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187
Q

xiphoid process

A

inferior portion of the sternum

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188
Q

zygomatic arches

A

bones that form the struture of the cheeks

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189
Q

aerobic metabolism

A

cellular process in which o2 is used to metabolize glucose. Energy is produced in an efficient manner with minimal waste products

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190
Q

cardiac output

A

amount of blood ejected from the heart in 1 minute (heart rate x stroke volume)

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191
Q

chemoreceptors

A

chemical sensors in the brain and blood vessels that identify changing levels of o2 and co2

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192
Q

dead air space

A

air that occupies the space between the mouth and alveoli but that does not actually reach the area of gas exchange

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193
Q

dehydration

A

abnormally low amount of water in the body

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194
Q

edema

A

swelling associated with the movement of water into the interstitial space

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195
Q

electrolyte

A

substance that when dissolved in water separates into charged particles

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196
Q

FiO2

A

fraction fo inspired o2; the concentration of o2 in the air we breath

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197
Q

hydrostatic pressure

A

pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push water out of the vessel

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198
Q

hypersensitivitiy

A

exaggerated response by the immune system to a particular substance

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199
Q

hypoperfusion

A

inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients also called shock

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200
Q

metabolism

A

the cellular function of converting nutrients into energy

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201
Q

minute volume

A

the amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by the number of breaths per minute

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202
Q

patent

A

open and clear; free from obstruction

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203
Q

pathophysiology

A

the study of how disease processes affect the function of the body

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204
Q

perfusion

A

supply of o2 to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

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205
Q

plasma oncotic pressure

A

the pull exerted by large proteins in the plasma portion fo blood that tends to pull water from the body into the bloodstream

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206
Q

shock

A

inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients hypoperfusion

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207
Q

stretch receptors

A

sensors in blood vessels that identify internal pressure

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208
Q

stroke volume

A

the amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction

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209
Q

systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

A

pressure in the peripheral blood vessels that the heart must overcome in order to pump blood int the system

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210
Q

tidal volume

A

volume of air moved in one cycle of breathing

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211
Q

V/Q match

A

ventilation/perfusion match. This implies that the alveoli are supplied with enough air and that the air in the alveoli is matched with sufficient blood in the pulmonary capillaries to permit optimum exchange of o2 and co2

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212
Q

moro reflex

A

infant reaction to startlement by throwing arms out; spreads fingers; then grabs with fingers and arms

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213
Q

palmar reflex

A

when u place your finger in an infant’s palm and they grab it

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214
Q

adolescence

A

13 to 18

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215
Q

early adulthood

A

19 to 40

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216
Q

infancy

A

birth to 1

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217
Q

late adulthood

A

60 or older

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218
Q

middle adulthood

A

41 to 60

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219
Q

school age

A

6 to 12

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220
Q

preschool age

A

3 to 5

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221
Q

rooting reflex

A

when you touch a hungary infants cheek and he turns his head toward the side touched

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222
Q

scaffolding

A

building on what one already knows

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223
Q

suckling reflex

A

when u stroke a hungary infants lips he will start suckling

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224
Q

temperament

A

the infants reaction to his environment

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225
Q

toddler phase

A

12 to 36 months

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226
Q

trust vs. mistrust

A

concept developed from an orderly predictable environment versus a disorderly irregular environment

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227
Q

bronchoconstriction

A

contraction of smooth muscle that lines the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased restance to air flow

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228
Q

nasopharyngeal airway

A

flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

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229
Q

oropharyngeal airway

A

curved device inserted through the patient’s mouth into the pharynx to maintain an open airway

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230
Q

patent airway

A

airway that is open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air

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231
Q

stridor

A

a high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed air flow in the upper airway

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232
Q

alveolar ventilation

A

the amount of air that reaches the alveoli

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233
Q

automatice transport ventilator (ATV)

A

device that provides positive pressure ventilations includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume; is protable; and is easily carried on an ambulance

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234
Q

bag-valve mask (BVM)

A

handheld resuscitation device with a self-refilling bag

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235
Q

cellular respiration

A

exchange of o2 and co2 between cells and circulating blood

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236
Q

cricoid pressure

A

pressure applied to the cricoid ring to minimize air entry into the esophagus during positive pressure ventilation; AKA Sellick maneuver

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237
Q

cyanosis

A

blue or gray color resulting from lack of o2 in the body

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238
Q

diffusion

A

molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

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239
Q

flowmeter

A

valve indicating o2 flow in liters per minute

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240
Q

flow-restricted o2 powered ventilation device (FROPVD)

A

uses o2 under pressure to deliver artificial ventilations. Its trigger is placed so that the rescuer can operate it while still using both hands to maintain a seal on the face mask. Has automatic flow restriction to prevent overdelivery of o2 to the patient

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241
Q

hypoxia

A

insufficency of o2 in the body’s tissues

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242
Q

nasal cannula

A

device that delivers low concentration of o2 through two prongs that rest in the patients nostrils

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243
Q

nonrebreather (NRB) mask

A

face mask and resevoir bag that delivers high concentrations of o2. The patient’s exhaled air escapes through a valve and is not rebreathed

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244
Q

partial rebreather mask

A

face mask and reservoir o2 bag with no one-way valve to the reservoir bag so that some exhaled air mixes with the o2 used in some patients to help reserve co2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

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245
Q

positive pressure ventilation

A

artificial ventilation

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246
Q

pulmonary respiration

A

exchange of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

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247
Q

respiration

A

diffusion of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration) AKA breathing

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248
Q

respiratory arrest

A

breathing stops

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249
Q

respiratory distress

A

increased work of breathing; sensation of shortness of breath

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250
Q

respiratory failure

A

reduction of breathing to the point where o2 intake is not sufficient to support life

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251
Q

stoma

A

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes.

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252
Q

tracheostomy mask

A

device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental o2

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253
Q

ventilation

A

breathing in and out or artificial provision of breaths

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254
Q

venturi mask

A

face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of o2 by mixing o2 with inhaled air

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255
Q

blunt-force trauma

A

injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

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256
Q

danger zone

A

area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

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257
Q

index of suspician

A

awareness that there may be injuries

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258
Q

mechanism of injury

A

force or forces that may have caused injury

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259
Q

nature of the illness

A

what is medically wrong with a patient

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260
Q

penetrating trauma

A

injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

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261
Q

scene size-up

A

steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call; scene safety; standard precautions; noting the mechanism of injury or nature of illness; determining the number of patients; and deciding what if any additional resources to call fo

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262
Q

AVPU

A

memory aid for classifying a patient’s level of responsiveness or mental status. A-alert V-verbal P-painful response U-unresponsive

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263
Q

chief complaint

A

reason EMS was called; in patients own words

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264
Q

general impression

A

bsed on first approaching the patient; patient’s environment; chief complaint; appearance

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265
Q

interventions

A

actions taken to correct or manage a patient’s problems

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266
Q

mental status

A

level of responsiveness

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267
Q

primary assessment

A

first element in a patient’s assessment steps taken. Six parts; forming a general impression; assessing mental status; assessing airway; assessing breathing; assessing circulation; and determining the priority of the patient fro treatment and transport to the hospital

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268
Q

priority

A

need for immediate transport versus further assessment and care at the scene

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269
Q

auscultation

A

listening via stethoscope

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270
Q

brachial artery

A

major artery in the arm

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271
Q

bradycardia

A

slow pulse; any pulse rate below 60

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272
Q

carotid artery

A

either side of the neck

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273
Q

diastolic pressure

A

pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is relaxed and refilling

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274
Q

dilate

A

get larger

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275
Q

oxygen saturation (SpO2)

A

ratio of the amount of o2 present in the blood to the amount that could be carried expressed in percentage

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276
Q

palpation

A

touching or feeling

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277
Q

pulse oximeter

A

electronic device for determining the amount of o2 carried in the blood (o2 saturation or SpO2)

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278
Q

pulse quality

A

rhythm (regular or irregular) and force (strong or weak) of the pulse

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279
Q

pulse rate

A

number of pulse beats per minute

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280
Q

pupil

A

black center of the eyes

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281
Q

radial pulse

A

pulse felt at the wrist

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282
Q

reactivity

A

reactivity of the pupils to light by changing size

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283
Q

respiration

A

breathing

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284
Q

respiratory quality

A

normal or abnormal (shallow; labored; or noisy) character of breathing

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285
Q

respiratory rate

A

breaths per minute

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286
Q

sphygmomanometer

A

the cuff and guage for blood pressure

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287
Q

systolic blood pressure

A

preasure when heart contracts and forces blood out of the arteries

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288
Q

tachycardia

A

rapid pulse; above 100

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289
Q

vital signs

A

respiration; pulse; skin color; temperature; and condition (plus capillary refill in infants and children); pupils; and bp

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290
Q

crepitation

A

grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together

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291
Q

detailed physical exam

A

assessment fo the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis extremities; and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury. Differs from rapid trauma assessment only in the at it also includes examination of the face; ears; eyes; nose; and mouth during the axamination of the head.

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292
Q

distention

A

stretched; inflated; or larger than normal

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293
Q

history of the present illness (HPI)

A

info gathered regarding symptoms and nature of the patient’s current concern

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294
Q

jugular vein distention (JVD)

A

bulging of the neck veins

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295
Q

paradoxical motion

A

movement of a part of the chest in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration

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296
Q

past medical history (PMH)

A

information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

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297
Q

priapism

A

persistent erection from spinal injury or medical problem

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298
Q

rapid trauma assessment

A

rapid assessment of the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis; extremites; and posterior of the body

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299
Q

SAMPLE

A

Past medical history; S-Signs and symptoms; A-Allergies; M-medications; P-pertinent past history; L-last oral intake; E-events leading to injury or illness

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300
Q

stoma

A

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

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301
Q

tracheostomy

A

surgical incision held open by a metal or plastic tube

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302
Q

trauma patient

A

patient suffering from one or more physical injuries

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303
Q

OPQRST

A

questions asked to get a description of the present illness. O-onset; P-provokes (what triggered it); Q-quality (can u describe it for me); R-radiation (where is the pain and does it spread and where to); S-severity; Time (when did it start; has it changed)

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304
Q

reassessment

A

used to detect changes; four step - primary assessment; vital signs; physical exam; checking interventions

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305
Q

trending

A

changes in the patient’s condition over time

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306
Q

differential diagnosis

A

potential diagnosis compiled early in the assessment

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307
Q

EMS/EMT diagnosis

A

label for a patient’s condition based on history; exam; and vitals Less specific than MD diagnosis

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308
Q

drop/transfer report

A

abreviated form of the PCR

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309
Q

contraindication

A

signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate or harmful

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310
Q

enteral

A

route of medication administration that uses GI tract; such as pill

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311
Q

epinephrine

A

drug that helps to constrict blood vessels and relax passages of the airway.

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312
Q

indications

A

signs or circumstances which it is appropriate to administer a drug

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313
Q

nitroglycerin

A

helps to dilate the coronary vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood

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314
Q

oral glucose

A

form of glucose given by mouth to treat an awake patient; able to swallow; with an altered mental status and history of diabetes

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315
Q

parenteral

A

route of medication administration that does not use the GI tract such as IV

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316
Q

pharmacodynamics

A

study of the effets of medications

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317
Q

pharmacology

A

study of drugs; their sources; their characteristics and their effects

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318
Q

untoward effect

A

effect of a medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful

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319
Q

bronchoconstriction

A

constriction or blockage of the bronchi that lead from the trachea to the lungs

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320
Q

continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

A

noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV) consisting of a mask and a means of blowing oxygen or air into the mask to prevent airway collapse or to help alleviate difficulty breathing

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321
Q

exhalation

A

expiration

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322
Q

expiration

A

pasive process which intercostal(rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax; causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and force air from the lungs

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323
Q

inhalation

A

inspiration

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324
Q

inspiration

A

an active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphram contract; expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

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325
Q

acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

A

blanket term for any symptoms related to lack of o2 (ischemia) in the heart muscle. AKA cardiac compromise

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326
Q

ischemia

A

aka heart attack

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327
Q

acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

A

portion of the myocardium dies as a result of o2 starvation

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328
Q

agonal breathing

A

irregular; gasping breaths that precede apnea and death

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329
Q

apnea

A

no breathing

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330
Q

aneurysm

A

dilation or ballooning of a weakened section of the wall of an artery

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331
Q

angina pectoris

A

pain in the chest occurring when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough o2

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332
Q

asystole

A

condition in which the heart has ceased generating electrical impulses

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333
Q

bradycardia

A

heart rate is slow; below 60

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334
Q

cardiac compromise

A

same as acute coronary syndrome

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335
Q

cardiovascular system

A

heart and blood vessels

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336
Q

congestive heart failure (CHF)

A

failure of the heart to pump efficiently; leading to excessive blood or fluids in the lungs; the body; or both

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337
Q

coronary artery disease (CAD)

A

diseases that affect the arteries of the heart

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338
Q

dyspnea

A

shortness of breath; labored or difficult breathing

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339
Q

dysrhythmia

A

disturbance in heart rate and rhythm

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340
Q

edema

A

swelling resulting from a buildup of fluid in the tissues

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341
Q

embolism

A

blockage of a vessel by a clot or foreign material brought to the site by the blood current

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342
Q

nitroglycerin (NTG)

A

medication that dilates the blood vessels

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343
Q

occlusion

A

blockage as an artery by fatty deposits

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344
Q

pedal edema

A

accumulation fo fluid in the feet or ankles

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345
Q

pulmonary edema

A

accumulation of fluid in the lungs

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346
Q

pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

A

heart’s electrical rhythm remains relatively normal; yet the mechanical pumping activity fails to follow the electrical activity causing cardiac arrest

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347
Q

sudden death

A

cardiac arrest that occurs within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms May have no prior symptoms

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348
Q

tachycardia

A

when the heart rate is fast; above 100

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349
Q

thrombus

A

clot formed of blood and plaque attached to the inner wall of an artery or vein

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350
Q

ventricular fibrillation (VF)

A

condition in which the heart’s electrical impulses are disorganized; preventing the heart muscle from contraacting normally

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351
Q

ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

A

heartbeat is quite rapid; not allowing chambers to fill between beats

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352
Q

aura

A

sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure; which might be a smell; sound; or general feeling

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353
Q

diabetes mellitus

A

sugar diabetes; condition brought about by decreased insulin production or the inability of the body cells to use insulin properly

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354
Q

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

A

result of high blood sugar (hyperglycemia); characterized by dehydration; altered mental status; and shock

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355
Q

epilepsy

A

medical condition that causes seizures

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356
Q

generalized seizure

A

affects both sides of the brain

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357
Q

glucose

A

form of sugar the body’s basic source of energy

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358
Q

hyperglycemia

A

high blood sugar

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359
Q

hypoglycemia

A

low blood sugar

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360
Q

insulin

A

hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics

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361
Q

partial seizure

A

affects only one part or one side of the brain

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362
Q

postictal phase

A

period of time immediately following a tonic-clonic seizure in which the patient goes from full loss of consciousness to full mental status

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363
Q

reticular activating system (RAS)

A

series of neurologic circuits in the brain that control the functions of staying awake; paying attention; and sleeping

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364
Q

seizure

A

sudden change in sensation; behavior; or movement Most severe form os seizure produces violent muscle contractions called convulsions

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365
Q

status epilepticus

A

prolonged seizure or situation when a person suffers two or more convulsive seizures without regaining full consciousness

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366
Q

stroke

A

conditions of altered function caused when an artery in the brain is blocked or ruptured; disrupting the supply of oxygenated blood or causing bleeding into the brain. Formally called cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

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367
Q

syncope

A

fainting

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368
Q

tonic-clonic seizure

A

generalized seizure in which the patient loses consciousness and has jerking movements of paired muscle groups

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369
Q

allergen

A

something that causes an allergic reaction

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370
Q

allergic reaction

A

exaggerated immune response

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371
Q

anaphylaxis

A

severe or life-threatening allergic reaction in which the blood vessels dilate; causing a drop in blood pressure; and the tissues lining the respiratory system swell; interfering with the airway. AKA anaphylactic shock

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372
Q

epinephrine

A

hormone produced by the body As a medication it constricts blood vessels and dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

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373
Q

absorbed poisons

A

poisons taken into the body through unbroken skin

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374
Q

activated charcoal

A

substance that adsorbs many poisons and prevents them from being absorbed by the body

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375
Q

antidote

A

substance that will neutralize the poison or its effects

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376
Q

delirium tremens (DTs)

A

severe reaction that can be part of alcohol withdrawal; characteriszed by sweating; trembling; anxiety; and hallucinations. Severe alcohol withdrawal with the DTs can lead to death if untreated

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377
Q

dilution

A

thinning down or weakening by mixing with something else. Ingested poisons are sometimes diluted by drinking water or milk.

