EMQ Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

What is Cotard Syndrome?

A
  1. Cotard’s syndrome is named after Jules Cotard, a French neurologist who described the condition in 1880.
  2. It is a syndrome whose central feature is nihilistic delusions.
  3. The most prominent features of Cotard’s syndrome are depressive mood (89%), nihilistic delusions concerning one’s own body (86%), nihilistic delusions concerning one’s own existence (69%), anxiety (65%), delusions of guilt (63%), delusions of immortality (55%) and Hypochondriacal delusions (58%).
  4. Also known as Délire de négation.
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2
Q

Is Somatisation or Hypochondriasis in the DSM V?

A

No.
Somatic symptom disorder in DSM -V. Somatoform disorders are now referred to as somatic symptom and related disorders. Diagnoses of somatisation disorder, hypochondriasis , pain disorder and undifferentiated somatoform disorder have been removed

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3
Q

What is body dysmorphic disorder?

A

for DSM 5 - repetitive behaviours or mental acts in response to pre-occupations with perceived defects or flaws in physical appearance.

Also has muscle dysmorphia

The delusional variant - It is no longer coded as b under delusional disorder but now under BDD without insight

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4
Q

What is found on the EEG of a patient with CJD?

A

Periodic 1-2 Hz sharp wave complexes - characteristic of CJD

Myoclonic jerks are also a frequent occurence

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5
Q

Sporadic vs Variant CJD? - which one presents with psychiatric symptoms initially?

A

Variant CJD

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6
Q

What sign can be seen on an MRI with Variant CJD

A

Pulvinar sign

  • Hyperintensity on the thalamus
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7
Q

Which screening test is not sensitive in picking up Frontal Lobe abnormalities?

A

MMSE

Fronto-temporal dementia has an intact parietal lobe - therefore MMSE is usually normal

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8
Q

What shows on the MRI for Vascular dementia?

A

Deep White matter Hyperintensities.

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9
Q

Vascular dementia - What are the 4 broad categories ?

A

Multi-infarct dementia
Small vessel Disease
Post Stroke Dementia
Specific Vascular Dementia Syndromes (E.g CADASIL)

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10
Q

What is the Hachinski index? and what does it differentiate?

A

Vascular dementia vs Alzheimers disease.

  • Abrupt onset
  • stepwise deterioration
  • fluctuating course
  • focal neurological

Hachinski Ischemic Scale

Feature Value 
Abrupt onset 2 
Stepwise deterioration 1 
Fluctuating course 2 
Nocturnal confusion 1 
Relative preservation of personality 1 
Depression 1 
Somatic complaints 1 
Emotional incontinence 1 
History or presence of hypertension 1 
History of strokes 2 
Evidence of atherosclerosis 1 
Focal neurological symptoms 2 
Focal neurological signs 2 

Patients scoring 7 or greater are classified as having “multi-infarct dementia”, and patients scoring = 4 are classified as having “primary degenerative dementia”. A score of 5 or 6 is considered as an intermediate value and is usually designated as “mixed dementia”.
signs

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11
Q

Neuroimaging on Multi-infarct dementia?

A

cerebral atrophy

old and recent infarcts

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12
Q

Findings on Neuroimaging in Small Vessel Disease?

A

2 cardinal features:
- White matter lesions ( appear as periventricular lucency - leucoaraiosis) or as Deep white matter hyperintensities and central grey matter lacunae

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13
Q

Findings on Neuroimaging in CADASIL - Cerebral Autosomal Dominant Arteriopathy with subcortical infarcts and Leukoencephalopathy

A

Presents with MIGRAIN and Recurrent subcortical infarcts, TIA and affective disturbance

Mutations on the NOTCH3 gene on Chromosome 19

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14
Q

MELAS

Mitochondrial myopathy, encephalopathy, lactic acidosis and stroke like episodes

A

Usually presents in childhood due to mutation in the mitochondrial transfer RNA

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15
Q

Wernickes Encephalopathy - eye signs

A

Lateral rectus palsy due to Abducens Nerve - characteristic of Wernickes

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16
Q

Neurosyphilis - eye signs

A

Argyll Robertson pupil

Pupil that is slow to accommodate or where accommodation reflex is present - characteristic of Neurosyphilis

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17
Q

What psychotic symptoms can retroviral medications cause?

