Emergency Neuro Presentations Flashcards

1
Q

As the brain and ventricles are enclosed by a rigid skull, they have a limited ability to accommodate additional volume. Additional volume (e.g. haematoma, tumour, excessive CSF) will therefore lead to a rise in intracranial pressure (ICP).

What is normal range for ICP?

A

7-15 mmHg in adults in the supine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is cerebral perfusion pressure?

A

cerebral perfusion pressure (CPP) is the net pressure gradient causing cerebral blood flow to the brain
CPP = mean arterial pressure - ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What causes raised intracranial pressure?

A

idiopathic intracranial hypertension
traumatic head injuries
infection e.g. meningitis
tumours
hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What features may raised ICP present with?

A

headache
vomiting
reduced levels of consciousness
papilloedema
Cushing’s triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is Cushing’s triad of raised ICP?

A

widening pulse pressure
bradycardia
irregular breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

How can raised ICP be investigated?

A

neuroimaging : CT/MRI

invasive ICP monitoring:
catheter placed into the lateral ventricles of the brain to monitor the pressure
may also be used to take collect CSF samples / drain CSF
a cut-off of > 20 mmHg is often used to determine if further treatment is needed to reduce the ICP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the initial management of raised ICP?

A

investigate and treat the underlying cause
head elevation to 30º
IV mannitol may be used as an osmotic diuretic
controlled hyperventilation
removal of CSF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the purpose of controlled hyperventilation in the mx of raised ICP?

A

aim is to reduce pCO2 → vasoconstriction of the cerebral arteries → reduced ICP

leads to rapid, temporary lowering of ICP

caution needed as may reduce blood flow to already ischaemic parts of the brain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the methods for removing excess CSF?

A

drain from intraventricular monitor
repeated lumbar puncture (e.g. idiopathic intracranial hypertension)
ventriculoperitoneal shunt (for hydrocephalus)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the 4 different types of intracranial haemorrhage?

A

Extradural haemorrhage (bleeding between the skull and dura mater)

Subdural haemorrhage (bleeding between the dura mater and arachnoid mater)

Subarachnoid haemorrhage (bleeding in the subarachnoid space)

Intracerebral haemorrhage (bleeding into brain tissue)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is a subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

bleeding in the subarachnoid space, where the cerebrospinal fluid is located, between the pia mater and the arachnoid membrane

very high mortality (around 30%) and morbidity

may be traumatic or spontaneous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the causes of spontaneous subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

intracranial aneurysm (saccular ‘berry’ aneurysms): 85% of cases
associated with hypertension, adult PCKD, Ehlers-Danlos and coarctation of the aorta

arteriovenous malformation

pituitary apoplexy

mycotic (infective) aneurysms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

In which patient group are subarachnoid haemorrhages more common?

A

Aged 45 to 70
Women
Black ethnic origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Give some risk factors for subarachnoid haemorrhage

A

Family Hx
Hypertension
Smoking and alcohol
Cocaine use
Sickle cell anaemia
Connective tissue disorders (e.g., Marfan syndrome or Ehlers-Danlos syndrome)
Neurofibromatosis
Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

How does subarachnoid haemorrhage typically present?

A

sudden onset occipital ‘ thunderclap’ headache

often comes on during strenuous activity, such as heavy lifting or sex

nausea and vomiting
meningism (photophobia, neck stiffness)
seizures
coma

ECG changes including ST elevation may be seen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How should a suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage be investigated?

A

non-contrast CT head is the first-line investigation of choice : blood appears hyperdense/bright on CT

if CT head is done within 6 hours of symptom onset and is normal: do NOT do lumbar puncture
consider an alternative diagnosis

if CT head is done more than 6 hours after symptom onset and is normal: do a lumber puncture (LP) to confirm / exclude diagnosis

SAH seen on CT / confirmed on LP:
CT angiography is used after confirming the diagnosis to locate the source of the bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What findings would you expect on an LP for a patient with SAH?

A

Raised red cell count (a decreasing red cell count on successive bottles may be due to a traumatic procedure)

Xanthochromia (a yellow colour to the CSF caused by bilirubin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How can you manage subarachnoid haemorrhage?

A

bed rest, analgesia

oral nimodipine to prevent vasopasm

discontinuation of antithrombotics (reversal of anticoagulation if present)

intracranial aneurysms require prompt intervention (within 24 hours):
most treated with a coil by interventional neuroradiologists, but a minority require a craniotomy and clipping by a neurosurgeon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the complications of aneurysmal SAH?

A

re-bleeding

hydrocephalus

hyponatraemia

ventriculoperitoneal shunt

vasospasm (also termed delayed cerebral ischaemia)

seizures

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the risk of rebleeding after aneurysmal SAH?
How should it be managed?