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378
Q

downers

A

depressants; such as barbiturates; that depress the central nervous system which are often used to bring on a more relaxed state of mind

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379
Q

hallucinogens

A

mind-affecting drugs that act on the central nervous system to produce excitement and distortion of perceptions.

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380
Q

narcotics

A

class of drugs that affect the nervous system and change many normal body activities Their legal use is for the relief of pain. Illicit use is to produce an intense state of relaxation

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381
Q

toxin

A

a poisonous substance secreted by bacteria; plants; or animals

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382
Q

uppers

A

stimulants such as amphetamines that affect the central nervous system to excite the user

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383
Q

volatile chemicals

A

vaporizing compounds such as cleaning fluid; which are breathed inby the abuser to produce a high

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384
Q

withdrawal

A

referring to alcohol or drug withdrawal in which the patients body reacts severely when deprived of the abused substance

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385
Q

parietal pain

A

localized; intense pain that arises from the parietal peritoneum; the lining of the abdominal cavity

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386
Q

peritoneum

A

membrane that lines the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covers the organs within it (the visceral peritoneum)

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387
Q

referred pain

A

pain felt in a location other than where the pain originates

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388
Q

retroperitoneal space

A

area posterior to the peritoneum between the peritoneum and the back

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389
Q

tearing pain

A

sharp pain that feels as if body tissues are being torn apart

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390
Q

visceral pain

A

poorly localized; dull; or diffuse pain that arises from the abdominal organs; or viscera

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391
Q

excited delirium

A

bizarre and/or aggressive behavior; shouting; paranoia; panic; violence toward others; insensitivity to pain; unexpected physical strength; and hyperthermia; usually associated with cocaine or amphetamine use. Also called agitated delirium

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392
Q

positional asphyxia

A

inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body posiion that restricts breathing

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393
Q

anemia

A

lack of a normal number of red blood cells in circulation

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394
Q

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

A

gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catherter to drain fluid out.

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395
Q

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

A

irreversible renal failure to the extent that the kidneys can no longer provide adequate filtration and fluid balance to sustain life; survival with ESRD usually requires dialysis

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396
Q

peritonitis

A

bacterial infection within the peritoneal cavity

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397
Q

renal falure

A

loss of the kidney’s ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body

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398
Q

sickle cell anemia (SCA)

A

inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells

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399
Q

thrill

A

vibration felt on gently papation such as that which typically occurs withinn an arterial-venous fistula

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400
Q

arterial bleeding

A

bright red; rapid; profuse; pulseing; hard to control

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401
Q

capillary bleeding

A

slow; oozing flow

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402
Q

cardiogenic shock

A

shock; or lack of perfusion; brought on not by blood loss; but by the heart’s inadequated pumping action. Result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure

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403
Q

decompensated shock

A

body can no longer compensate for low blood volume or lack of perfusion Late signs such as decreasing blood pressure become evident

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404
Q

hemorrhage

A

bleeding; severe

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405
Q

hemorrhagic shock

A

shock resulting from blood loss

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406
Q

hemostatic agents

A

substances applied as powders dressings gauze or bandages to open wounds to stop bleeding

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407
Q

hypoperfusion

A

body’s inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with oxygen and nutrients

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408
Q

hypovolemic shock

A

shock resulting from blood or fluid loss

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409
Q

irreversible shock

A

unable to maintain perfusion to vital organs. Adequate vital signs may return patient dies withing days due to organ failure

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410
Q

neurogenic shock

A

hypoperfusion due to nerve paralysis (sometimes caused by spinal cord injuries) resulting in the dilation of blood vessels that increases the volume of the circulatory system beyond the point where it can be filled

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411
Q

perfusion

A

supply of o2 to; and removal of wastes from the body’s cells and tissues as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

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412
Q

pressure dressing

A

bulky dressing held in position with a tightly wrapped bandage; which applies pressure to help control bleeding

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413
Q

shock

A

inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients; which is a life-threatening condition AKA hypoperfusion

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414
Q

tourniquet

A

device used for bleeding control that constricts all blood flow to and from an extremity

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415
Q

venous bleeding

A

dark red; and steady

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416
Q

abrasion

A

scratch

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417
Q

amputation

A

severing of a body part

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418
Q

avulsion

A

tearing away or tearing off of a piece or flap of skin or other soft tissue This term also may be used for an eye pulled from its socket or a tooth dislodged from its socket

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419
Q

bandage

A

used to hold a dressing in place

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420
Q

closed wound

A

internal injury with no open pathway from the outside

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421
Q

contusion

A

bruise

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422
Q

crush injury

A

when force is transmitted from the body’s exterior to its internal structures broken bones; muscles; nerves; and tissues damaged; and internal organs ruptured causing internal bleeding

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423
Q

dermis

A

inner layer of the skin; found beneath the epidermis rich in blood vessels and nerves

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424
Q

dressing

A

material used to cover a wound to control bleeding and reduce futher contamination

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425
Q

epidermis

A

outer layer of skin

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426
Q

full thickness burn

A

all layers of the skin burned. Usually charred black or areas that are dry and white (third degree)

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427
Q

hematoma

A

swelling caused by the collection of blood under the skin or in damaged tissues as a result of an injured or broken blood vessel

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428
Q

laceration

A

cut

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429
Q

occlusive dressing

A

forms an airtight seal

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430
Q

open wound

A

skin is interrupted exposing the tissue beneath

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431
Q

partial thickness burn

A

epidermis (first layer) is burned thru and the dermis (second layer) is dmaged reddening; blistering; and a mottled appearance (second degree)

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432
Q

pressure dressing

A

applied tightly to control bleeding

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433
Q

puncture wound

A

open wound that tears through the skin and destroys underlying tissues penetrating puncture wound can be shallow or dep Perforating puncture wound has both an entrance and an exit wound

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434
Q

rule of nines

A

estimating extent of a burn Adult: 9% each for head and neck; 9% upper extremity (4.5 front/back); 9% chest; 9% abdomen; 9% upper back; 9% lower back and buttocks; 9% front of each lower extremity; and 9% back of each lower extremity (remaining 1%genital area) Infant or child: 18 % head 7% each lower extremity front; 7% each lower extremity back 9% each upper extremity(4.5 front/back); 1% genitals; 18 front; 18 back (some say 13.5 for each lower limb to get 100)

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435
Q

rule of palm

A

measuring extent of a burn; size of patients palm equals 1%; use as ruler

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436
Q

subcutaneous

A

layers of fat and soft tissues found below the dermis

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437
Q

superficial burn

A

involves only the epidermis; the outer layer. Characterized by reddening of the skin and perhaps some swelling ex sunburn (first degree)

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438
Q

universal dressing

A

bulky dressing

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439
Q

evisceration

A

intestine or other internal organ protruding through a wound in the abdomen

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440
Q

flail chest

A

fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places that allows for free movement of the fractured segment

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441
Q

paradoxical motion

A

movement of ribs ina flail segment that is opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest cavity

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442
Q

pneumothorax

A

air in the chest cavity

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443
Q

sucking chest wound

A

open chest wound in which air is sucked into the chest cavity

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444
Q

tension pneumothorax

A

type of pneumothorax in which air that enters the chest cavity is prevented from escaping

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445
Q

angulated fracture

A

broken bone segments are at an angle to each other

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446
Q

cartilage

A

tough tissue that covers the joint ends of bones and helps to form certain body parts such as the ear

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447
Q

closed extremity injury

A

no open wound

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448
Q

comminuted fracture

A

fracture in which the bone is broken in several places

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449
Q

compartment syndrome

A

injury caused when tissues such as blood vessels and nerves are constricted within a space as from swelling or from a tight dressing or cast

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450
Q

crepitus

A

grating sensation or sound made when fractured bone ends rub together

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451
Q

dislocation

A

disruption or coming apart of a joint

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452
Q

extremities

A

portions of the skeleton that include the clavicles; scapulae; arms; writsts; and hands (upper extremites) and the pelvis; thighs; legs; ankles; and feet (lower extremities)

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453
Q

fracture

A

break

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454
Q

greenstick fracture

A

incomplete fracture

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455
Q

joints

A

places where bones articulate

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456
Q

ligaments

A

connective tissue that connects bone to bone

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457
Q

manual traction

A

applying tension to straighten and realign a fractured limb before splinting

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458
Q

muscles

A

cause movement of body parts and organs

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459
Q

open extremity injury

A

open wound to an extremity

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460
Q

sprain

A

stretching and tearing of ligaments

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461
Q

strain

A

muscle injury from overstretching or overexertion

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462
Q

tendons

A

connect muscle to bone

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463
Q

traction splint

A

constant pull along the length of a lower extremity to stabilize the fractured bone and to reduce muscle spasm in the limb. Primarily for femur

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464
Q

air embolism

A

bubble of air in the bloodstream

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465
Q

autonomic nervous system

A

controls involuntary functions

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466
Q

central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

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467
Q

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

A

fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord

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468
Q

concussion

A

mild closed head injury without detectable damage to the brain. Complete recovery is usually expected

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469
Q

contusion

A

brain injuries; a bruised brain caused when the force of a blow to the head is great enough to rupture blood vessels

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470
Q

cranium

A

bony structure making up the forehead; top; back; and upper sides of the skull

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471
Q

dermatome

A

area of the skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve

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472
Q

foramen magnum

A

opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes from the brain

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473
Q

hematoma

A

head injury; a collection of blood within the skull or brain

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474
Q

herniation

A

pushing of a portion of the brain through the foramen magnum as a result of increased intracranial pressure

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475
Q

intracranial pressure (ICP)

A

pressure in the skull

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476
Q

laceration

A

brain injuries; a cut to the brain

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477
Q

malar

A

cheek bone; AKA zygomatic bone

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478
Q

mandible

A

lower jaw bone

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479
Q

maxillae

A

two fused bones forming the upper jaw

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480
Q

nasal bones

A

form the upper third or bridge of the nose

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481
Q

nervous system

A

overall control of thought; sensation; and the body’s voluntary and involuntary motor functions Components are brain; spinal cord; nerves that enter and exit the brain and spinal cord and extend to the various parts of the body

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482
Q

neurogenic shock

A

state of shock (hypoperfussion) caused by nerve paralysis that sometimes develops from spinal cord injuries

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483
Q

orbits

A

the bony structures around the eyes the eye sockets

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484
Q

peripheral nervous system

A

the nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between the vertebrae; the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord and all of the body’s other motor and sensory nerves

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485
Q

spinous process

A

bony bump on a vertebra

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486
Q

temporal bone

A

bone that forms part of the side of the skull and floor of the cranial cavity. There is a right and a left temporal bone.

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487
Q

temporomandibular joint

A

movable joint formed between the mandible and the temporal bone; the TMJ

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488
Q

vertebrae

A

bones of the spinal column (singular vertebra)

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489
Q

multiple trauma

A

more than one serious injury

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490
Q

multisystems trauma

A

one or more injuries that affect more than one body system

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491
Q

trauma score

A

system of evaluating trauma patients according to a numerical rating system to determine the severity of the patient’s trauma

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492
Q

active rewarming

A

application of external heat to rewarm the body of a hypothermic patient

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493
Q

air embolism

A

gas bubble in the bloodstream plural is air emboli more accurate term is arterial gas embolism (AGE)

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494
Q

central rewarming

A

application of heat to the lateral chest; neck; armpits; and groin of a hypothermic patient

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495
Q

conduction

A

transfer of heat from one material to another through direct contact

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496
Q

convection

A

carrying away of heat by the currents of air; water; or other gases or liquids

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497
Q

decompression sickness

A

condition resulting from nitrogen trapped in the body’s tissues; caused by coming up too quickly from a deep; prolonged dive. Sypmtoms deep pain the the muscles and joints

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498
Q

drowning

A

process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion/immersion in liquid; which may result in death; morbidity (illness or other adverse effects) or no morbidity

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499
Q

evaporation

A

change from liquid to gas. When the body perspires or gets wet; evaporation of the perspiration or other liquid into the air has a cooling effect on the body

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500
Q

hyperthermia

A

increase in body temperature above normal; which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme

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501
Q

Oral and nasal droplets and secretions - several days

A

Pneumonia - Mode of Transmission, Incubation

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502
Q

Respiratory secretions; airborne or on contaminated objects - 2 to 6 weeks

A

Tuberculosis (TB) - Mode of Transmission, Incubation

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503
Q

Respiratory secretions or airborne droplets - 6 to 20 days

A

Whooping cough (pertussis)Mode of Transmission, Incubation

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504
Q

Notification when a patient is diagnosed with an infectious disease

A

Ryan White CARE Act

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505
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management- comprehensive system to prevent and deal with stress

A

CISM

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506
Q

Multiple Casualty Incident

A

MCI

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507
Q

organisms that cause infection such as viruses and bacteria

A

Pathogens

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508
Q

Strict form of infection control

A

Standard Precautios

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509
Q

patients who are significantly overweight or obese

A

Bariatric

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510
Q

proper use of the body to facilitate lifting and moving and prevent injury

A

body mechanics

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511
Q

transferring a patient from bed to stretcher in which rescuers curl the patient to their chests and reverse to the stretcher (bridal carry)