A

Psychosis and hallucinations

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18
Q

Urine osmolality in SIADH

A

Increased Urine osmolality - due to increased ADH secretion and loss of Sodium and subsequent Hypo Na

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19
Q

Psychogenic Polydipsia

A

complication of Schizophrenia

Low Urine osmolality due to dilute urine

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20
Q

Ventromedial hypothalamus is in control of ?

A

Satiety

  • ie. hyperphagia and obesity
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21
Q

Lateral Hypothalamus

A

centre for feeding

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22
Q

Which area of the brain is responsible for apathy?

A

Medial frontal lobe

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23
Q

What is the eponymous name for damage to the DOMINANT PARIETAL LOBE?

A

Gerstmanns syndrome

Agraphia
Acalculia
Left- Right Disorientation
Finger agnosia

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24
Q

What is damaged in Korsakoff’s syndrome?

A

Mamillary Bodies

Causes:
Anterograde and Retrograde Amnesia

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25
Q

What is Klinefelter Syndrome and what are the signs

A

47 XXY

Male hypogonadism
90% have scant facial hair and gynaecomastia occurs in 50% of patients.

6.5% of patients with Klinefelters will have a psychotic disorder including schizophrenia and bipolar disorder

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26
Q

What is Turners Syndrome and the signs

A

45 XO
- female partly or completely missing an X chromosome.

signs:
Short stature 
non functioning ovaries 
Webbed neck 
lymphoedema of hands and feet 
high BP and kidney problems
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27
Q

Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome (Testicular feminisation syndrome)

A

X linked disorder

Receptors are unresponsive to Testosterone

Despite normal levels of testosterone - fails to develop as Male

Secondary sex characteristics are female due to Testosterone to Oestrogen Aromatisation

Can operate with gonadectomy and provide hormones to raise as female

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28
Q

What are McNaughtons Rules?

A
  1. Every man is to be presumed to be sane and to possess a sufficient degree of reason to be responsible for his crimes, until the contrary be proved.
  2. An insane person is punishable “if he knows” at the time of crime.
  3. To establish a defense on insanity, the accused, by defect of reason or disease of mind, is not in a position to know the nature and consequences.
  4. The insane person must be considered in the same situation as to responsibility as if the facts with respect to which the delusion exists were real.
  5. It was the jury’s role to decide whether the defendant was insane.
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29
Q

What is Duress?

A

Legal defence

A Person acts under duress and therefore involuntarily, if that persons actions were performed because of threats (express or implied) of death or really serious injury to himself/herself/dependents being threats of such a nature that a person of ordinary firmness and strength of will, that is a person of the same maturity and sex as the accused person

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30
Q

What is Provocation

A

Legal Defence

Act is the result of a loss of self control on the part of the accused that was induced by any conduct of [the deceased] towards or affected the accused

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31
Q

What is Othellos Syndrome?

A

Morbid jealousy

Delusion of Infidelity

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32
Q

Referential delusion?

A

A neutral event believed to have a special or personal meaning

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33
Q

Autochthonous delusion?

A

a.k.a Wahneinfall delusion

” Out of the blue” delusion
arise as suddenly formed intuitions and occur in a single stage.

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34
Q

Delusional perception?

A

Occurs in two stages

1) real perception
2) delusional interpretation

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35
Q

Delusional Mood?

A

Strange, uncanny mood in which the environment appears to be changed in a threatening way but the significance of the change cannot be understood by the patient who is tense, anxious and bewildered

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36
Q

Nihilistic delusions

A

Feelings of guilt, death, and hypochondriacal ideas are extreme

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37
Q

Delusional Memory

A

patient recalls as remembered an event or idea that is delusional

” I remember when I was abducted by aliens”

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38
Q

What are the autopsy findings in Alzheimers Disease?