A

happens in 10% of cases
most common in the first 12 hours

if rebleeding is suspected then a repeat CT should be arranged
associated with a high mortality (up to 70%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Hydrocephalus refers to increased cerebrospinal fluid, causing expansion of the ventricles.

Treatment options include:

A

Lumbar puncture

External ventricular drain (a drain inserted into the brain ventricles to drain CSF)

Ventriculoperitoneal (VP) shunt (a catheter connecting the ventricles with the peritoneal cavity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

When does vasopasm most commonly present post SAH?

How should it be managed?

A

also termed delayed cerebral ischaemia, typically 7-14 days after onset

ensure euvolaemia (normal blood volume)
consider treatment with a vasopressor if symptoms persist (e.g. vasopressin, adrenaline, noradrenaline)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Which are the most important prognostic factors in SAH?

A

conscious level on admission
age
amount of blood visible on CT head

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Meningitis is defined as inflammation of the meninges (lining of the brain and spinal cord).

What are the common causative organisms?
How does it present?

A

Neisseria meningitidis and Streptococcus pneumoniae
GBS in neonates

Presentation:
fever, neck stiffness, vomiting, headache, photophobia, altered consciousness and seizures

meningococcal septicaemia = non-blanching rash

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How may meningitis present differently in neonates?

A

Neonates and babies can present with very non-specific signs and symptoms

poor feeding, lethargy, hypotonia, hypothermia and a bulging fontanelle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the common causes of meningitis in the 0-3 month age group?

A

Group B Streptococcus (most common cause in neonates)
E. coli
Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the common causes of meningitis in the 3 month - 6 year age group?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Haemophilus influenzae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the common causes of meningitis in the 6 - 60 year age group?

A

Neisseria meningitidis
Streptococcus pneumoniae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

> 60 age group are more at risk of meningitis caused by which organism?

A

Listeria monocytogenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the 2 special tests that you can use to assess for meningeal irritation?

A

Both tests create a slight stretch in the meninges

Kernig’s test:
lying the patient on their back, flexing one hip to 90 degrees and then slowly straightening the knee whilst keeping the hip flexed at 90 degrees.

+ve = spinal pain or resistance to movement

Brudzinski’s test :
lying the patient flat on their back and gently using your hands to lift their head and neck off the bed and flex their chin to their chest

+ve = patient involuntarily flexes their hips and knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

How do bacterial v viral meningitis present on an LP?

(consider appearance, protein, glucose, WCC and culture)

A

Appearance
Cloudy V Clear

Protein
High V Normal

Glucose
Low V Normal

White Cell Count
Neutrophils V Lymphocytes

Culture
Bacteria Present V Negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is the pre-hospital mx of suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

IM benzylpenicillin urgently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

How can meningitis be investigated?

A

Bloods:
FBC, CRP, U&Es
glucose
lactate
clotting profile

Additional tests that may be helpful include:
blood gases
throat swab for meningococcal culture
Consider LP + CSF analysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

When should a LP not be performed for suspected bacterial meningitis?

A

signs of severe sepsis or a rapidly evolving rash
severe respiratory/cardiac compromise
significant bleeding risk
signs of raised intracranial pressure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

How should patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and no contraindications to LP be managed?

A

IV access → take bloods and blood cultures
Lumbar puncture to confirm dx

IV antibiotics
3 months - 50 years: ceftriaxone (or cefotaxime)
> 50 years: ceftriaxone + amoxicillin

IV dexamethasone
avoid dexamethasone in septic shock, meningococcal septicaemia, or if immunocompromised

CT scan is not normally indicated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

When an LP is taken for suspected bacterial meningitis, what should the CSF be tested for?

A

glucose, protein, microscopy and culture
lactate
meningococcal and pneumococcal PCR
enteroviral, herpes simplex and varicella-zoster PCR
consider investigations for TB meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

How should patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and signs of raised ICP be managed?

A

get critical care input
secure airway + high-flow oxygen
IV access → take bloods and blood cultures
IV dexamethasone alongside abx (cefotaxime +/- amoxicillin)
Arrange neuroimaging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

How should patients with suspected bacterial meningitis and sepsis / rapidly evolving rash be managed?

A

get critical care input
secure airway + high-flow oxygen
IV access → take bloods and blood cultures
IV fluid resuscitation
IV antibiotics (cefotaxime +/- amoxicillin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What should be offered to household members and close contacts of an individual with confirmed bacterial meningitis?

A

oral ciprofloxacin or rifampicin prophylaxis if they have have contact with the individual in the 7 days before sx onset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Viral meningitis is more benign condition than bacterial meningitis and is much more common.

What can cause it?

A

non-polio enteroviruses e.g. coxsackie virus, echovirus
mumps, measles
herpes simplex virus (HSV), cytomegalovirus (CMV), herpes zoster viruses
HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What are the risk factors for developing viral meningitis?