A

direct carry

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512
Q

lifting and carrying from ground level to a stretcher; two or more kneel; curl the patient to their chests; stand; then reverse to stretcher

A

direct ground lift

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513
Q

transfering from bed to stretcher by grabbing loosened bottom sheet

A

draw-sheet method

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514
Q

slip hands under patient’s armpits and grasps the wrists while second grasps the knees

A

extremeity lift

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515
Q

using as much hand surface as possible at least 10 inches apart

A

power grip

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516
Q

lift from squatting position with weight close to body

A

power lift

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517
Q

leaving a patient after care has been initiated but before transferred to a medical authority

A

abandonment

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518
Q

A DNR order; written

A

advance directive

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519
Q

in fear of bodily harm

A

assault

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520
Q

causing bodily harm

A

battery

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521
Q

obligation not to reveal information except to health care professionals involved in the patient’s care or under subpoena; court; or patient release signed

A

confidentiality

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522
Q

permission from patient for care

A

consent

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523
Q

legal document usually signed by patient and physician

A

DNR

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524
Q

obligation to provide care to a patient

A

Duty to act

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525
Q

given by patients of legal age and mentally competent

A

expressed consent

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526
Q

limited legal protections for citizens and some health care providers

A

Good Samaritan laws

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527
Q

Health Insurance Portablility And Accountability Act

A

HIPAA

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528
Q

presumed a patient or patient’s guardian would give if they could

A

Implied Consent

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529
Q

in place of the parents; indicates someone who has authority to give parental permissions

A

In Loco Parentis

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530
Q

false or injurious information in written form

A

libel

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531
Q

finding of failure to act properly in which there was a duty to act; as would be resonably expected

A

negligence

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532
Q

the thing speaks for itself

A

res ipsa loquitur

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533
Q

permits a person to drop off an infant or child at a police; fire; or EMS station or any public safety personnel

A

safe haven law

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534
Q

define the scope; or extent of limits of the EMS’s job

A

scope of practice

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535
Q

false or injurious information stated verbally

A

slander

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536
Q

care that could resonably be expected

A

standard of care

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537
Q

civil offense

A

tort

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538
Q

Cervical (7); thoracic (12); Lumbar (5); sacral (5); coccyx (4)

A

Divisions of the spine

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539
Q

Unusually

A

Atypically

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540
Q

constricted blood vessels

A

Pale and sweaty a result of

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541
Q

right and left; upper and lower

A

abdominal quadrants

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542
Q

pelvic socket into which the ball at the proximal end of the femur fits to form the hip joint

A

acetabulum

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543
Q

where the acromion and clavicle meet

A

acromioclavicular joint

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544
Q

highest portion of the shoulder

A

acromion process

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545
Q

microscopic sacs of the lungs where gas exchange with the bloodstream

A

alveoli

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546
Q

standard reference positionf for the body the body is standing erect; facing the observer; with arms down at the sides and palms forward

A

anatomical position

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547
Q

study of body structure

A

anatomy

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548
Q

front of the body or body part

A

anterior

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549
Q

largest artery in the body transports blood from the left ventricle to begin systemic circulation

A

aorta

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550
Q

small tube located near the juntion of the small and large intestines in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen

A

appendix

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551
Q

smallest kind of artery

A

arteriole

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552
Q

vessel carrying blood away from the heart

A

artery

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553
Q

two upper chambers of the heart. The right atrium receives unoxygenated blood returning from the body. The left atria receives oxygenated blood from the lungs

A

atria

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554
Q

the ability of the heart to generate and conduct electrical impluses on its own

A

automaticity

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555
Q

division of the peripheral nervous system that controls involuntary motor function

A

autonomic nervous system

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556
Q

on both sides

A

bilateral

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557
Q

organ of the renal system

A

bladder

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558
Q

blood exerting force diastolic blood pressure - pressure at rest while left ventricle is refilling - systolic pressure - pressure when left ventricle contracts

A

blood pressure

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559
Q

upper arm

A

brachial artery

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560
Q

two large sets of branches that come off the trachea and enter the lungs right and left bronchi; bronchus singular

A

bronchi

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561
Q

the heel bone

A

calcaneus

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562
Q

blood vessel where o2/co2 and nutrient/waste exchange occurs

A

capillary

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563
Q

specialized muscle tissues the conducts electrical impulses that stimulate the heart to beat

A

cardiac conduction system

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564
Q

specialized involuntary muscle found only in the heart

A

cardiac muscle

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565
Q

system made up of the heart and the blood vessels also called the circulatory system

A

cardiovasuclar system

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566
Q

large neck arteries; one on each side carry blood from the heart to the head

A

carotid arteries

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567
Q

wrist bones

A

carpals

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568
Q

brain and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

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569
Q

carotid and femoral pulses in the central part of the body

A

central pulses

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570
Q

collarbone

A

clavicle

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571
Q

word root with an added vowel joined with other words; root or suffix to form new word

A

combining form

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572
Q

word formed from two or more

A

compound

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573
Q

blood vessels that supple the muscle of the heart

A

coronary arteries

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574
Q

top; back; and sides of the skull

A

cranium

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575
Q

ring-shaped structure that forms the lower portion of the larynx

A

cricoid cartilage

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576
Q

inner (second) layer of skin; rich in blood vessels and nerves; found beneath the epidermis

A

dermis

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577
Q

muscle that devides the chest cavity from the abdominal cavity Major muscle of respiration

A

diaphragm

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578
Q

farther away from the torso; oposite proximal

A

distal

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579
Q

back of the body or hand or foot; same as posterior

A

dorsal

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580
Q

artery supplying the foot; lateral to the large tendon of the big toe

A

dorsalis pedis artery

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581
Q

glands that produce hormones that regulate body activities and functions

A

endocrine system

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582
Q

outer layer of skin

A

epidermis

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583
Q

leaf shaped structure that prevents food and foreign matter from entering the trachea

A

epiglottis

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584
Q

hormone produced by the body that dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

A

epinephrine

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585
Q

a passive process in which intercostal(rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax; causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and air to flow out of the lungs

A

exhalation

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586
Q

major artery supplying the leg

A

femoral artery

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587
Q

large bone of the thigh

A

femur

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588
Q

the lateral and smaller bone of the lower leg

A

fibula

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589
Q

sitting

A

fowler position

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590
Q

sac on the underside of the liver that stores bile produced by the liver

A

gallbladder

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591
Q

bone of the upper arm; between the shoulder and the elbow

A

humerus

592
Q

inadequate perfusion of the cells and tissues fo the body casued by insuffiient flow of blood thru the capillaries; also called shock

A

hypoperfusion

593
Q

superior and widest portion of the pelvis

A

illium

594
Q

away from the head; (beneath) the lips are inferior to the nose - opposite is superior

A

inferior

595
Q

active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphragm contract; expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

A

inhalation

596
Q

hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by diabetics

A

insulin

597
Q

responds automatically to brain signals but cannot be conciously controlled

A

involuntary muscle

598
Q

lower posterior portion of the pelvis

A

ischium

599
Q

two bones come together

A

joint

600
Q

renal system filter blood and regulate fluid levels

A

kidneys

601
Q

muscular tube removes water from waste received from small intestine and moves everything not absorbed by the body toward exrcretion

A

large intestine

602
Q

voice box

A

larynx

603
Q

to the side; away from the midline of the body - opposite is medial

A

lateral

604
Q

bone to bone connection tissue

A

ligament

605
Q

largest organ; produces bile to assist breakdown of fats and assists in the metabolism of various substances in the body

A

liver

606
Q

organ where exchange of atmospheric o2 and waste co2 take place

A

lungs

607
Q

protrusion on the side of the ankle lateral malleolus; at the lower end of the fibula is seen on the outer ankle; the medial malleolus at the lower end of the tibia; is seen on the inner ankle

A

malleolus

608
Q

lower jaw bone

A

mandible

609
Q

superior portion fo the sternum

A

manubrium

610
Q

two fused bones forming the upper jaw

A

maxillae

611
Q

toward the midline of the body - opposite is lateral

A

medial

612
Q

foot bones

A

metatarsals

613
Q

hand bones

A

metacarpals

614
Q

line drawn vertically from the middle of the armpit to the ankle

A

mid-axillary

615
Q

line through the center of the clavicle

A

mid-clavicular

616
Q

drawn down center of the body; dividing right and left

A

midline

617
Q

tissue that can contract to allow movement of a body part

A

muscle

618
Q

bones and skeletal muscles that support and protect the body and permit movement

A

musculoskeletal system

619
Q

nose

A

nasal bones

620
Q

area directly posterior to the nose

A

nasopharynx

621
Q

brain; spinal cord; and nerves that govern sensation; movement; and thought

A

nervous system

622
Q

bony structures around the eyes; eye sockets

A

orbits

623
Q

area directly posterior to the mouth

A

oropharynx

624
Q

egg-producing organs within the female reproductive system

A

ovaries

625
Q

palm of the hand

A

palmar

626
Q

gland located behind the stomach that produces insulin and juices that assist in digestion of food in the duodenum of the small intestine

A

pancreas

627
Q

kneecap

A

patella

628
Q

supports the spine and is the point of proximal attachment for the lower extremities

A

pelvis

629
Q

supply of o2 to and removal of wastes from cells and tissues as a result of flow of blood thru the capillaries

A

perfusion

630
Q

nerves that enter and leave the spinal cord and travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord

A

peripheral nervous system (PNS)

631
Q

radial; brachial; posterior tibial; and dorsalis pedis pulses; which can be felt at peripheral (outlying) points of the body.

A

peripheral pulses

632
Q

toe bones and finger bones

A

phalages

633
Q

area directly posterior to the mouth and nose. Made up of the oropharynx and the nasopharynx

A

pharynx

634
Q

study of the body function

A

physiology

635
Q

sole of the foot

A

plantar

636
Q

fluid portion of the blood

A

plasma

637
Q

membrane-enclosed fragments of specialized cells

A

platlets

638
Q

back of the body or body part

A

posterior

639
Q

supplying the foot behind the medial ankle

A

posterior tibial artery

640
Q

lying face down

A

prone

641
Q

closer to the body; opposite distal

A

proximal

642
Q

medial anterior portion of the pelvis

A

pubis

643
Q

vessels that carry deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle of the heart to the lungs

A

pulmonary arteries

644
Q

carry oxygenated blood from the lungs to the left atrium

A

pulmonary veins

645
Q

lower arm; felt when taking the pulse in the wrist

A

radial artery

646
Q

lateral bone of the forarm

A

radius

647
Q

lying on side also called lateral recumbent position

A

recovery position

648
Q

components of the bllod that carry oxygento and carbon dioxide away from the cells

A

red blood cells

649
Q

regulates fluid balance and filtration of blood; also called urinary system

A

renal system

650
Q

responsible for human reproduction

A

reproductive system

651
Q

process of moving o2 and co2 between circulating blood and the cells

A

respiration (cellular)

652
Q

nose; mouth; throat; lungs; and muscles that bring o2 into the body and expels co2

A

respiratory system

653
Q

shoulder blade

A

scapula

654
Q

hypoperfusion

A

shock

655
Q

bones of the body

A

skeleton

656
Q

tissue between the body and the external environment

A

skin

657
Q

bony structure of the head

A

skull

658
Q

muscular tube between the stomach and the large intestine; divided into duodenum; the jejunum; and the ileum; which receives partially digested food from the stomach and continues digestion. Nutrients are absorbed by the body thru its walls

A

small intestine

659
Q

located in the left upper quadrant (LUQ) and acts as a blood filtration system and reservoir by the body for reserves of blood

A

spleen

660
Q

breastbone

A

sternum

661
Q

between the esophagus and the small intestine

A

stomach

662
Q

layers of fat and soft tissue found below the dermis

A

subcutaneous layers

663
Q

toward the head; opposite inferior

A

superior

664
Q

lying on the back

A

supine

665
Q

ankle bones

A

tarsals

666
Q

muscle to bone

A

tendon

667
Q

male organs of reproduction used for the production of sperm

A

testes

668
Q

the chest

A

thorax

669
Q

wing-shaped plate of cartilage that sits anterior to the larynx and forms the adams apple

A

thyroid cartilage

670
Q

medial and larger bone of the lower leg

A

tibia

671
Q

trunk of the body; without the head and extremities

A

torso

672
Q

windpipe; structure that connects the pharynx to the lungs

A

trachea

673
Q

patient’s feet and legs are higher than the head

A

trendelenburg posisition

674
Q

medial bone of the forearm

A

ulna

675
Q

tubes connecting the kidneys to the bladder

A

ureters

676
Q

tube connecting the bladder to the vagina or penis

A

urethra

677
Q

female organ of reproduction used to house the developing fetus

A

uterus

678
Q

female organ of reproduction used for both sexual intercourse and as an exit from the uterus for the fetus

A

vagina

679
Q

structure that opens and closes to permit the flow of a fluid in only one direction

A

valve

680
Q

blood vessel returning blood to the heart

A

vein

681
Q

superior vena cava and the inferior vena cavae major veins return blood from the body to the right atrium( vena cava singular)

A

venae cavae

682
Q

two lower chambers of the heart right ventricle sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs; left ventricle sends oxygenated blood to the body

A

ventricles

683
Q

smallest kind of vein

A

venule

684
Q

33 bones of the spinal column

A

vertebrae

685
Q

can be consciously controlled

A

voluntary muscle

686
Q

produce substances that help the body fight infection

A

white blood cells

687
Q

inferior portion of the sternum

A

xiphoid process

688
Q

bones that form the struture of the cheeks

A

zygomatic arches

689
Q

cellular process in which o2 is used to metabolize glucose. Energy is produced in an efficient manner with minimal waste products

A

aerobic metabolism

690
Q

amount of blood ejected from the heart in 1 minute (heart rate x stroke volume)

A

cardiac output

691
Q

chemical sensors in the brain and blood vessels that identify changing levels of o2 and co2

A

chemoreceptors

692
Q

air that occupies the space between the mouth and alveoli but that does not actually reach the area of gas exchange

A

dead air space

693
Q

abnormally low amount of water in the body

A

dehydration

694
Q

swelling associated with the movement of water into the interstitial space

A

edema

695
Q

substance that when dissolved in water separates into charged particles

A

electrolyte

696
Q

fraction fo inspired o2; the concentration of o2 in the air we breath

A

FiO2

697
Q

pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push water out of the vessel

A

hydrostatic pressure

697
Q

pressure within a blood vessel that tends to push water out of the vessel

A

hydrostatic pressure

698
Q

exaggerated response by the immune system to a particular substance

A

hypersensitivitiy

698
Q

exaggerated response by the immune system to a particular substance

A

hypersensitivitiy

699
Q

inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients also called shock

A

hypoperfusion

700
Q

the cellular function of converting nutrients into energy

A

metabolism

700
Q

the cellular function of converting nutrients into energy

A

metabolism

701
Q

the amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by the number of breaths per minute

