Employee Testing And Selection Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards?
A) employment malpractice
B) negligent hiring
C) improper hiring
D) invalid screening

A

B) negligent hiring

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________.
A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test
B) improved scores when a person takes the same test more than once in a single day
C) high scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test on different occasions
D) similar scores when two different people are administered the test at different times

A

A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable

A

D) unreliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________.
A) valid
B) invalid
C) reliable
D) unreliable

A

C) reliable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test?
A) equivalency
B) reliability
C) expectancy
D) validity

A

B) reliability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following best describes how to use a test-retest reliability estimate to assess reliability?
A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question
B) administer the same test to different people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with the scores at time 1
C) administer different tests to a group of people and compare the range of collected test scores
D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

A

D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their scores at time 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores?
A) retest estimate
B) equivalent form estimate
C) internal comparison estimate
D) criterion validity measurement

A

B) equivalent form estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together.
A) Retest estimate
B) Equivalent form estimate
C) Content validity estimate
D) Internal comparison estimate

A

D) Internal comparison estimate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________.
A) test-retest estimate
B) internal comparison estimate
C) equivalent form estimate
D) content validity measurement

A

D) content validity measurement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured?
A) test validity
B) retest estimate
C) internal consistency
D) criterion validity

A

C) internal consistency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) poor sampling of question material
B) lack of equivalence between tests
C) inconsistent testing conditions
D) failure to predict job performance

A

D) failure to predict job performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed?
A) reliability
B) validity
C) expectancy
D) consistency

A

B) validity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________.
A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job
B) higher test scores are statistically equivalent to proven, long-term job success
C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job
D) scores on the test are both internally and externally reliable

A

C) the test is representative of important aspects of performance on the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The first step in the test validation process is ________.
A) creating a test battery
B) administering tests
C) analyzing the job
D) cross-validating

A

C) analyzing the job

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people?
A) performance standard
B) digital dashboard
C) competency model
D) expectancy chart

A

D) expectancy chart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation?
A) Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.
B) New applicants are recent college graduates with limited experience.
C) Limited correlation exists between high test scores and job performance.
D) Test batteries have not been administered by professional industrial psychologists.

A

Current employees may not be representative of new applicants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test.
A) Applicable
B) Predictive
C) Concurrent
D) Statistical

A

B) Predictive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) using a new sample of employees
B) administering additional tests
C) evaluating the relationship between scores and performance
D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

A

D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of scores versus performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

According to a survey, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________.
A) job skills
B) psychological behaviors
C) interpersonal behaviors
D) ethical opinions

A

A) job skills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.
Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests?
A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws.
B) Golden Creamery competitors use psychologists for test development.
C) Golden Creamery strives to create a conscientious organizational culture.
D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

A

D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that tests are legally and ethically appropriate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm’s success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests.
Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm’s preemployment tests?
A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management positions.
B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an initial franchise fee and receive a percentage of sales royalties in return.
C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.
D) Individuals interested in working at a Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm’s Web site.

A

C) Annual turnover rates for hourly employees of Golden Creamery stores are three times the rate of comparable businesses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EEO laws require nondiscriminatory selection procedures for protected groups.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Tests administered for hiring purposes should be both valid and reasonable if used by a firm that adheres to evidence-based human resources.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

A reliable test is one that yields consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

An internal comparison estimate measures a test’s internal consistency.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Equivalent form estimates compare test scores from the same test administered at two points in time to determine test equivalence.

A

False

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Content validity is based on showing that the scores on the test are related to job performance.

28
Q

Test validity in employment testing is demonstrated through criterion validity and content validity.

29
Q

Organization-person fit is the primary concern of most employers during the selection process.

30
Q

A test battery is based on a combination of several tests that can then measure an array of predictors.

31
Q

Criterion validity shows a relationship between how well a person performs on a selection test and how well a person performs on the job.

