Employee Testing and Selection Flashcards

Chapter 6

1
Q
Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A) employment malpractice
B) negligent hiring
C) improper hiring
D) invalid screening
A

B) negligent hiring

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2
Q

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

A

A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test

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3
Q
If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
A

D) unreliable

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4
Q
If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable
A

C) reliable

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5
Q
Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
A) equivalency
B) reliability
C) expectancy
D) validity
A

B) reliability

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6
Q

Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question
B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores
D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

A

D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

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7
Q
Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?
A) retest estimate
B) equivalent form estimate
C) internal comparison estimate
D) criterion validity measurement
A

B) equivalent form estimate

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8
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
A) Retest estimate
B) Equivalent form estimate
C) Content validity estimate
D) Internal comparison estimate
A

D) Internal comparison estimate

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9
Q
All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) test-retest estimate
B) internal comparison estimate
C) equivalent form estimate
D) content validity measurement
A

D) content validity measurement

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10
Q
When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?
A) test validity
B) retest estimate
C) internal consistency
D) criterion validity
A

C) internal consistency

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11
Q
The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) poor sampling of question material
B) lack of equivalence between tests
C) inconsistent testing conditions
D) failure to predict job performance
A

D) failure to predict job performance

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12
Q
Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
A) reliability
B) validity
C) expectancy
D) consistency
A

B) validity

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13
Q

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________.
A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job
B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success
C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job
D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable

A

C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job

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14
Q
The first step in the test validation process is \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) creating a test battery
B) administering tests
C) analyzing the job
D) cross-validating
A

C) analyzing the job

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15
Q
Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
A) performance standard
B) digital dashboard
C) competency model
D) expectancy chart
A

D) expectancy chart

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16
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?
A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.
B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience.
C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance.
D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

A

A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.

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17
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.
A) Applicable
B) Predictive
C) Concurrent
D) Statistical
A

B) Predictive

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18
Q

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) using a new sample of employees
B) administering additional tests
C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

A

D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

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19
Q

According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________.
A) informed consent regarding the use of test results
B) scores to be interpreted by qualified individuals
C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job
D) fairness of the test for all who take it

A

C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job

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20
Q
According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) job skills
B) psychological behaviors
C) interpersonal behaviors
D) ethical opinions
A

A) job skills

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21
Q

EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.

A

TRUE

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22
Q

Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.

A

FALSE

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23
Q

A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

A

TRUE

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24
Q

An internal comparison estimate measures a test’s internal consistency.

A

TRUE

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25
Q

Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence

A

FALSE

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26
Q

Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance.

A

FALSE

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27
Q

Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity

A

TRUE

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28
Q

Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.

A

FALSE

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29
Q

There are five steps in the validation process beginning with analyzing the job and concluding with administering the test.

A

FALSE

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30
Q

A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors.

A

TRUE

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31
Q

Employers concerned about ethical and EEO violations may purchase employment tests that have been validated.

A

TRUE

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32
Q

Concurrent validation is the most dependable way to validate a selection test.

A

FALSE

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33
Q

To use predictive validation, one administers the test to applicants before they are hired. The applicants are then hired using existing selection techniques but not the new tests in development. Later, job performance measures are compared to the test scores under development.

A

TRUE

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34
Q

If there is a correlation between test and job performance, one can develop an expectancy
chart to illustrate the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically.

A

TRUE

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35
Q

The strong correlation between test results and job performance has led to numerous expert recommendations that tests be used as the only selection tool in the hiring process

A

FALSE

36
Q

Selection tests must be validated in the organization that uses them regardless of the validity shown in other similar organizations

A

FALSE

37
Q

Selection tests should be used as supplements to other tools like interviews and background checks

A

TRUE

38
Q

The American Psychological Association’s standards for educational and psychological tests are legally enforceable.

A

FALSE

39
Q

The Federal Privacy Act allows federal employees to view their personnel files.

A

TRUE

40
Q

Criterion validity shows a relationship between how well a person performs on a selection test and how well a person performs on the job

A

TRUE

41
Q

According to the Uniform Guidelines, employers are required to prove the validity of selection procedures for all assessments.

A

FALSE

42
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive
A

D) Cognitive

43
Q
Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ tests.
A) standardized
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) personality
A

B) intelligence

44
Q
All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) deductive reasoning
B) numerical ability
C) temperament
D) memory
A

C) temperament

45
Q
As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
A) interpersonal skills
B) cognitive skills
C) physical abilities
D) achievements
A

C) physical abilities

46
Q
Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ test.
A) motor ability
B) personality
C) cognitive
D) interest
A

A) motor ability

47
Q
All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) extraversion
B) reasoning
C) sensitivity
D) emotional stability
A

B) reasoning

48
Q
According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) physical limitations
B) lack of aptitude
C) temperament
D) psychological issues
A

C) temperament

49
Q
The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) neuroticism
B) optimism
C) extroversion
D) conscientiousness
A

B) optimism

50
Q
Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) openness to experience
A

A) neuroticism

51
Q
\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
A) Extroversion
B) Conscientiousness
C) Agreeableness
D) Openness to experience
A