A

minute volume

701
Q

the amount of air breathed in during each respiration multiplied by the number of breaths per minute

A

minute volume

702
Q

open and clear; free from obstruction

A

patent

702
Q

open and clear; free from obstruction

A

patent

703
Q

the study of how disease processes affect the function of the body

A

pathophysiology

703
Q

the study of how disease processes affect the function of the body

A

pathophysiology

704
Q

supply of o2 to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

A

perfusion

704
Q

supply of o2 to and removal of wastes from the cells and tissues of the body as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

A

perfusion

705
Q

the pull exerted by large proteins in the plasma portion fo blood that tends to pull water from the body into the bloodstream

A

plasma oncotic pressure

705
Q

the pull exerted by large proteins in the plasma portion fo blood that tends to pull water from the body into the bloodstream

A

plasma oncotic pressure

706
Q

inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients hypoperfusion

A

shock

706
Q

inability of the body to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients hypoperfusion

A

shock

707
Q

sensors in blood vessels that identify internal pressure

A

stretch receptors

707
Q

sensors in blood vessels that identify internal pressure

A

stretch receptors

708
Q

the amount of blood ejected from the heart in one contraction

A

stroke volume

709
Q

pressure in the peripheral blood vessels that the heart must overcome in order to pump blood int the system

A

systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

709
Q

pressure in the peripheral blood vessels that the heart must overcome in order to pump blood int the system

A

systemic vascular resistance (SVR)

710
Q

volume of air moved in one cycle of breathing

A

tidal volume

710
Q

volume of air moved in one cycle of breathing

A

tidal volume

711
Q

ventilation/perfusion match. This implies that the alveoli are supplied with enough air and that the air in the alveoli is matched with sufficient blood in the pulmonary capillaries to permit optimum exchange of o2 and co2

A

V/Q match

711
Q

ventilation/perfusion match. This implies that the alveoli are supplied with enough air and that the air in the alveoli is matched with sufficient blood in the pulmonary capillaries to permit optimum exchange of o2 and co2

A

V/Q match

712
Q

infant reaction to startlement by throwing arms out; spreads fingers; then grabs with fingers and arms

A

moro reflex

712
Q

infant reaction to startlement by throwing arms out; spreads fingers; then grabs with fingers and arms

A

moro reflex

713
Q

when u place your finger in an infant’s palm and they grab it

A

palmar reflex

713
Q

when u place your finger in an infant’s palm and they grab it

A

palmar reflex

714
Q

13 to 18

A

adolescence

714
Q

13 to 18

A

adolescence

715
Q

19 to 40

A

early adulthood

716
Q

birth to 1

A

infancy

717
Q

60 or older

A

late adulthood

717
Q

60 or older

A

late adulthood

718
Q

41 to 60

A

middle adulthood

719
Q

6 to 12

A

school age

720
Q

3 to 5

A

preschool age

720
Q

3 to 5

A

preschool age

721
Q

when you touch a hungary infants cheek and he turns his head toward the side touched

A

rooting reflex

721
Q

when you touch a hungary infants cheek and he turns his head toward the side touched

A

rooting reflex

722
Q

building on what one already knows

A

scaffolding

722
Q

building on what one already knows

A

scaffolding

723
Q

when u stroke a hungary infants lips he will start suckling

A

suckling reflex

723
Q

when u stroke a hungary infants lips he will start suckling

A

suckling reflex

724
Q

the infants reaction to his environment

A

temperament

724
Q

the infants reaction to his environment

A

temperament

725
Q

12 to 36 months

A

toddler phase

725
Q

12 to 36 months

A

toddler phase

726
Q

concept developed from an orderly predictable environment versus a disorderly irregular environment

A

trust vs. mistrust

726
Q

concept developed from an orderly predictable environment versus a disorderly irregular environment

A

trust vs. mistrust

727
Q

contraction of smooth muscle that lines the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased restance to air flow

A

bronchoconstriction

727
Q

contraction of smooth muscle that lines the bronchial passages that results in a decreased internal diameter of the airway and increased restance to air flow

A

bronchoconstriction

728
Q

flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

A

nasopharyngeal airway

728
Q

flexible breathing tube inserted through the patients nostril into the pharynx to help maintain an open airway

A

nasopharyngeal airway

729
Q

curved device inserted through the patient’s mouth into the pharynx to maintain an open airway

A

oropharyngeal airway

729
Q

curved device inserted through the patient’s mouth into the pharynx to maintain an open airway

A

oropharyngeal airway

730
Q

airway that is open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air

A

patent airway

730
Q

airway that is open and clear and will remain open and clear without interference to the passage of air

A

patent airway

731
Q

a high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed air flow in the upper airway

A

stridor

732
Q

a high pitched sound generated from partially obstructed air flow in the upper airway

A

stridor

733
Q

the amount of air that reaches the alveoli

A

alveolar ventilation

733
Q

the amount of air that reaches the alveoli

A

alveolar ventilation

734
Q

device that provides positive pressure ventilations includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume; is protable; and is easily carried on an ambulance

A

automatice transport ventilator (ATV)

734
Q

device that provides positive pressure ventilations includes settings designed to adjust ventilation rate and volume; is protable; and is easily carried on an ambulance

A

automatice transport ventilator (ATV)

735
Q

handheld resuscitation device with a self-refilling bag

A

bag-valve mask (BVM)

735
Q

handheld resuscitation device with a self-refilling bag

A

bag-valve mask (BVM)

736
Q

exchange of o2 and co2 between cells and circulating blood

A

cellular respiration

736
Q

exchange of o2 and co2 between cells and circulating blood

A

cellular respiration

737
Q

pressure applied to the cricoid ring to minimize air entry into the esophagus during positive pressure ventilation; AKA Sellick maneuver

A

cricoid pressure

738
Q

pressure applied to the cricoid ring to minimize air entry into the esophagus during positive pressure ventilation; AKA Sellick maneuver

A

cricoid pressure

738
Q

blue or gray color resulting from lack of o2 in the body

A

cyanosis

739
Q

molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

diffusion

739
Q

molecules move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration

A

diffusion

740
Q

valve indicating o2 flow in liters per minute

A

flowmeter

740
Q

valve indicating o2 flow in liters per minute

A

flowmeter

741
Q

uses o2 under pressure to deliver artificial ventilations. Its trigger is placed so that the rescuer can operate it while still using both hands to maintain a seal on the face mask. Has automatic flow restriction to prevent overdelivery of o2 to the patient

A

flow-restricted o2 powered ventilation device (FROPVD)

742
Q

insufficency of o2 in the body’s tissues

A

hypoxia

742
Q

insufficency of o2 in the body’s tissues

A

hypoxia

743
Q

device that delivers low concentration of o2 through two prongs that rest in the patients nostrils

A

nasal cannula

743
Q

device that delivers low concentration of o2 through two prongs that rest in the patients nostrils

A

nasal cannula

744
Q

face mask and resevoir bag that delivers high concentrations of o2. The patient’s exhaled air escapes through a valve and is not rebreathed

A

nonrebreather (NRB) mask

744
Q

face mask and resevoir bag that delivers high concentrations of o2. The patient’s exhaled air escapes through a valve and is not rebreathed

A

nonrebreather (NRB) mask

745
Q

face mask and reservoir o2 bag with no one-way valve to the reservoir bag so that some exhaled air mixes with the o2 used in some patients to help reserve co2 levels in the blood to stimulate breathing

A

partial rebreather mask

746
Q

artificial ventilation

A

positive pressure ventilation

747
Q

exchange of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

A

pulmonary respiration

747
Q

exchange of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and circulating blood in the pulmonary capillaries

A

pulmonary respiration

748
Q

diffusion of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration) AKA breathing

A

respiration

748
Q

diffusion of o2 and co2 between the alveoli and the blood (pulmonary respiration) and between the blood and the cells (cellular respiration) AKA breathing

A

respiration

749
Q

breathing stops

A

respiratory arrest

750
Q

increased work of breathing; sensation of shortness of breath

A

respiratory distress

750
Q

increased work of breathing; sensation of shortness of breath

A

respiratory distress

751
Q

reduction of breathing to the point where o2 intake is not sufficient to support life

A

respiratory failure

751
Q

reduction of breathing to the point where o2 intake is not sufficient to support life

A

respiratory failure

752
Q

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes.

A

stoma

752
Q

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which a patient breathes.

A

stoma

753
Q

device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental o2

A

tracheostomy mask

753
Q

device designed to be placed over a stoma or tracheostomy tube to provide supplemental o2

A

tracheostomy mask

754
Q

breathing in and out or artificial provision of breaths

A

ventilation

754
Q

breathing in and out or artificial provision of breaths

A

ventilation

755
Q

face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of o2 by mixing o2 with inhaled air

A

venturi mask

755
Q

face mask and reservoir bag device that delivers specific concentrations of o2 by mixing o2 with inhaled air

A

venturi mask

756
Q

injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

A

blunt-force trauma

756
Q

injury caused by a blow that does not penetrate the skin or other body tissues

A

blunt-force trauma

757
Q

area around the wreckage of a vehicle collision or other incident within which special safety precautions should be taken

A

danger zone

758
Q

awareness that there may be injuries

A

index of suspician

758
Q

awareness that there may be injuries

A

index of suspician

759
Q

force or forces that may have caused injury

A

mechanism of injury

759
Q

force or forces that may have caused injury

A

mechanism of injury

760
Q

what is medically wrong with a patient

A

nature of the illness

760
Q

what is medically wrong with a patient

A

nature of the illness

761
Q

injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

A

penetrating trauma

761
Q

injury caused by an object that passes through the skin or other body tissues

A

penetrating trauma

762
Q

steps taken when approaching the scene of an emergency call; scene safety; standard precautions; noting the mechanism of injury or nature of illness; determining the number of patients; and deciding what if any additional resources to call fo

A

scene size-up

763
Q

memory aid for classifying a patient’s level of responsiveness or mental status. A-alert V-verbal P-painful response U-unresponsive

A

AVPU

763
Q

memory aid for classifying a patient’s level of responsiveness or mental status. A-alert V-verbal P-painful response U-unresponsive

A

AVPU

764
Q

reason EMS was called; in patients own words

A

chief complaint

764
Q

reason EMS was called; in patients own words

A

chief complaint

765
Q

bsed on first approaching the patient; patient’s environment; chief complaint; appearance

A

general impression

766
Q

actions taken to correct or manage a patient’s problems

A

interventions

766
Q

actions taken to correct or manage a patient’s problems

A

interventions

767
Q

level of responsiveness

A

mental status

767
Q

level of responsiveness

A

mental status

768
Q

first element in a patient’s assessment steps taken. Six parts; forming a general impression; assessing mental status; assessing airway; assessing breathing; assessing circulation; and determining the priority of the patient fro treatment and transport to the hospital

A

primary assessment

769
Q

need for immediate transport versus further assessment and care at the scene

A

priority

769
Q

need for immediate transport versus further assessment and care at the scene

A

priority

770
Q

listening via stethoscope

A

auscultation

771
Q

major artery in the arm

A

brachial artery

771
Q

major artery in the arm

A

brachial artery

772
Q

slow pulse; any pulse rate below 60

A

bradycardia

773
Q

either side of the neck

A

carotid artery

773
Q

either side of the neck

A

carotid artery

774
Q

pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is relaxed and refilling

A

diastolic pressure

774
Q

pressure remaining in the arteries when the left ventricle of the heart is relaxed and refilling

A

diastolic pressure

775
Q

get larger

A

dilate

775
Q

get larger

A

dilate

776
Q

ratio of the amount of o2 present in the blood to the amount that could be carried expressed in percentage

A

oxygen saturation (SpO2)

777
Q

touching or feeling

A

palpation

777
Q

touching or feeling

A

palpation

778
Q

electronic device for determining the amount of o2 carried in the blood (o2 saturation or SpO2)

A

pulse oximeter

778
Q

electronic device for determining the amount of o2 carried in the blood (o2 saturation or SpO2)

A

pulse oximeter

779
Q

rhythm (regular or irregular) and force (strong or weak) of the pulse

A

pulse quality

779
Q

rhythm (regular or irregular) and force (strong or weak) of the pulse

A

pulse quality

780
Q

number of pulse beats per minute

A

pulse rate

780
Q

number of pulse beats per minute

A

pulse rate

781
Q

black center of the eyes

A

pupil

782
Q

pulse felt at the wrist

A

radial pulse

782
Q

pulse felt at the wrist

A

radial pulse

783
Q

reactivity of the pupils to light by changing size

A

reactivity

783
Q

reactivity of the pupils to light by changing size

A

reactivity

784
Q

breathing

A

respiration

784
Q

breathing

A

respiration

785
Q

normal or abnormal (shallow; labored; or noisy) character of breathing

A

respiratory quality

785
Q

normal or abnormal (shallow; labored; or noisy) character of breathing

A

respiratory quality

786
Q

breaths per minute

A

respiratory rate

787
Q

the cuff and guage for blood pressure

A

sphygmomanometer

787
Q

the cuff and guage for blood pressure

A

sphygmomanometer

788
Q

preasure when heart contracts and forces blood out of the arteries

A

systolic blood pressure

788
Q

preasure when heart contracts and forces blood out of the arteries

A

systolic blood pressure

789
Q

rapid pulse; above 100

A

tachycardia

790
Q

respiration; pulse; skin color; temperature; and condition (plus capillary refill in infants and children); pupils; and bp

A

vital signs

790
Q

respiration; pulse; skin color; temperature; and condition (plus capillary refill in infants and children); pupils; and bp

A

vital signs

791
Q

grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together

A

crepitation

791
Q

grating sound or feeling of broken bones rubbing together

A

crepitation

792
Q

assessment fo the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis extremities; and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury. Differs from rapid trauma assessment only in the at it also includes examination of the face; ears; eyes; nose; and mouth during the axamination of the head.

A

detailed physical exam

792
Q

assessment fo the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis extremities; and posterior of the body to detect signs and symptoms of injury. Differs from rapid trauma assessment only in the at it also includes examination of the face; ears; eyes; nose; and mouth during the axamination of the head.