32
Q

________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning.
A) Motor ability
B) Personality
C) Achievement
D) Cognitive

A

D) Cognitive

34
Q

Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests.
A) standardized
B) intelligence
C) achievement
D) personality

A

B) intelligence

35
Q

All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning
B) numerical ability
C) temperament
D) memory

A

C) temperament

36
Q

As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS?
A) interpersonal skills
B) cognitive skills
C) physical abilities
D) achievements

A

C) physical abilities

37
Q

Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl’s finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a(n) ________ test.
A) motor ability
B) personality
C) cognitive
D) interest

A

A) motor ability

38
Q

All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________.
A) extraversion
B) reasoning
C) sensitivity
D) emotional stability

A

B) reasoning

40
Q

According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired because of attitude, motivation, and ________.
A) physical limitations
B) lack of aptitude
C) temperament
D) psychological issues

A

C) temperament

41
Q

Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests.
A) intelligence
B) apperception
C) self-reported
D) projective

A

D) projective

42
Q

Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) neuroticism
B) optimism
C) extroversion
D) conscientiousness

A

B) optimism

43
Q

Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility?
A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) openness to experience

A

A) neuroticism

44
Q

________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active.
A) Extroversion
B) Conscientiousness
C) Agreeableness
D) Openness to experience

A

A) Extroversion

46
Q

Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike’s success as a pharmaceutical sales representative?
A) extroversion
B) agreeableness
C) conscientiousness
D) openness to experience

A

A) extroversion

47
Q

Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional?
A) extroversion
B) conscientiousness
C) neuroticism
D) openness to experience

A

D) openness to experience

48
Q

The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________.
A) extroversion
B) conscientiousness
C) agreeableness
D) openness to experience

A

C) agreeableness

52
Q

Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? A) neuroticism
B) extroversion
C) conscientiousness
D) agreeableness

A

C) conscientiousness

53
Q

Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge?
A) aptitude tests
B) interest inventories
C) achievement tests
D) projective tests

A

C) achievement tests

54
Q

Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.
B) Employers learn about an applicant’s personality.
C) Applicants can evaluate their own performance.
D) Fine motor skills can be accurately assessed over time.

A

A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers.

55
Q

With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________.
A) asked to submit examples of projects they have completed for other employers
B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest
C) tested on their ability to perform a range of tasks related to several positions in a firm
D) given video-based situational interviews to assess their critical thinking skills

A

B) tested on their ability to perform several tasks crucial to performing the job of interest

56
Q

A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance.
A) work sampling event
B) situational judgment test
C) management assessment center
D) applicant personality test

A

C) management assessment center

57
Q

Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) the in-basket
B) leaderless group discussions
C) motor skills assessments
D) management games

A

C) motor skills assessments

58
Q

Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process?
A) Development costs are very low.
B) Minimal time is required for test administration.
C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the testing process.
D) Experts observe and appraise each candidate’s leadership potential.

A

) Experts observe and appraise each candidate’s leadership potential.

59
Q

Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________.
A) intelligence tests
B) personality tests
C) situational tests
D) interests inventories

A

C) situational tests

60
Q

Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job’s tasks and then assessing the candidates’ performance prior to hire?
A) achievement testing
B) work sampling technique
C) management assessment center
D) miniature job training

A

) miniature job training

61
Q

Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums?
A) structured interviews
B) cognitive ability tests
C) assessment centers
D) work samples

A

B) cognitive ability tests

62
Q

Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities?
A) aptitude tests
B) cognitive ability tests
C) work sampling technique
D) job knowledge tests

A

C) work sampling technique

63
Q

is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________.
A) miniature job training and evaluation
B) situational judgment tests
C) assessment centers
D) management games

A

A) miniature job training and evaluation

64
Q

What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity?
A) honesty tests
B) interest inventories
C) personality tests
D) graphology

A

A) honesty tests

65
Q

Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. A) numerology
B) reasoning analysis
C) handwriting analysis
D) polygraph output assessment

A

C) handwriting analysis

66
Q

What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims?
A) physical exams
B) personality tests
C) substance abuse screening
D) fine motor skills assessments

A

A) physical exams