A

Amyloid Plaques (Neuritic Plaques),
Neurofibrillary tangles (NFT) - intraneuronal aggregates of Tau protein normally found in the axon - Visible with silver staining techniques (Bielschowsky)
Astrocystosis and microgliosis
Neuronal and synaptic loss

Found in the MEDIAL HIPPOCAMPUS (Entorhinal cortex, amygdala)
Neocortex of the occipital, frontal and temporal lobes

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39
Q

Lewy body dementia

What are lewy bodies?

A

Oesinophilic inclusion bodies composed of abnormally phosphorylated neurofilament proteins aggregated with UBIQUITIN and ALPHA SYNUCLEIN

Lewy bodies in LEWY BODY DEMENTIA are found in the cerebral cortex - Limbic and neocortical structures

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40
Q

Where are Lewy bodies found in Parkinsons disease?

A

Lewy body formation and neuronal loss occur in the BRAINSTEM Nuclei, particularly the SUBSTANTIA NIGRA

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41
Q

Vascular dementia changes in brain

A

Large or multiple small infarcts, lacunar infarcted, cerebral amyloid angiopathy, gliosis, hyalinasation and sclerosis

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42
Q

Who developed Attachment theory

A

John Bowlby

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43
Q

When is stranger anxiety?

A

Initially, babies show a positive response to strangers (between 14-18 weeks), this is normally replaced by stranger anxiety at around 8 months.

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44
Q

When is separation anxiety?

A

When an infant is separated from their main carer it is common for them to become anxious (aka separation anxiety). Separation anxiety is most common when an infant is 10 - 18 months and usually diminishes by year three.

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45
Q

What happens to people with poor attachment?

A

The quality of a persons early attachments appears is associated with their adult behaviour. Poor attachments tend to lead to withdrawn individuals who struggle to form relationships, where as good attachments are associated with socially competent adults who are able to form healthy relationships. Attachment behaviour tends to be stable over the lifetime.

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46
Q

When does specific attachment take place?

A

Specific attachment does not seem to take place before 6 months. The time from 6 months to 36 months is known as the critical period. During this time a child is most vulnerable to interruptions in its attachment.

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47
Q

What is stupor?

A

Stupor - combination of immobility and mutism

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48
Q

Posturing?

A

Posturing - maintaining the same posture for long periods. A classic example is the ‘crucifix’. An extreme version of posturing is catalepsy

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49
Q

Waxy Flexibility?

A

Waxy flexibility (cerea flexibilitas) - patient can be positioned in uncomfortable postures, which are maintained for a considerable period of time.

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50
Q

Geganhalten - Negativism?

A

Negativism (Gegenhalten) - patient resists the attempts of the examiner to move parts of their body and, according to the original definition, the resistance offered is exactly equal to the strength applied

51
Q

Automatic obedience?

A

Automatic obedience - exaggerated cooperation, automatically obeying every instruction of the examiner.

52
Q

Mitmachen

A

Mitmachen - a form of automatic obedience whereby the body of the patient can be put into any posture, even if the patient is given instructions to resist. The body part immediately returns to the original position once the force is removed (unlike in waxy flexibility)

53
Q

Mitgehen

A

Mitgehen - an extreme form of mitmachen in which the examiner is able to move the patient’s body with the slightest touch (anglepoise lamp sign).

54
Q

Ambitendency

A

Ambitendency - The patient alternates between resistance to and cooperation with the examiner’s instructions; for example, when asked to shake hands, the patient repeatedly extends and withdraws the hand

55
Q

Psychological pillow

A

Psychological pillow - The patient assumes a reclining posture, with their head a few inches above the bed surface, and is able to maintain this position for prolonged periods

56
Q

Forced grasping

A

Forced grasping - The patient forcibly and repeatedly grasps the examiner’s hand when offered

57
Q

Obstruction

A

Obstruction - The patient stops suddenly in the course of a movement and is generally unable to give a reason. This appears to be the motor counterpart of thought block

58
Q

Echopraxia

A

Echopraxia - The patient imitates the actions of the interviewer

59
Q

Stereotypies

A

Stereotypies - These are repetitive, regular movements that are not goal-directed (e.g. Rocking)

60
Q

Motor perseveration

A

Motor perseveration - The patient persists with a particular movement that has lost its initial relevance

61
Q

Echolalia

A

Echolalia - repetition of the examiners words

62
Q

Logorrhoea

A

Logorrhoea - incoherent talkativeness

63
Q

Verbigeration

A

Verbigeration - Meaningless, repetition of words or phrases

64
Q

What is a haplotype

A

A haplotype is a set of DNA variations, or polymorphisms, that tend to be inherited together.