A

detailed physical exam

793
Q

stretched; inflated; or larger than normal

A

distention

793
Q

stretched; inflated; or larger than normal

A

distention

794
Q

info gathered regarding symptoms and nature of the patient’s current concern

A

history of the present illness (HPI)

795
Q

bulging of the neck veins

A

jugular vein distention (JVD)

795
Q

bulging of the neck veins

A

jugular vein distention (JVD)

796
Q

movement of a part of the chest in the opposite direction to the rest of the chest during respiration

A

paradoxical motion

797
Q

information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

A

past medical history (PMH)

797
Q

information gathered regarding the patient’s health problems in the past

A

past medical history (PMH)

798
Q

persistent erection from spinal injury or medical problem

A

priapism

798
Q

persistent erection from spinal injury or medical problem

A

priapism

799
Q

rapid assessment of the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis; extremites; and posterior of the body

A

rapid trauma assessment

799
Q

rapid assessment of the head; neck; chest; abdomen; pelvis; extremites; and posterior of the body

A

rapid trauma assessment

800
Q

Past medical history; S-Signs and symptoms; A-Allergies; M-medications; P-pertinent past history; L-last oral intake; E-events leading to injury or illness

A

SAMPLE

800
Q

Past medical history; S-Signs and symptoms; A-Allergies; M-medications; P-pertinent past history; L-last oral intake; E-events leading to injury or illness

A

SAMPLE

801
Q

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

A

stoma

801
Q

permanent surgical opening in the neck through which the patient breathes

A

stoma

802
Q

surgical incision held open by a metal or plastic tube

A

tracheostomy

802
Q

surgical incision held open by a metal or plastic tube

A

tracheostomy

803
Q

patient suffering from one or more physical injuries

A

trauma patient

803
Q

patient suffering from one or more physical injuries

A

trauma patient

804
Q

questions asked to get a description of the present illness. O-onset; P-provokes (what triggered it); Q-quality (can u describe it for me); R-radiation (where is the pain and does it spread and where to); S-severity; Time (when did it start; has it changed)

A

OPQRST

804
Q

questions asked to get a description of the present illness. O-onset; P-provokes (what triggered it); Q-quality (can u describe it for me); R-radiation (where is the pain and does it spread and where to); S-severity; Time (when did it start; has it changed)

A

OPQRST

805
Q

used to detect changes; four step - primary assessment; vital signs; physical exam; checking interventions

A

reassessment

805
Q

used to detect changes; four step - primary assessment; vital signs; physical exam; checking interventions

A

reassessment

806
Q

changes in the patient’s condition over time

A

trending

806
Q

changes in the patient’s condition over time

A

trending

807
Q

potential diagnosis compiled early in the assessment

A

differential diagnosis

807
Q

potential diagnosis compiled early in the assessment

A

differential diagnosis

808
Q

label for a patient’s condition based on history; exam; and vitals Less specific than MD diagnosis

A

EMS/EMT diagnosis

808
Q

label for a patient’s condition based on history; exam; and vitals Less specific than MD diagnosis

A

EMS/EMT diagnosis

809
Q

abreviated form of the PCR

A

drop/transfer report

809
Q

abreviated form of the PCR

A

drop/transfer report

810
Q

signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate or harmful

A

contraindication

810
Q

signs or circumstances under which it is not appropriate or harmful

A

contraindication

811
Q

route of medication administration that uses GI tract; such as pill

A

enteral

811
Q

route of medication administration that uses GI tract; such as pill

A

enteral

812
Q

drug that helps to constrict blood vessels and relax passages of the airway.

A

epinephrine

812
Q

drug that helps to constrict blood vessels and relax passages of the airway.

A

epinephrine

813
Q

signs or circumstances which it is appropriate to administer a drug

A

indications

813
Q

signs or circumstances which it is appropriate to administer a drug

A

indications

814
Q

helps to dilate the coronary vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood

A

nitroglycerin

814
Q

helps to dilate the coronary vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood

A

nitroglycerin

815
Q

form of glucose given by mouth to treat an awake patient; able to swallow; with an altered mental status and history of diabetes

A

oral glucose

816
Q

form of glucose given by mouth to treat an awake patient; able to swallow; with an altered mental status and history of diabetes

A

oral glucose

817
Q

route of medication administration that does not use the GI tract such as IV

A

parenteral

817
Q

route of medication administration that does not use the GI tract such as IV

A

parenteral

818
Q

study of the effets of medications

A

pharmacodynamics

818
Q

study of the effets of medications

A

pharmacodynamics

819
Q

study of drugs; their sources; their characteristics and their effects

A

pharmacology

819
Q

study of drugs; their sources; their characteristics and their effects

A

pharmacology

820
Q

effect of a medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful

A

untoward effect

820
Q

effect of a medication in addition to its desired effect that may be potentially harmful

A

untoward effect

821
Q

constriction or blockage of the bronchi that lead from the trachea to the lungs

A

bronchoconstriction

821
Q

constriction or blockage of the bronchi that lead from the trachea to the lungs

A

bronchoconstriction

822
Q

noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV) consisting of a mask and a means of blowing oxygen or air into the mask to prevent airway collapse or to help alleviate difficulty breathing

A

continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

822
Q

noninvasive positive pressure ventilation (NPPV) consisting of a mask and a means of blowing oxygen or air into the mask to prevent airway collapse or to help alleviate difficulty breathing

A

continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

823
Q

expiration

A

exhalation

823
Q

expiration

A

exhalation

824
Q

pasive process which intercostal(rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax; causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and force air from the lungs

A

expiration

824
Q

pasive process which intercostal(rib) muscles and the diaphragm relax; causing the chest cavity to decrease in size and force air from the lungs

A

expiration

825
Q

inspiration

A

inhalation

825
Q

inspiration

A

inhalation

826
Q

an active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphram contract; expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

A

inspiration

826
Q

an active process in which the intercostal (rib) muscles and the diaphram contract; expanding the size of the chest cavity and causing air to flow into the lungs

A

inspiration

827
Q

blanket term for any symptoms related to lack of o2 (ischemia) in the heart muscle. AKA cardiac compromise

A

acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

827
Q

blanket term for any symptoms related to lack of o2 (ischemia) in the heart muscle. AKA cardiac compromise

A

acute coronary syndrome (ACS)

828
Q

aka heart attack

A

ischemia

828
Q

aka heart attack

A

ischemia

829
Q

portion of the myocardium dies as a result of o2 starvation

A

acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

829
Q

portion of the myocardium dies as a result of o2 starvation

A

acute myocardial infarction (AMI)

830
Q

irregular; gasping breaths that precede apnea and death

A

agonal breathing

830
Q

irregular; gasping breaths that precede apnea and death

A

agonal breathing

831
Q

no breathing

A

apnea

831
Q

no breathing

A

apnea

832
Q

dilation or ballooning of a weakened section of the wall of an artery

A

aneurysm

832
Q

dilation or ballooning of a weakened section of the wall of an artery

A

aneurysm

833
Q

pain in the chest occurring when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough o2

A

angina pectoris

833
Q

pain in the chest occurring when blood supply to the heart is reduced and a portion of the heart muscle is not receiving enough o2

A

angina pectoris

834
Q

condition in which the heart has ceased generating electrical impulses

A

asystole

834
Q

condition in which the heart has ceased generating electrical impulses

A

asystole

835
Q

heart rate is slow; below 60

A

bradycardia

835
Q

heart rate is slow; below 60

A

bradycardia

836
Q

same as acute coronary syndrome

A

cardiac compromise

836
Q

same as acute coronary syndrome

A

cardiac compromise

837
Q

heart and blood vessels

A

cardiovascular system

837
Q

heart and blood vessels

A

cardiovascular system

838
Q

failure of the heart to pump efficiently; leading to excessive blood or fluids in the lungs; the body; or both

A

congestive heart failure (CHF)

838
Q

failure of the heart to pump efficiently; leading to excessive blood or fluids in the lungs; the body; or both

A

congestive heart failure (CHF)

839
Q

diseases that affect the arteries of the heart

A

coronary artery disease (CAD)

839
Q

diseases that affect the arteries of the heart

A

coronary artery disease (CAD)

840
Q

shortness of breath; labored or difficult breathing

A

dyspnea

840
Q

shortness of breath; labored or difficult breathing

A

dyspnea

841
Q

disturbance in heart rate and rhythm

A

dysrhythmia

841
Q

disturbance in heart rate and rhythm

A

dysrhythmia

842
Q

swelling resulting from a buildup of fluid in the tissues

A

edema

842
Q

swelling resulting from a buildup of fluid in the tissues

A

edema

843
Q

blockage of a vessel by a clot or foreign material brought to the site by the blood current

A

embolism

843
Q

blockage of a vessel by a clot or foreign material brought to the site by the blood current

A

embolism

844
Q

medication that dilates the blood vessels

A

nitroglycerin (NTG)

844
Q

medication that dilates the blood vessels

A

nitroglycerin (NTG)

845
Q

blockage as an artery by fatty deposits

A

occlusion

845
Q

blockage as an artery by fatty deposits

A

occlusion

846
Q

accumulation fo fluid in the feet or ankles

A

pedal edema

846
Q

accumulation fo fluid in the feet or ankles

A

pedal edema

847
Q

accumulation of fluid in the lungs

A

pulmonary edema

847
Q

accumulation of fluid in the lungs

A

pulmonary edema

848
Q

heart’s electrical rhythm remains relatively normal; yet the mechanical pumping activity fails to follow the electrical activity causing cardiac arrest

A

pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

848
Q

heart’s electrical rhythm remains relatively normal; yet the mechanical pumping activity fails to follow the electrical activity causing cardiac arrest

A

pulseless electrical activity (PEA)

849
Q

cardiac arrest that occurs within 2 hours of the onset of symptoms May have no prior symptoms

A

sudden death

850
Q

when the heart rate is fast; above 100

A

tachycardia

850
Q

when the heart rate is fast; above 100

A

tachycardia

851
Q

clot formed of blood and plaque attached to the inner wall of an artery or vein

A

thrombus

851
Q

clot formed of blood and plaque attached to the inner wall of an artery or vein

A

thrombus

852
Q

condition in which the heart’s electrical impulses are disorganized; preventing the heart muscle from contraacting normally

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF)

852
Q

condition in which the heart’s electrical impulses are disorganized; preventing the heart muscle from contraacting normally

A

ventricular fibrillation (VF)

853
Q

heartbeat is quite rapid; not allowing chambers to fill between beats

A

ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

853
Q

heartbeat is quite rapid; not allowing chambers to fill between beats

A

ventricular tachycardia (V tach)

854
Q

sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure; which might be a smell; sound; or general feeling

A

aura

854
Q

sensation experienced by a seizure patient right before the seizure; which might be a smell; sound; or general feeling

A

aura

855
Q

sugar diabetes; condition brought about by decreased insulin production or the inability of the body cells to use insulin properly

A

diabetes mellitus

855
Q

sugar diabetes; condition brought about by decreased insulin production or the inability of the body cells to use insulin properly

A

diabetes mellitus

856
Q

result of high blood sugar (hyperglycemia); characterized by dehydration; altered mental status; and shock

A

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

856
Q

result of high blood sugar (hyperglycemia); characterized by dehydration; altered mental status; and shock

A

diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)

857
Q

medical condition that causes seizures

A

epilepsy

857
Q

medical condition that causes seizures

A

epilepsy

858
Q

affects both sides of the brain

A

generalized seizure

858
Q

affects both sides of the brain

A

generalized seizure

859
Q

form of sugar the body’s basic source of energy

A

glucose

859
Q

form of sugar the body’s basic source of energy

A

glucose

860
Q

high blood sugar

A

hyperglycemia

860
Q

high blood sugar

A

hyperglycemia

861
Q

low blood sugar

A

hypoglycemia

861
Q

low blood sugar

A

hypoglycemia

862
Q

hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics

A

insulin

862
Q

hormone produced by the pancreas or taken as a medication by many diabetics

A

insulin

863
Q

affects only one part or one side of the brain

A

partial seizure

863
Q

affects only one part or one side of the brain

A

partial seizure

864
Q

period of time immediately following a tonic-clonic seizure in which the patient goes from full loss of consciousness to full mental status

A

postictal phase

864
Q

period of time immediately following a tonic-clonic seizure in which the patient goes from full loss of consciousness to full mental status

A

postictal phase

865
Q

series of neurologic circuits in the brain that control the functions of staying awake; paying attention; and sleeping

A

reticular activating system (RAS)

865
Q

series of neurologic circuits in the brain that control the functions of staying awake; paying attention; and sleeping

A

reticular activating system (RAS)

866
Q

sudden change in sensation; behavior; or movement Most severe form os seizure produces violent muscle contractions called convulsions

A

seizure

866
Q

sudden change in sensation; behavior; or movement Most severe form os seizure produces violent muscle contractions called convulsions

A

seizure

867
Q

prolonged seizure or situation when a person suffers two or more convulsive seizures without regaining full consciousness

A

status epilepticus

867
Q

prolonged seizure or situation when a person suffers two or more convulsive seizures without regaining full consciousness

A

status epilepticus

868
Q

conditions of altered function caused when an artery in the brain is blocked or ruptured; disrupting the supply of oxygenated blood or causing bleeding into the brain. Formally called cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

A

stroke

868
Q

conditions of altered function caused when an artery in the brain is blocked or ruptured; disrupting the supply of oxygenated blood or causing bleeding into the brain. Formally called cerebrovascular accident (CVA)

A

stroke

869
Q

fainting

A

syncope

869
Q

fainting

A

syncope

870
Q

generalized seizure in which the patient loses consciousness and has jerking movements of paired muscle groups

A

tonic-clonic seizure

870
Q

generalized seizure in which the patient loses consciousness and has jerking movements of paired muscle groups

A

tonic-clonic seizure

871
Q

something that causes an allergic reaction

A

allergen

871
Q

something that causes an allergic reaction

A

allergen

872
Q

exaggerated immune response

A

allergic reaction

872
Q

exaggerated immune response

A

allergic reaction

873
Q

severe or life-threatening allergic reaction in which the blood vessels dilate; causing a drop in blood pressure; and the tissues lining the respiratory system swell; interfering with the airway. AKA anaphylactic shock

A

anaphylaxis

873
Q

severe or life-threatening allergic reaction in which the blood vessels dilate; causing a drop in blood pressure; and the tissues lining the respiratory system swell; interfering with the airway. AKA anaphylactic shock

A

anaphylaxis

874
Q

hormone produced by the body As a medication it constricts blood vessels and dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

A

epinephrine

874
Q

hormone produced by the body As a medication it constricts blood vessels and dilates respiratory passages and is used to relieve severe allergic reactions

A

epinephrine

875
Q

poisons taken into the body through unbroken skin

A

absorbed poisons

875
Q

poisons taken into the body through unbroken skin

A

absorbed poisons

876
Q

substance that adsorbs many poisons and prevents them from being absorbed by the body

A

activated charcoal

877
Q

substance that will neutralize the poison or its effects

A

antidote

878
Q

severe reaction that can be part of alcohol withdrawal; characteriszed by sweating; trembling; anxiety; and hallucinations. Severe alcohol withdrawal with the DTs can lead to death if untreated

A

delirium tremens (DTs)

879
Q

thinning down or weakening by mixing with something else. Ingested poisons are sometimes diluted by drinking water or milk.

A

dilution

879
Q

thinning down or weakening by mixing with something else. Ingested poisons are sometimes diluted by drinking water or milk.

A

dilution

880
Q

depressants; such as barbiturates; that depress the central nervous system which are often used to bring on a more relaxed state of mind

A

downers

880
Q

depressants; such as barbiturates; that depress the central nervous system which are often used to bring on a more relaxed state of mind

A

downers

881
Q

mind-affecting drugs that act on the central nervous system to produce excitement and distortion of perceptions.