A) Extroversion

52
Q
Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
A) extroversion
B) conscientiousness
C) neuroticism
D) openness to experience
A

D) openness to experience

53
Q
The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) extroversion
B) conscientiousness
C) agreeableness
D) openness to experience
A

C) agreeableness

54
Q
Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness
A

C) conscientiousness

55
Q
While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs?
A) openness to experience
B) conscientiousness
C) extroversion
D) agreeableness
A

B) conscientiousness

56
Q
An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) retired workers
B) other people in the same industry
C) other people in various occupations
D) managers and executives in the firm
A

C) other people in various occupations

57
Q
Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) aptitude tests
B) interest inventories
C) achievement tests
D) projective tests
A

C) achievement tests

58
Q

Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________.
A) develop work samples
B) develop specific job descriptions
C) verify a candidate’s U.S. citizenship
D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

A

D) screen and rank candidates based on skills

59
Q

Although inexpensive to develop, assessment centers are infrequently used by employers because such tests have a weak correlation with future job performance.

A

FALSE

60
Q

Interest inventories are useful for career planning because they compare the interests of the test taker to the interests of people in various occupations.

A

TRUE

61
Q

Applicant tracking systems compile resumes, track applicants during the hiring process, and screen out applicants who do not meet minimum job requirements.

A

TRUE

62
Q

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.
A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers
B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest
C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm
D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

A

B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest

63
Q

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique?
A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.
B) Employers learn about an applicant’s personality.
C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance.
D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

A

A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.

64
Q
A(n) \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.
A) work sampling event
B) situational judgment test
C) management assessment center
D) applicant personality test
A

C) management assessment center

65
Q
Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) the in-basket
B) leaderless group discussions
C) motor skills assessments
D) management games
A

C) motor skills assessments

66
Q

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
A) Development costs are very low.
B) Minimal time is required for test administration.
C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process.
D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate’s leadership potential.

A

D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate’s leadership potential.

67
Q
Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) intelligence tests
B) personality tests
C) situational tests
D) interests inventories
A

C) situational tests

68
Q
Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire?
A) achievement testing
B) work sampling technique
C) management assessment center
D) miniature job training
A

D) miniature job training

69
Q
Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
A) structured interviews
B) cognitive ability tests
C) assessment centers
D) work samples
A

B) cognitive ability tests

70
Q

Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods
would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities?
A) aptitude tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) work sampling technique
D) job knowledge tests

A

C) work sampling technique

71
Q
Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) miniature job training and evaluation
B) situational judgment tests
C) assessment centers
D) management games
A

A) miniature job training and evaluation

72
Q
As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) return on investment
B) adverse impact
C) persistence
D) usability
A

C) persistence

73
Q

Most small businesses find it cost-effective to conduct validity studies of the selection tools they use.

A

FALSE

74
Q
According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation?
A) age
B) references
C) credit ratings
D) driving records
A

B) references

75
Q
Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants?
A) adhere to legal hiring practices
B) limit the number of applicants
C) uncover false information
D) report criminals to police
A

C) uncover false information

76
Q
Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ if the information is both false and harmful.
A) discrimination
B) adverse impact
C) arbitration
D) defamation
A

D) defamation

77
Q

Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations?
A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant
B) using a database to access information about the applicant’s credit history
C) locating references other than the ones provided by the applicant
D) using a search engine to find information about the applicant

A

A) searching social networking sites for posted information about the applicant

78
Q

According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants?
A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit report will be requested
B) certifying to the reporting agency of the employer’s legal compliance
C) providing copies of reports to the applicant if adverse action is considered
D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

A

D) providing a detailed rationale explaining the reason for any adverse action

79
Q

In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process?
A) electrical engineer at the Department of Energy
B) pharmacist’s assistant at Walgreen’s
C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank
D) cashier at J.C. Penney’s

A

D) cashier at J.C. Penney’s

80
Q
What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity?
A) honesty tests
B) interest inventories
C) personality tests
D) graphology
A

A) honesty tests

81
Q
Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
A) numerology
B) reasoning analysis
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment
A

C) handwriting analysis

82
Q
What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
A) physical exams
B) personality tests
C) substance abuse screening
D) fine motor skills assessments
A

A) physical exams

83
Q

Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening?
A) According to federal law, all employers must test all employees for illegal drugs.
B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances.
C) Most employers test potential applicants during the recruitment process.
D) Most urine sample tests measure the degree of impairment.

A

B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish between legal and illegal substances.

84
Q
According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive?
A) uncrossed legs
B) irregular breathing
C) unchanging pupils
D) slow verbal responses
A

B) irregular breathing

85
Q

Managers cannot be sued for defamation when giving bad references because only employers are held responsible by state and federal courts.

A

FALSE

86
Q

Most employers report preferring written references to telephone references because written letters provide more candid information about job candidates.

A

FALSE

87
Q

Employment screening services are useful in the selection process because they have access to a job applicant’s credit history, driving record, and workers’ compensation claims history.

A

TRUE