65
Q

What are EEG findings in CJD

A

Early on there is non specific slowing, later periodic biphasic and triphasic synchronous sharp wave complexes superimposed on a slow background rhythm

66
Q

EEG findings in Huntingtons disease

A

Low voltage EEG, in particular no alpha (flattening)

67
Q

EEG findings in Delirium

A

Diffuse slowing, decreased alpha, increased theta and delta

68
Q

EEG findings in Delirium Tremens

A

Hyperactive trace, fast

69
Q

EEG findings in Alzheimers

A

Reduced alpha and beta, increased delta and theta

70
Q

EEG findings in absence seizure - petit mal

A

Generalised, bilateral, synchronous, 3Hz (3 waves per second) spike and wave pattern

71
Q

EEG findings in Generalised Epilepsy

A

Sharp spikes, 25-30Hz

72
Q

EEG findings in Myclonic epilepsy

A

Generalised spike and wave activity

73
Q

EEG findings in Encephalopathy

A

Diffuse slowing

74
Q

What is the Brown and Harris vulnerability factors for depressive illness in women?

A
  • Three or more children under the age of 14 at home
  • Lack of an intimate relationship with a husband or boyfriend
  • Lack of employment outside of the home
  • Loss of a mother before the age of 11 years
75
Q

What is a flashbulb memory?

A

Flashbulb memories are detailed recollections of the context in which people first heard about an important event.

For example, what were you doing when you first heard about the death of Diana, Princess of Wales in 1997?

76
Q

What are Freuds Psychosexual theory of development?

A

Stage

Range

Description

Oral 0-18 months Pleasure and needs explored though sucking, swallowing and biting
Anal 18-36 months Pleasure and need explore through bowel and bladder, through both elimination and retention
Phallic 3-5 years During this phase, boys pass through the Oedipal complex and girls the Electra complex. Girls are also said to develop penis envy in this stage
Latency 5-puberty The sexual drive remains latent during this stage
Genital Puberty-adulthood During this stage a person achieves independence from their parents and forms intimate relationships with others

77
Q

Delusional type:

Folie a Deux

A

Folie a deux - a syndrome where a delusion is transmitted from one person to another (aka a shared delusion)

78
Q

Hypochondriacal delusion

A

Hypochondriacal - belief that something is physically wrong with the patient

79
Q

Ekboms syndrome

A

Ekboms’ syndrome - belief that has been infested with insects

80
Q

Othello syndrome

A

Othello syndrome - belief that a sexual partner is cheating on them

81
Q

Capgras delusion

A

Capgras delusion - belief that a person close to them has been replaced by a double

82
Q

Fregoli delusion

A

Fregoli delusion - patient identifies a familiar person (usually suspected to be a persecutor) in other people they meet

83
Q

Syndrome of subjective doubles

A

Syndrome of subjective doubles - belief that doubles of him/her exist

84
Q

Lycanthropy

A

Lycanthropy - belief that one has been transformed into an animal

85
Q

De Clarambaults syndrome

A

De Clérambault’s syndrome - false belief that a person is in love with them

86
Q

Pseudocyesis

A

Pseudocyesis - a condition whereby a woman believes herself to be pregnant when she is not. Objective signs accompany the belief such as abdominal enlargement, menstrual disturbance, apparent foetal movements, nausea, breast changes, and labour pains.

87
Q

Akinesia

A

absence, poverty, or loss of control of voluntary muscle movements. This is seen in severe Parkinson’s disease.