A

hallucinogens

881
Q

mind-affecting drugs that act on the central nervous system to produce excitement and distortion of perceptions.

A

hallucinogens

882
Q

class of drugs that affect the nervous system and change many normal body activities Their legal use is for the relief of pain. Illicit use is to produce an intense state of relaxation

A

narcotics

882
Q

class of drugs that affect the nervous system and change many normal body activities Their legal use is for the relief of pain. Illicit use is to produce an intense state of relaxation

A

narcotics

883
Q

a poisonous substance secreted by bacteria; plants; or animals

A

toxin

883
Q

a poisonous substance secreted by bacteria; plants; or animals

A

toxin

884
Q

stimulants such as amphetamines that affect the central nervous system to excite the user

A

uppers

884
Q

stimulants such as amphetamines that affect the central nervous system to excite the user

A

uppers

885
Q

vaporizing compounds such as cleaning fluid; which are breathed inby the abuser to produce a high

A

volatile chemicals

885
Q

vaporizing compounds such as cleaning fluid; which are breathed inby the abuser to produce a high

A

volatile chemicals

886
Q

referring to alcohol or drug withdrawal in which the patients body reacts severely when deprived of the abused substance

A

withdrawal

886
Q

referring to alcohol or drug withdrawal in which the patients body reacts severely when deprived of the abused substance

A

withdrawal

887
Q

localized; intense pain that arises from the parietal peritoneum; the lining of the abdominal cavity

A

parietal pain

888
Q

membrane that lines the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covers the organs within it (the visceral peritoneum)

A

peritoneum

888
Q

membrane that lines the abdominal cavity (parietal peritoneum) and covers the organs within it (the visceral peritoneum)

A

peritoneum

889
Q

pain felt in a location other than where the pain originates

A

referred pain

889
Q

pain felt in a location other than where the pain originates

A

referred pain

890
Q

area posterior to the peritoneum between the peritoneum and the back

A

retroperitoneal space

891
Q

area posterior to the peritoneum between the peritoneum and the back

A

retroperitoneal space

892
Q

sharp pain that feels as if body tissues are being torn apart

A

tearing pain

892
Q

sharp pain that feels as if body tissues are being torn apart

A

tearing pain

893
Q

poorly localized; dull; or diffuse pain that arises from the abdominal organs; or viscera

A

visceral pain

893
Q

poorly localized; dull; or diffuse pain that arises from the abdominal organs; or viscera

A

visceral pain

894
Q

bizarre and/or aggressive behavior; shouting; paranoia; panic; violence toward others; insensitivity to pain; unexpected physical strength; and hyperthermia; usually associated with cocaine or amphetamine use. Also called agitated delirium

A

excited delirium

894
Q

bizarre and/or aggressive behavior; shouting; paranoia; panic; violence toward others; insensitivity to pain; unexpected physical strength; and hyperthermia; usually associated with cocaine or amphetamine use. Also called agitated delirium

A

excited delirium

895
Q

inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body posiion that restricts breathing

A

positional asphyxia

895
Q

inadequate breathing or respiratory arrest caused by a body posiion that restricts breathing

A

positional asphyxia

896
Q

lack of a normal number of red blood cells in circulation

A

anemia

896
Q

lack of a normal number of red blood cells in circulation

A

anemia

897
Q

gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catherter to drain fluid out.

A

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

898
Q

gravity exchange process for peritoneal dialysis in which a bag of dialysis fluid is raised above the level of an abdominal catheter to fill the abdominal cavity and lowered below the level of the abdominal catherter to drain fluid out.

A

continuous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD)

899
Q

irreversible renal failure to the extent that the kidneys can no longer provide adequate filtration and fluid balance to sustain life; survival with ESRD usually requires dialysis

A

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

899
Q

irreversible renal failure to the extent that the kidneys can no longer provide adequate filtration and fluid balance to sustain life; survival with ESRD usually requires dialysis

A

end-stage renal disease (ESRD)

900
Q

bacterial infection within the peritoneal cavity

A

peritonitis

900
Q

bacterial infection within the peritoneal cavity

A

peritonitis

901
Q

loss of the kidney’s ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body

A

renal falure

901
Q

loss of the kidney’s ability to filter the blood and remove toxins and excess fluid from the body

A

renal falure

902
Q

inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells

A

sickle cell anemia (SCA)

902
Q

inherited disease in which a genetic defect in the hemoglobin results in abnormal structure of the red blood cells

A

sickle cell anemia (SCA)

903
Q

vibration felt on gently papation such as that which typically occurs withinn an arterial-venous fistula

A

thrill

903
Q

vibration felt on gently papation such as that which typically occurs withinn an arterial-venous fistula

A

thrill

904
Q

bright red; rapid; profuse; pulseing; hard to control

A

arterial bleeding

904
Q

bright red; rapid; profuse; pulseing; hard to control

A

arterial bleeding

905
Q

slow; oozing flow

A

capillary bleeding

905
Q

slow; oozing flow

A

capillary bleeding

906
Q

shock; or lack of perfusion; brought on not by blood loss; but by the heart’s inadequated pumping action. Result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure

A

cardiogenic shock

906
Q

shock; or lack of perfusion; brought on not by blood loss; but by the heart’s inadequated pumping action. Result of a heart attack or congestive heart failure

A

cardiogenic shock

907
Q

body can no longer compensate for low blood volume or lack of perfusion Late signs such as decreasing blood pressure become evident

A

decompensated shock

907
Q

body can no longer compensate for low blood volume or lack of perfusion Late signs such as decreasing blood pressure become evident

A

decompensated shock

908
Q

bleeding; severe

A

hemorrhage

908
Q

bleeding; severe

A

hemorrhage

909
Q

shock resulting from blood loss

A

hemorrhagic shock

909
Q

shock resulting from blood loss

A

hemorrhagic shock

910
Q

substances applied as powders dressings gauze or bandages to open wounds to stop bleeding

A

hemostatic agents

910
Q

substances applied as powders dressings gauze or bandages to open wounds to stop bleeding

A

hemostatic agents

911
Q

body’s inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with oxygen and nutrients

A

hypoperfusion

911
Q

body’s inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with oxygen and nutrients

A

hypoperfusion

912
Q

shock resulting from blood or fluid loss

A

hypovolemic shock

912
Q

shock resulting from blood or fluid loss

A

hypovolemic shock

913
Q

unable to maintain perfusion to vital organs. Adequate vital signs may return patient dies withing days due to organ failure

A

irreversible shock

913
Q

unable to maintain perfusion to vital organs. Adequate vital signs may return patient dies withing days due to organ failure

A

irreversible shock

914
Q

hypoperfusion due to nerve paralysis (sometimes caused by spinal cord injuries) resulting in the dilation of blood vessels that increases the volume of the circulatory system beyond the point where it can be filled

A

neurogenic shock

914
Q

hypoperfusion due to nerve paralysis (sometimes caused by spinal cord injuries) resulting in the dilation of blood vessels that increases the volume of the circulatory system beyond the point where it can be filled

A

neurogenic shock

915
Q

supply of o2 to; and removal of wastes from the body’s cells and tissues as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

A

perfusion

915
Q

supply of o2 to; and removal of wastes from the body’s cells and tissues as a result of the flow of blood through the capillaries

A

perfusion

916
Q

bulky dressing held in position with a tightly wrapped bandage; which applies pressure to help control bleeding

A

pressure dressing

916
Q

bulky dressing held in position with a tightly wrapped bandage; which applies pressure to help control bleeding

A

pressure dressing

917
Q

inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients; which is a life-threatening condition AKA hypoperfusion

A

shock

917
Q

inability to adequately circulate blood to the body’s cells to supply them with o2 and nutrients; which is a life-threatening condition AKA hypoperfusion

A

shock

918
Q

device used for bleeding control that constricts all blood flow to and from an extremity

A

tourniquet

918
Q

device used for bleeding control that constricts all blood flow to and from an extremity

A

tourniquet

919
Q

dark red; and steady

A

venous bleeding

920
Q

dark red; and steady

A

venous bleeding

921
Q

scratch

A

abrasion

921
Q

scratch

A

abrasion

922
Q

severing of a body part

A

amputation

923
Q

tearing away or tearing off of a piece or flap of skin or other soft tissue This term also may be used for an eye pulled from its socket or a tooth dislodged from its socket

A

avulsion

923
Q

tearing away or tearing off of a piece or flap of skin or other soft tissue This term also may be used for an eye pulled from its socket or a tooth dislodged from its socket

A

avulsion

924
Q

used to hold a dressing in place

A

bandage

924
Q

used to hold a dressing in place

A

bandage

925
Q

internal injury with no open pathway from the outside

A

closed wound

925
Q

internal injury with no open pathway from the outside

A

closed wound

926
Q

bruise

A

contusion

926
Q

bruise

A

contusion

927
Q

when force is transmitted from the body’s exterior to its internal structures broken bones; muscles; nerves; and tissues damaged; and internal organs ruptured causing internal bleeding

A

crush injury

927
Q

when force is transmitted from the body’s exterior to its internal structures broken bones; muscles; nerves; and tissues damaged; and internal organs ruptured causing internal bleeding

A

crush injury

928
Q

inner layer of the skin; found beneath the epidermis rich in blood vessels and nerves

A

dermis

928
Q

inner layer of the skin; found beneath the epidermis rich in blood vessels and nerves

A

dermis

929
Q

material used to cover a wound to control bleeding and reduce futher contamination

A

dressing

929
Q

material used to cover a wound to control bleeding and reduce futher contamination

A

dressing

930
Q

outer layer of skin

A

epidermis

930
Q

outer layer of skin

A

epidermis

931
Q

all layers of the skin burned. Usually charred black or areas that are dry and white (third degree)

A

full thickness burn

931
Q

all layers of the skin burned. Usually charred black or areas that are dry and white (third degree)

A

full thickness burn

932
Q

swelling caused by the collection of blood under the skin or in damaged tissues as a result of an injured or broken blood vessel

A

hematoma

932
Q

swelling caused by the collection of blood under the skin or in damaged tissues as a result of an injured or broken blood vessel

A

hematoma

933
Q

cut

A

laceration

934
Q

forms an airtight seal

A

occlusive dressing

934
Q

forms an airtight seal

A

occlusive dressing

935
Q

skin is interrupted exposing the tissue beneath

A

open wound

935
Q

skin is interrupted exposing the tissue beneath

A

open wound

936
Q

epidermis (first layer) is burned thru and the dermis (second layer) is dmaged reddening; blistering; and a mottled appearance (second degree)

A

partial thickness burn

936
Q

epidermis (first layer) is burned thru and the dermis (second layer) is dmaged reddening; blistering; and a mottled appearance (second degree)

A

partial thickness burn

937
Q

applied tightly to control bleeding

A

pressure dressing

937
Q

applied tightly to control bleeding

A

pressure dressing

938
Q

open wound that tears through the skin and destroys underlying tissues penetrating puncture wound can be shallow or dep Perforating puncture wound has both an entrance and an exit wound

A

puncture wound

938
Q

open wound that tears through the skin and destroys underlying tissues penetrating puncture wound can be shallow or dep Perforating puncture wound has both an entrance and an exit wound

A

puncture wound

939
Q

estimating extent of a burn Adult: 9% each for head and neck; 9% upper extremity (4.5 front/back); 9% chest; 9% abdomen; 9% upper back; 9% lower back and buttocks; 9% front of each lower extremity; and 9% back of each lower extremity (remaining 1%genital area) Infant or child: 18 % head 7% each lower extremity front; 7% each lower extremity back 9% each upper extremity(4.5 front/back); 1% genitals; 18 front; 18 back (some say 13.5 for each lower limb to get 100)

A

rule of nines

939
Q

estimating extent of a burn Adult: 9% each for head and neck; 9% upper extremity (4.5 front/back); 9% chest; 9% abdomen; 9% upper back; 9% lower back and buttocks; 9% front of each lower extremity; and 9% back of each lower extremity (remaining 1%genital area) Infant or child: 18 % head 7% each lower extremity front; 7% each lower extremity back 9% each upper extremity(4.5 front/back); 1% genitals; 18 front; 18 back (some say 13.5 for each lower limb to get 100)

A

rule of nines

940
Q

measuring extent of a burn; size of patients palm equals 1%; use as ruler

A

rule of palm

940
Q

measuring extent of a burn; size of patients palm equals 1%; use as ruler

A

rule of palm

941
Q

layers of fat and soft tissues found below the dermis

A

subcutaneous

941
Q

layers of fat and soft tissues found below the dermis

A

subcutaneous

942
Q

involves only the epidermis; the outer layer. Characterized by reddening of the skin and perhaps some swelling ex sunburn (first degree)

A

superficial burn

942
Q

involves only the epidermis; the outer layer. Characterized by reddening of the skin and perhaps some swelling ex sunburn (first degree)

A

superficial burn

943
Q

bulky dressing

A

universal dressing

943
Q

bulky dressing

A

universal dressing

944
Q

intestine or other internal organ protruding through a wound in the abdomen

A

evisceration

944
Q

intestine or other internal organ protruding through a wound in the abdomen

A

evisceration

945
Q

fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places that allows for free movement of the fractured segment

A

flail chest

945
Q

fracture of two or more adjacent ribs in two or more places that allows for free movement of the fractured segment

A

flail chest

946
Q

movement of ribs ina flail segment that is opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest cavity

A

paradoxical motion

946
Q

movement of ribs ina flail segment that is opposite to the direction of movement of the rest of the chest cavity

A

paradoxical motion

947
Q

air in the chest cavity

A

pneumothorax

948
Q

open chest wound in which air is sucked into the chest cavity

A

sucking chest wound

948
Q

open chest wound in which air is sucked into the chest cavity

A

sucking chest wound

949
Q

type of pneumothorax in which air that enters the chest cavity is prevented from escaping

A

tension pneumothorax

949
Q

type of pneumothorax in which air that enters the chest cavity is prevented from escaping

A

tension pneumothorax

950
Q

broken bone segments are at an angle to each other

A

angulated fracture

951
Q

tough tissue that covers the joint ends of bones and helps to form certain body parts such as the ear

A

cartilage

951
Q

tough tissue that covers the joint ends of bones and helps to form certain body parts such as the ear

A

cartilage

952
Q

no open wound

A

closed extremity injury

952
Q

no open wound

A

closed extremity injury

953
Q

fracture in which the bone is broken in several places

A

comminuted fracture

953
Q

fracture in which the bone is broken in several places

A

comminuted fracture

954
Q

injury caused when tissues such as blood vessels and nerves are constricted within a space as from swelling or from a tight dressing or cast

A

compartment syndrome

954
Q

injury caused when tissues such as blood vessels and nerves are constricted within a space as from swelling or from a tight dressing or cast

A

compartment syndrome

955
Q

grating sensation or sound made when fractured bone ends rub together

A

crepitus

955
Q

grating sensation or sound made when fractured bone ends rub together

A

crepitus

956
Q

disruption or coming apart of a joint

A

dislocation

956
Q

disruption or coming apart of a joint

A

dislocation

957
Q

portions of the skeleton that include the clavicles; scapulae; arms; writsts; and hands (upper extremites) and the pelvis; thighs; legs; ankles; and feet (lower extremities)

A

extremities

957
Q

portions of the skeleton that include the clavicles; scapulae; arms; writsts; and hands (upper extremites) and the pelvis; thighs; legs; ankles; and feet (lower extremities)

A

extremities

958
Q

break

A

fracture

958
Q

break

A

fracture

959
Q

incomplete fracture

A

greenstick fracture

959
Q

incomplete fracture

A

greenstick fracture

960
Q

places where bones articulate

A

joints

960
Q

places where bones articulate

A

joints

961
Q

connective tissue that connects bone to bone

A

ligaments

962
Q

applying tension to straighten and realign a fractured limb before splinting

A

manual traction

962
Q

applying tension to straighten and realign a fractured limb before splinting

A

manual traction

963
Q

cause movement of body parts and organs

A

muscles

963
Q

cause movement of body parts and organs

A

muscles

964
Q

open wound to an extremity

A

open extremity injury

964
Q

open wound to an extremity

A

open extremity injury

965
Q

stretching and tearing of ligaments

A

sprain

965
Q

stretching and tearing of ligaments

A

sprain

966
Q

muscle injury from overstretching or overexertion

A

strain

966
Q

muscle injury from overstretching or overexertion

A

strain

967
Q

connect muscle to bone

A

tendons

968
Q

constant pull along the length of a lower extremity to stabilize the fractured bone and to reduce muscle spasm in the limb. Primarily for femur

A

traction splint

968
Q

constant pull along the length of a lower extremity to stabilize the fractured bone and to reduce muscle spasm in the limb. Primarily for femur

A

traction splint

969
Q

bubble of air in the bloodstream

A

air embolism

969
Q

bubble of air in the bloodstream

A

air embolism

970
Q

controls involuntary functions

A

autonomic nervous system

970
Q

controls involuntary functions

A

autonomic nervous system

971
Q

brain and spinal cord

A

central nervous system

972
Q

fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

972
Q

fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord

A

cerebrospinal fluid (CSF)

973
Q

mild closed head injury without detectable damage to the brain. Complete recovery is usually expected

A

concussion

973
Q

mild closed head injury without detectable damage to the brain. Complete recovery is usually expected

A

concussion

974
Q

brain injuries; a bruised brain caused when the force of a blow to the head is great enough to rupture blood vessels

A

contusion

974
Q

brain injuries; a bruised brain caused when the force of a blow to the head is great enough to rupture blood vessels

A

contusion

975
Q

bony structure making up the forehead; top; back; and upper sides of the skull

A

cranium

976
Q

bony structure making up the forehead; top; back; and upper sides of the skull

A

cranium

976
Q

area of the skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve

A

dermatome

977
Q

area of the skin that is innervated by a single spinal nerve

A

dermatome

977
Q

opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes from the brain

A

foramen magnum

978
Q

opening at the base of the skull through which the spinal cord passes from the brain

A

foramen magnum

978
Q

head injury; a collection of blood within the skull or brain

A

hematoma

979
Q

head injury; a collection of blood within the skull or brain

A

hematoma

979
Q

pushing of a portion of the brain through the foramen magnum as a result of increased intracranial pressure

A

herniation

980
Q

pushing of a portion of the brain through the foramen magnum as a result of increased intracranial pressure

A

herniation

980
Q

pressure in the skull

A

intracranial pressure (ICP)

981
Q

pressure in the skull

A

intracranial pressure (ICP)

982
Q

brain injuries; a cut to the brain

A

laceration

983
Q

brain injuries; a cut to the brain

A

laceration

984
Q

cheek bone; AKA zygomatic bone

A

malar

985
Q

cheek bone; AKA zygomatic bone

A

malar

986
Q

lower jaw bone

A

mandible

987
Q

lower jaw bone

A

mandible

987
Q

two fused bones forming the upper jaw

A

maxillae

988
Q

form the upper third or bridge of the nose

A

nasal bones

988
Q

form the upper third or bridge of the nose

A

nasal bones

989
Q

overall control of thought; sensation; and the body’s voluntary and involuntary motor functions Components are brain; spinal cord; nerves that enter and exit the brain and spinal cord and extend to the various parts of the body

A

nervous system

989
Q

overall control of thought; sensation; and the body’s voluntary and involuntary motor functions Components are brain; spinal cord; nerves that enter and exit the brain and spinal cord and extend to the various parts of the body

A

nervous system

990
Q

state of shock (hypoperfussion) caused by nerve paralysis that sometimes develops from spinal cord injuries

A

neurogenic shock

990
Q

state of shock (hypoperfussion) caused by nerve paralysis that sometimes develops from spinal cord injuries

A

neurogenic shock

991
Q

the bony structures around the eyes the eye sockets

A

orbits

991
Q

the bony structures around the eyes the eye sockets

A

orbits

992
Q

the nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between the vertebrae; the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord and all of the body’s other motor and sensory nerves

A

peripheral nervous system

992
Q

the nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord between the vertebrae; the 12 pairs of cranial nerves that travel between the brain and organs without passing through the spinal cord and all of the body’s other motor and sensory nerves

A

peripheral nervous system

993
Q

bony bump on a vertebra

A

spinous process

993
Q

bony bump on a vertebra

A

spinous process

994
Q

bone that forms part of the side of the skull and floor of the cranial cavity. There is a right and a left temporal bone.

A

temporal bone

994
Q

bone that forms part of the side of the skull and floor of the cranial cavity. There is a right and a left temporal bone.

A

temporal bone

995
Q

movable joint formed between the mandible and the temporal bone; the TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint

995
Q

movable joint formed between the mandible and the temporal bone; the TMJ

A

temporomandibular joint

996
Q

bones of the spinal column (singular vertebra)

A

vertebrae

996
Q

bones of the spinal column (singular vertebra)

A

vertebrae

997
Q

more than one serious injury

A

multiple trauma

997
Q

more than one serious injury

A

multiple trauma

998
Q

one or more injuries that affect more than one body system

A

multisystems trauma

999
Q

system of evaluating trauma patients according to a numerical rating system to determine the severity of the patient’s trauma

A

trauma score

999
Q

system of evaluating trauma patients according to a numerical rating system to determine the severity of the patient’s trauma

A

trauma score

1000
Q

application of external heat to rewarm the body of a hypothermic patient

A

active rewarming

1000
Q

application of external heat to rewarm the body of a hypothermic patient

A

active rewarming

1001
Q

gas bubble in the bloodstream plural is air emboli more accurate term is arterial gas embolism (AGE)

A

air embolism

1002
Q

application of heat to the lateral chest; neck; armpits; and groin of a hypothermic patient

A

central rewarming

1002
Q

application of heat to the lateral chest; neck; armpits; and groin of a hypothermic patient

A

central rewarming

1003
Q

transfer of heat from one material to another through direct contact

A

conduction

1003
Q

transfer of heat from one material to another through direct contact

A

conduction

1004
Q

carrying away of heat by the currents of air; water; or other gases or liquids

A

convection

1005
Q

condition resulting from nitrogen trapped in the body’s tissues; caused by coming up too quickly from a deep; prolonged dive. Sypmtoms deep pain the the muscles and joints

A

decompression sickness

1005
Q

condition resulting from nitrogen trapped in the body’s tissues; caused by coming up too quickly from a deep; prolonged dive. Sypmtoms deep pain the the muscles and joints

A

decompression sickness

1006
Q

process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion/immersion in liquid; which may result in death; morbidity (illness or other adverse effects) or no morbidity

A

drowning

1006
Q

process of experiencing respiratory impairment from submersion/immersion in liquid; which may result in death; morbidity (illness or other adverse effects) or no morbidity

A

drowning

1007
Q

change from liquid to gas. When the body perspires or gets wet; evaporation of the perspiration or other liquid into the air has a cooling effect on the body

A

evaporation

1007
Q

change from liquid to gas. When the body perspires or gets wet; evaporation of the perspiration or other liquid into the air has a cooling effect on the body

A

evaporation

1008
Q

increase in body temperature above normal; which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme

A

yperthermia

1008
Q

increase in body temperature above normal; which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme

A

yperthermia

1266
Q

hypothermia

A

cooing that reduces body temperature below normal; which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme

1267
Q

local cooling

A

cooling or freezing of particular (local) parts of the body

1268
Q

passive rewarming

A

covering a hypothermic patient and taking other steps to prevent further heat loss and help the body rewarm

1269
Q

radiation

A

sending out energy such as heat; in waves into space

1270
Q

respiration

A

breathing During respiration body heat is lost as warm air is exhaled from the body

1271
Q

toxins

A

substances produced by animals or plants that are poisonous to humans

1272
Q

venom

A

toxin (poison) produced by certain animals such as snakes; spiders; and some marine life forms

1273
Q

water chill

A

chilling caused by conduction of heat from the body when the body or clothing is wet

1274
Q

wind chill

A

chilling caused by convection of heat from the body in the presence of air currents

1275
Q

abortion

A

spontaneous (miscarriage) or induced termination of pregnancy

1276
Q

abruptio placentae

A

condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall; a cause of prebirth bleeding

1277
Q

afterbirth

A

placenta; membranes of the amniotic sac; part of the umbilical cord; and some tissues from the lining of the uterus that are delivered after the birth of the baby

1278
Q

amniotic sac

A

bag that surrounds the developing fetus

1279
Q

Braxton-Hicks

A

contractions irregular prelabor contractions of the uterus

1280
Q

breech presentation

A

baby’s buttocks or both legs appear first during birth

1281
Q

cephalic presentation

A

baby appears head first during birth. Normal presentation

1282
Q

cervix

A

neck of the uterus at the entrance to the birth canal

1283
Q

crowning

A

part of the baby is visible through the vaginal opening

1284
Q

eclampsia

A

severe complication of pregnancy that produces seizures and coma

1285
Q

ectopic pregnancy

A

implantation of the fertilized egg is not in the body of the uterus; occurring instead in the fallopian tube (oviduct); cervix; or abdominopelvic cavity

1286
Q

embryo

A

baby from fertilization to 8 weeks of development

1287
Q

fallopian tube

A

narrow tube that connects the ovary to the uterus. Also called the oviduct.

1288
Q

fetus

A

baby from 8 weeks of development to birth

1289
Q

induced abortion

A

expulsion of a fetus as a result of deliberate actions taken to stop the pregnancy

1290
Q

labia

A

soft tissues that protect the entrance to the vagina

1291
Q

labor

A

three stages of the delivery of a baby that begin with the contraction of the uterus and end with the expulsion of the placenta

1292
Q

lightening

A

sensation of the fetus moving from high in the abdomen to low in the birth canal

1293
Q

limb presentation

A

when an infants’ limb protrudes from high in the abdomen to low in the birth canal

1294
Q

limb presentation

A

when an infant’s limb protrudes from the vagina before the appearance of any other body part

1295
Q

meconium staining

A

amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish-yellow rather than clear as a result of fetal defecation; an indication of possible maternal or fetal distress during labor

1296
Q

miscarriage

A

see spontaneous abortion

1297
Q

mons pubis

A

soft tissue that covers the pubic symphysis area where hair grows as a woman reaches puberty

1298
Q

multiple birth

A

when more than one baby is born during a single delivery

1299
Q

neonate

A

a newly born infant or an infant less than 1 month old

1300
Q

ovary

A

female reproductive organ that produces ova

1301
Q

oviduct

A

fallopian tube

1302
Q

ovulation

A

phase of eh female reproductive cycle in which an ovum is released from the ovary

1303
Q

perineum

A

surface area between the vagina and anus

1304
Q

placenta

A

organ of pregnancy where exchange of o2; nutrients; and wastes occurs between a mother and fetus

1305
Q

placenta previa

A

condition where the placenta is formed in an abnormal location (low in the uterus and close to or over the cervical opening) that will not allow for a normal deliveryof the fetus a cause of excessive prebbirth bleeding

1306
Q

preeclamsia

A

woman retains large amounts of fluid and has hypertension during pregnancy May also experience seizures and/or coma during birth; also dangerous to infant

1307
Q

premature infant

A

newborn weighing less than 5.5 lbs or born before 37th week

1308
Q

prolapsed umbilical cord

A

cord presents first and is squeeazed between the vaginal wall and the baby’s head

1309
Q

spontaneous abortion

A

when fetus and placenta deliver before 28th week AKA miscarriage

1310
Q

stillborn

A

born dead

1311
Q

supine hypotensive syndrome

A

dizziness and a drop in blood pressure caused when the mother is in a supine position and the weight of the uterus; infant; placenta; and amniotic fluid compress the inferior vena cava; reducing return of blood to the heart and cardiac output

1312
Q

umbilical cord

A

fetal structure containing the blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta

1313
Q

uterus

A

muscular abdominal organ where the fetus develops; the womb

1314
Q

vagina

A

birth canal

1315
Q

fontanelle

A

soft spot on an infant’s anterior scalp formed by the joining of not yet fused bones of the skull

1316
Q

pediatric

A

patient not yet reached puberty

1317
Q

retractions

A

pulling in of the skin and soft tissue between the ribs when breathing Typically a sign of respiratory distress in children

1318
Q

autism spectrum disorders (ASD)

A

developmental disorders that affect the ability to communicate; report medical conditions; self-regulate behaviors; and interact with others

1319
Q

automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)

A

device iplanted under the skin of the chest to detect any life-threatening dysrhythmia and deliver a shock to defibrillate the heart

1320
Q

bariatrics

A

branch of medicine that deals with the causes of obesity as well as its prevention ond treatment

1321
Q

central IV catheter

A

a catheter surgically inserted for long-term delivery of midications or fluids into the central cirulation

1322
Q

continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

A

device worn by a patient that blows oxygen or air under constant low pressure through a tube and mask to keep airway passages from collapsing at the end of a breath

1323
Q

dialysis

A

process of filtering the blood to remove toxic or unwanted wastes and fluids

1324
Q

disability

A

physical; emotional; behavioral; or cognitive condition that interferes with a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks; such as working or caring for oneself

1325
Q

feeding tube

A

tube used to provide delivery of nutrients to the stomach A nasogastric feeding tube is inserted through the nose and into the stomach; a gastric feeding tube is surgically implanted through the abdominal wall and into the stomach

1326
Q

left ventricular assist device (LVAD)

A

battery-powered mechanical pump implanted in the body to assist a failing left ventricle in pumping blood to the body

1327
Q

obesity

A

condition of having too much body fat; defined as a body mass index of 30 or greater

1328
Q

ostomy bag

A

an external pouch that collects fecal matter diverted from the colon or ileum through a surgical opening (colostomy or ileostomy) in the abdominal wall.