88
Q

Bradykinesia

A

slowness of movement, core symptom in Parkinson’s disease along with tremor and rigidity.

89
Q

Athetosis

A

continuous stream of slow, flowing, writhing involuntary movements.

90
Q

akathisia

A
  • subjective feeling of inner restlessness, most often caused by side effect of neuroleptic medication, often manifests as inability to sit still.
91
Q

Chorea

A
  • brief, quasi-purposeful, irregular contractions that are not repetitive or rhythmic, but appear to flow from one muscle to the next.
92
Q

Dystonia

A

sustained muscle contractions cause twisting and repetitive movements or abnormal postures.

93
Q

Dyskinesia

A

general term referring to problems with voluntary movements and the presence of involuntary movements.

94
Q

Myoclonus

A

Sudden involuntary jerks of a muscle or a muscle group. These are not suppressible.

95
Q

Tic

A

sudden, repetitive, non rhythmic, stereotyped motor movement or vocalization involving discrete muscle groups. These are different to myoclonus as they are suppressible.

96
Q

Hemiballismus

A

repetitive, but constantly varying, large amplitude involuntary movements of the proximal parts of the limbs

97
Q

Tremor

A

involuntary, rhythmic, alternating movement of one or more body parts.

98
Q

What is a primary delusion?

A

A primary delusion is one that arises spontaneously, from normal psychological processes and not as a consequence of psychopathology.

99
Q

What is a secondary delusion?

A

A secondary delusion develops as a consequence of an abnormal experience.
For instance, if a delusion arises following a patient’s experience of auditory hallucinations it is classed as secondary.

100
Q

What are types of primary delusions

A
  • Delusional perception - A normal perception followed by a delusional interpretation
  • Delusional memory - The recollection of an event or idea that is clearly delusional in nature
  • Delusional mood - Delusion arising from a strange mood
  • Autochthonous delusion - A delusion that appears out of the blue (spontaneously), i.e. not following a perception, memory or mood
101
Q

Gedankenlautwerden

A

thought echo

102
Q

Schnauzkrampf

A

a grimace resembling pouting sometimes observed in catatonic patients

103
Q

Vorbeigehen/ vorbeireden

A

Seen in Ganser syndrome. Patient’s who exhibit this give approximate answers to questions (e.g. How many fingers does a man have, answer 14).

104
Q

Autosomal dominant Inheritance?

A

There are two copies of every autosomal gene. When the presence of one faulty gene causes a problem despite the presence of a normal one the condition is said to be dominant. Conditions with dominant inheritance show what’s known as vertical transmission, this is based on the appearance of the family pedigree. When only 1 parent is affected there is a 50% chance of each child expressing the condition. Autosomal dominant conditions often show pleiotropy. This refers to the situation where a single gene influences several characteristics. An example is Marfan’s syndrome where the hypermobility of the joints, elongation of the limbs, and heart defects are caused by a single gene. Make sure not to confuse this with polyploidy which refers to a situation where there are more than 2 sets of chromosones (for example 69 chromosones in a cell).

Conditions: 
Huntingtons 
Neurofibromatosis 
Marfans 
Achondroplasia
105
Q

Autosomal Recessive Inheritance

A

In an autosomal recessive condition a person requires two faulty copies of a gene to manifest a disease. A person with one healthy and one faulty gene will generally not manifest a disease and are labelled a carrier. Autosomal recessive conditions demonstrate horizontal transmission.

Conditions:
Homocystinuria
Phenylketonuria
Wilsons disease

106
Q

X - linked (Sex linked) Inheritance

Dominant

A

In X-linked conditions the problem gene lies on the X chromosome. This means that all males are affected. Like autosomal conditions they can be dominant or recessive. Affected males are unable to pass the condition on to their sons.

Conditions :

Vitamin D resistant Rickets
Retts Syndrome

107
Q

X linked recessive

A

Duchenne Muscular dystrophy
Red-green colour blindness
Haemophilia A and B

108
Q

Multifactorial inheritance

A

Multifactoral conditions result from interaction between genes from both parents and the environment.