1329
Q

pacemaker

A

device implanted under the skin with wires implanted into the heart to modify the heart rate as needed to maintain an adequate heart rate

1330
Q

stoma

A

surgically created opening into the body; as with a tracheostomy; colostomy; or ileostomy

1331
Q

tracheostomy

A

surgical opening in the neck into the trachea

1332
Q

urinary catheter

A

tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra to drain urine from the bladder

1333
Q

ventilator

A

a device that brathes for a patient

1334
Q

cold zone

A

where the Incident Command post and support functions are located

1335
Q

command

A

first on the scene to establish order and initiate the Incident Command System (ICS)

1336
Q

decontamination

A

chemical and/or physical process that reduces or prevents the spread of contamination from persons or equipment; the removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment to the extent necessary to preclude foreseeable health effects

1337
Q

disaster plan

A

predefined set of instructions for a community’s emergency responders

1338
Q

hazardous material

A

any substance or material in a form which poses an unreasonable risk to health; safety; and property when transported in commerce

1339
Q

hot zone

A

area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident; extends far enough to prevent adverse effects outside the zone

1340
Q

incident command

A

person or persons who assume overall direction of an incident

1341
Q

incident command system (ICS)

A

subset of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

1342
Q

multiple-casualty incident (MCI)

A

any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients

1343
Q

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

A

management system used by federal; state; and local governments to manage emergencies in the US

1344
Q

single incident command

A

command organization in which a single agency controls all resources and operations

1345
Q

staging area

A

area where ambulances are parked and other resources are held until needed

1346
Q

staging supervisor

A

person responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at a multiple-casualty incident.

1347
Q

transportation supervisor

A

person responsible for communicating with wector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident

1348
Q

treatment area

A

area in which patients are treated at a multiple-casualty incident

1349
Q

treatment supervisor

A

person responsible for overseeing treatment of patients who have been triaged at multiple-casualty incident

1350
Q

triage

A

process of quickly assessing patients at a multiple casualty incident and assigning each a priority for receiveing treatment

1351
Q

triage area

A

where secondary triage takes place at a multiple-casualty incident

1352
Q

triage supervisor

A

person responsible for overseeing triage at a multiple-casualty incident

1353
Q

triage supervisor

A

person responsible for overseeing triage at a multiple-casualty incident

1354
Q

triage bag

A

color-coded tag indicating the priority group to which a patient has been assigned

1355
Q

unified command

A

command organization in which several agencies work independently but cooperatively

1356
Q

warm zone

A

area where personnel and equipment decontamination and hot zone support take place; it includes control points for the access corridor and thus assists in reducing the spread of contamination

1357
Q

contamination

A

contact with or presence of a material (contaminant) that is present where it does not belong and that is somehow harmful to persons; animals; or the environment

1358
Q

dissemination

A

spreading

1359
Q

domestic terrorism

A

terrorism directed against the government or population without foreign direction.

1360
Q

exposure

A

dose or concentration of an agent multiplied by the time; or duration

1361
Q

international terrorism

A

terrorism that is foreign-based or directed

1362
Q

permeation

A

movement of a substance through a surface or on a molecular level; through intact materials penetration; or spreading

1363
Q

rem

A

roentgen equivalent (in) man; a measure of radiation dosage

1364
Q

routes of entry

A

pathways into the bod; generally by absorption; ingestionm; injection; or inhalation

1365
Q

secondary devices

A

destructive devices; such as bombs; placed to be activated after an initial attack and timed to injure emergency responders and others who rush in to help care for those targeted by an initial attack

1366
Q

strategies

A

broad general plans designed to achieve desired outcomes

1367
Q

tactics

A

specific operational actions to accomplish assigned tasks

1368
Q

terrorism

A

unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government; the civilian population or any segment thereof in furtherance of political or social objectives

1369
Q

weaponization

A

packageing or producing a material; such as a chemical; biological; or radiological agent; so that it can be used as a weapon

1370
Q

weapons of mass destruction (WMD)

A

weapons; devices; or agents intended to cause widespread harm and/or fear among a population

1371
Q

zoonotic

A

able to move through the animal-human barrier; transmissible from animals to humans

1372
Q

cooing that reduces body temperature below normal; which is a life-threatening condition in its extreme

A

hypothermia

1373
Q

cooling or freezing of particular (local) parts of the body

A

local cooling

1374
Q

covering a hypothermic patient and taking other steps to prevent further heat loss and help the body rewarm

A

passive rewarming

1375
Q

sending out energy such as heat; in waves into space

A

radiation

1376
Q

breathing During respiration body heat is lost as warm air is exhaled from the body

A

respiration

1377
Q

substances produced by animals or plants that are poisonous to humans

A

toxins

1378
Q

toxin (poison) produced by certain animals such as snakes; spiders; and some marine life forms

A

venom

1379
Q

chilling caused by conduction of heat from the body when the body or clothing is wet

A

water chill

1380
Q

chilling caused by convection of heat from the body in the presence of air currents

A

wind chill

1381
Q

spontaneous (miscarriage) or induced termination of pregnancy

A

abortion

1382
Q

condition in which the placenta separates from the uterine wall; a cause of prebirth bleeding

A

abruptio placentae

1383
Q

placenta; membranes of the amniotic sac; part of the umbilical cord; and some tissues from the lining of the uterus that are delivered after the birth of the baby

A

afterbirth

1384
Q

bag that surrounds the developing fetus

A

amniotic sac

1385
Q

contractions irregular prelabor contractions of the uterus

A

Braxton-Hicks

1386
Q

baby’s buttocks or both legs appear first during birth

A

breech presentation

1387
Q

baby appears head first during birth. Normal presentation

A

cephalic presentation

1388
Q

neck of the uterus at the entrance to the birth canal

A

cervix

1389
Q

part of the baby is visible through the vaginal opening

A

crowning

1390
Q

severe complication of pregnancy that produces seizures and coma

A

eclampsia

1391
Q

implantation of the fertilized egg is not in the body of the uterus; occurring instead in the fallopian tube (oviduct); cervix; or abdominopelvic cavity

A

ectopic pregnancy

1392
Q

baby from fertilization to 8 weeks of development

A

embryo

1393
Q

narrow tube that connects the ovary to the uterus. Also called the oviduct.

A

fallopian tube

1394
Q

baby from 8 weeks of development to birth

A

fetus

1395
Q

expulsion of a fetus as a result of deliberate actions taken to stop the pregnancy

A

induced abortion

1396
Q

soft tissues that protect the entrance to the vagina

A

labia

1397
Q

three stages of the delivery of a baby that begin with the contraction of the uterus and end with the expulsion of the placenta

A

labor

1398
Q

sensation of the fetus moving from high in the abdomen to low in the birth canal

A

lightening

1399
Q

when an infants’ limb protrudes from high in the abdomen to low in the birth canal

A

limb presentation

1400
Q

when an infant’s limb protrudes from the vagina before the appearance of any other body part

A

limb presentation

1401
Q

amniotic fluid that is greenish or brownish-yellow rather than clear as a result of fetal defecation; an indication of possible maternal or fetal distress during labor

A

meconium staining

1402
Q

see spontaneous abortion

A

miscarriage

1403
Q

soft tissue that covers the pubic symphysis area where hair grows as a woman reaches puberty

A

mons pubis

1404
Q

when more than one baby is born during a single delivery

A

multiple birth

1405
Q

a newly born infant or an infant less than 1 month old

A

neonate

1406
Q

female reproductive organ that produces ova

A

ovary

1407
Q

fallopian tube

A

oviduct

1408
Q

phase of eh female reproductive cycle in which an ovum is released from the ovary

A

ovulation

1409
Q

surface area between the vagina and anus

A

perineum

1410
Q

organ of pregnancy where exchange of o2; nutrients; and wastes occurs between a mother and fetus

A

placenta

1411
Q

condition where the placenta is formed in an abnormal location (low in the uterus and close to or over the cervical opening) that will not allow for a normal deliveryof the fetus a cause of excessive prebbirth bleeding

A

placenta previa

1412
Q

woman retains large amounts of fluid and has hypertension during pregnancy May also experience seizures and/or coma during birth; also dangerous to infant

A

preeclamsia

1413
Q

newborn weighing less than 5.5 lbs or born before 37th week

A

premature infant

1414
Q

cord presents first and is squeeazed between the vaginal wall and the baby’s head

A

prolapsed umbilical cord

1415
Q

when fetus and placenta deliver before 28th week AKA miscarriage

A

spontaneous abortion

1416
Q

born dead

A

stillborn

1417
Q

dizziness and a drop in blood pressure caused when the mother is in a supine position and the weight of the uterus; infant; placenta; and amniotic fluid compress the inferior vena cava; reducing return of blood to the heart and cardiac output

A

supine hypotensive syndrome

1418
Q

fetal structure containing the blood vessels that carry blood to and from the placenta

A

umbilical cord

1419
Q

muscular abdominal organ where the fetus develops; the womb

A

uterus

1420
Q

birth canal

A

vagina

1421
Q

soft spot on an infant’s anterior scalp formed by the joining of not yet fused bones of the skull

A

fontanelle

1422
Q

patient not yet reached puberty

A

pediatric

1423
Q

pulling in of the skin and soft tissue between the ribs when breathing Typically a sign of respiratory distress in children

A

retractions

1424
Q

developmental disorders that affect the ability to communicate; report medical conditions; self-regulate behaviors; and interact with others

A

autism spectrum disorders (ASD)

1425
Q

device iplanted under the skin of the chest to detect any life-threatening dysrhythmia and deliver a shock to defibrillate the heart

A

automatic implanted cardiac defibrillator (AICD)

1426
Q

branch of medicine that deals with the causes of obesity as well as its prevention ond treatment

A

bariatrics

1427
Q

a catheter surgically inserted for long-term delivery of midications or fluids into the central cirulation

A

central IV catheter

1428
Q

device worn by a patient that blows oxygen or air under constant low pressure through a tube and mask to keep airway passages from collapsing at the end of a breath

A

continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP)

1429
Q

process of filtering the blood to remove toxic or unwanted wastes and fluids

A

dialysis

1430
Q

physical; emotional; behavioral; or cognitive condition that interferes with a person’s ability to carry out everyday tasks; such as working or caring for oneself

A

disability

1431
Q

tube used to provide delivery of nutrients to the stomach A nasogastric feeding tube is inserted through the nose and into the stomach; a gastric feeding tube is surgically implanted through the abdominal wall and into the stomach

A

feeding tube

1432
Q

battery-powered mechanical pump implanted in the body to assist a failing left ventricle in pumping blood to the body

A

left ventricular assist device (LVAD)

1433
Q

condition of having too much body fat; defined as a body mass index of 30 or greater

A

obesity

1434
Q

an external pouch that collects fecal matter diverted from the colon or ileum through a surgical opening (colostomy or ileostomy) in the abdominal wall.

A

ostomy bag

1435
Q

device implanted under the skin with wires implanted into the heart to modify the heart rate as needed to maintain an adequate heart rate

A

pacemaker

1436
Q

surgically created opening into the body; as with a tracheostomy; colostomy; or ileostomy

A

stoma

1437
Q

surgical opening in the neck into the trachea

A

tracheostomy

1438
Q

tube inserted into the bladder through the urethra to drain urine from the bladder

A

urinary catheter

1439
Q

a device that brathes for a patient

A

ventilator

1440
Q

where the Incident Command post and support functions are located

A

cold zone

1441
Q

first on the scene to establish order and initiate the Incident Command System (ICS)

A

command

1442
Q

chemical and/or physical process that reduces or prevents the spread of contamination from persons or equipment; the removal of hazardous substances from employees and their equipment to the extent necessary to preclude foreseeable health effects

A

decontamination

1443
Q

predefined set of instructions for a community’s emergency responders

A

disaster plan

1444
Q

any substance or material in a form which poses an unreasonable risk to health; safety; and property when transported in commerce

A

hazardous material

1445
Q

area immediately surrounding a hazmat incident; extends far enough to prevent adverse effects outside the zone

A

hot zone

1446
Q

person or persons who assume overall direction of an incident

A

incident command

1447
Q

subset of the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

A

incident command system (ICS)

1448
Q

any medical or trauma incident involving multiple patients

A

multiple-casualty incident (MCI)

1449
Q

management system used by federal; state; and local governments to manage emergencies in the US

A

National Incident Management System (NIMS)

1450
Q

command organization in which a single agency controls all resources and operations

A

single incident command

1451
Q

area where ambulances are parked and other resources are held until needed

A

staging area

1452
Q

person responsible for overseeing ambulances and ambulance personnel at a multiple-casualty incident.

A

staging supervisor

1453
Q

person responsible for communicating with wector officers and hospitals to manage transportation of patients to hospitals from a multiple-casualty incident

A

transportation supervisor

1454
Q

area in which patients are treated at a multiple-casualty incident

A

treatment area

1455
Q

person responsible for overseeing treatment of patients who have been triaged at multiple-casualty incident

A

treatment supervisor

1456
Q

process of quickly assessing patients at a multiple casualty incident and assigning each a priority for receiveing treatment

A

triage

1457
Q

where secondary triage takes place at a multiple-casualty incident

A

triage area

1458
Q

person responsible for overseeing triage at a multiple-casualty incident

A

triage supervisor

1459
Q

person responsible for overseeing triage at a multiple-casualty incident

A

triage supervisor

1460
Q

color-coded tag indicating the priority group to which a patient has been assigned

A

triage bag

1461
Q

command organization in which several agencies work independently but cooperatively

A

unified command

1462
Q

area where personnel and equipment decontamination and hot zone support take place; it includes control points for the access corridor and thus assists in reducing the spread of contamination

A

warm zone

1463
Q

contact with or presence of a material (contaminant) that is present where it does not belong and that is somehow harmful to persons; animals; or the environment

A

contamination

1464
Q

spreading

A

dissemination

1465
Q

terrorism directed against the government or population without foreign direction.

A

domestic terrorism

1466
Q

dose or concentration of an agent multiplied by the time; or duration

A

exposure

1467
Q

terrorism that is foreign-based or directed

A

international terrorism

1468
Q

movement of a substance through a surface or on a molecular level; through intact materials penetration; or spreading

A

permeation

1469
Q

roentgen equivalent (in) man; a measure of radiation dosage

A

rem

1470
Q

pathways into the bod; generally by absorption; ingestionm; injection; or inhalation

A

routes of entry

1471
Q

destructive devices; such as bombs; placed to be activated after an initial attack and timed to injure emergency responders and others who rush in to help care for those targeted by an initial attack

A

secondary devices

1472
Q

broad general plans designed to achieve desired outcomes

A

strategies

1473
Q

specific operational actions to accomplish assigned tasks

A

tactics

1474
Q

unlawful use of force or violence against persons or property to intimidate or coerce a government; the civilian population or any segment thereof in furtherance of political or social objectives

A

terrorism

1475
Q

packageing or producing a material; such as a chemical; biological; or radiological agent; so that it can be used as a weapon

A

weaponization

1476
Q

weapons; devices; or agents intended to cause widespread harm and/or fear among a population

A

weapons of mass destruction (WMD)

1477
Q

able to move through the animal-human barrier; transmissible from animals to humans

A

zoonotic