109
Q

Antipsychiatry movement

A

The anti-psychiatry movement began in the 1960’s and supports the notion that mental illnesses are social constructs which reflect deviation from social norms.

Famous figures associated with the movement include:-

  • Thomas Szasz
  • R.D.Laing
  • Michel Foucault
  • Franco Basaglia
110
Q

Early onset Alzheimers - Genetic

A

Take note that early onset (familial) Alzheimer’s (EOFAD) is very rare and account for only 0.1% of all Alzheimer’s cases.

There are 3 genes of importance:-

  • amyloid precursor protein (APP) - accounts for 10-15% of EOFAD
  • presenilin one (PSEN-1) - accounts for 30-70% of EOFAD
  • presenilin two (PSEN-2) - accounts for 5% of EOFAD

The APP gene is located on chromosome 21 and codes for the production of amyloid precursor protein. Little is known about the function of this protein other than that it’s a precursor of amyloid.
The presenilins are components of enzymes that cleave APP to produce amyloid beta fragments of different lengths. Alterations in the ratios of these fragments can result in insoluble amyloid leading to plaque formation. The PSEN-1 gene is located on chromosome 14 and the PSEN-2 gene on chromosome 1. The presenilins account for the majority of early onset Alzheimer’s cases.

111
Q

Late Onset Alzheimers

A

Only one gene has been identified for late onset cases, apolipoprotein E (APOE).

APOE is thought to be involved in the breakdown of amyloid plaques and different forms of it seem to vary in how effective they can do this. The gene is on chromosome 19 and has three alleles, APOE2, APOE3, and APOE4. The E4 variant is the risk factor for late onset Alzheimer’s. People homozygous for the E4 allele have between a 10 and 30 times increased risk for Alzheimer’s compared to people not carrying any E4 alleles. Heterozygotes for APOE4 have a 3 times increased risk. In addition each E4 allele lowers the age of onset by 10 years.

  • APOE2 - protective
  • APOE3 - neutral
  • APOE4 - increases risk
112
Q

What is genomic imprinting?

A

Genomic imprinting is a phenomenon by which certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. The most important example of this for the exam is Angelman and Prader-Willi.

113
Q

Dementia praecox

A

Kraepelin

114
Q

Schizophrenia

A

Bleuler

115
Q

Hebephrenia

A

Hecker

116
Q

Catatonia

A

Kahlbaum

117
Q

Schizoaffective

A

Kasanin

118
Q

Neurasthenia

A

Beard

119
Q

Psychiatry

A

Reil

120
Q

What is the Brief Psychiatric Rating scale?

A

The Brief Psychiatric Rating Scale is a common instrument used to evaluate psychopathology in patients with schizophrenia, it has now been largely replaced by the PANSS.

It is rated by a clinician and consists of 24 items, each rated out of a 7 point scale of severity. Higher score indicate greater severity of symptoms.

Ratings for several of the variables are based on observation, the remainder are assessed via a short interview.

121
Q

Clozapine pharmacology

A

Clozapine has a complex pharmacology. It has antagonistic activity at the D1, D2, D3 and D4 dopamine receptors, alpha-1 and alpha-2 adrenergic, 5-HT2 serotonin, H1 histamine and M1, M2, M3 and M5 receptors, with agonist activity at the M4 muscarinic receptor.

122
Q

What is Kluver-Bucy syndrome?

A

Kluver-Bucy syndrome occurs following bilateral medial temporal lobe dysfunction. The structure implicated in the etiology is the amygdala. Affected individuals display the following features:-

  • Hyperorality (tendency to explore object with the mouth)
  • Hypersexuality
  • Docility
  • Visual agnosia
  • Dietary changes

The most common causes include:-

  • Herpes
  • Late stage Alzheimer’s
  • Frontotemporal dementia
  • Trauma
  • Bilateral temporal lobe infarction
123
Q

What is the halo effect?

A

The halo effect is a cognitive bias whereby the perception of one characteristic of a person or object is influenced by the perception of another. An example would be judging a good looking person as more intelligent.