A

patients at the extremes of age (< 5 years and the elderly)
immunocompromised, e.g. patients with renal failure, with diabetes
intravenous drug users

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

How can viral meningitis be managed?

A

If there is any question of bacterial meningitis while waiting for LP results the patient should be commenced on broad-spectrum abx with CNS penetration e.g. ceftriaxone and aciclovir IV

viral meningitis is generally self-limiting, with symptoms improving over the course of 7 - 14 days and complications are rare in immunocompetent patients

aciclovir may be used if the patient is suspected of having meningitis secondary to HSV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What complications may arise as a result of meningitis?

A

sensorineural hearing loss (most common)

seizures

focal neurological deficit

infective: sepsis, intracerebral abscess

pressure: brain herniation, hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Patients with meningococcal meningitis are at risk of developing what condition?

A

Waterhouse-Friderichsen syndrome (adrenal insufficiency secondary to adrenal haemorrhage)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Encephalitis is inflammation of the brain tissue itself, that is primarily caused by HSV-1 in adults.

What features does it present with?

A

fever, headache, psychiatric symptoms, seizures, vomiting
focal features e.g. aphasia
peripheral lesions (e.g. cold sores) have no relation to the presence of HSV encephalitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How can suspected encephalitis be investigated?

A

PCR for HSV, VZV and enteroviruses

CSF: high WCC and protein

MRI
medial temporal and inferior frontal changes (e.g. petechial haemorrhages)

EEG
lateralised periodic discharges at 2 Hz

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

How can encephalitis be managed?

A

IV aciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A stroke represents a sudden interruption in the vascular supply of the brain.

What are the different types of stroke?

A

ISCHAEMIC: 85%
Thrombotic stroke - from large vessels e.g. carotid
Embolic stroke - AF is an important risk factor

HAEMORRHAGIC: 15%
Intracerebral haemorrhage
Subarachnoid haemorrhage

49
Q

Give some risk factors for developing an ischaemic stroke

A

General risk factors for cardiovascular disease:
age
smoking
hypertension
hyperlipidaemia
diabetes mellitus

Risk factors for cardioembolism:
atrial fibrillation

50
Q

Give some risk factors for developing a haemorrhagic stroke

A

age
hypertension
arteriovenous malformation
anticoagulation therapy

51
Q

What features may someone present with when they are having a stroke?

A

motor weakness
dysphasia, dysphagia
visual field defects (homonymous hemianopia)
balance problems

52
Q

How may cerebral hemisphere infarcts present?

A

contralateral hemiplegia: initially flaccid then spastic
contralateral sensory loss
homonymous hemianopia
dysphasia

53
Q

What system can be used to classify strokes based on their presenting symptoms?

A

The Oxford Stroke Classification (also known as the Bamford Classification)

54
Q

Which part of the circulation is involved in a Total anterior circulation stroke (TACS)?

A

involves middle and anterior cerebral arteries

55
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for a Total anterior circulation stroke (TACS) according to the Oxford Stroke Classification System?

A

All 3 of:
1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
2. homonymous hemianopia
3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

56
Q

Which part of the circulation is involved in a Partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS)?

A

involves smaller arteries of anterior circulation e.g. upper or lower division of middle cerebral artery

57
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for a Partial anterior circulation stroke (PACS) according to the Oxford Stroke Classification System?

A

2 of 3 are present:
1. unilateral hemiparesis and/or hemisensory loss of the face, arm & leg
2. homonymous hemianopia
3. higher cognitive dysfunction e.g. dysphasia

58
Q

What part of the circulation is involved in a Lacunar Infarct?

A

involves perforating arteries around the internal capsule, thalamus and basal ganglia

59
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for a Lacunar infarct (LACS) according to the Oxford Stroke Classification System?

A

presents with 1 of the following:
1. pure motor stroke
2. pure sensory stroke
3. ataxic hemiparesis

60
Q

What part of the circulation is involved in a Posterior Circulation Stroke?

A

vertebrobasilar arteries

61
Q

What are the diagnostic criteria for a Posterior Circulation Stroke (POCS) according to the Oxford Stroke Classification System?

A

presents with 1 of the following:
1. cerebellar or brainstem syndromes (e.g. vertigo, nystagmus, ataxia)
2. loss of consciousness
3. isolated homonymous hemianopia

62
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:
Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, lower extremity > upper

A

Anterior cerebral artery

63
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Contralateral hemiparesis and sensory loss, upper extremity > lower
Contralateral homonymous hemianopia
Aphasia

A

Middle cerebral artery

(MCA supplies Wernicke’s and Broca’s areas)

64
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Contralateral homonymous hemianopia with macular sparing
Visual agnosia

A

Posterior cerebral artery

(PCA supplies area that contains visual cortex in the occipital lobe)

65
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Ipsilateral CN III palsy
Contralateral weakness of upper and lower extremity

A

branches of the posterior cerebral artery that supply the midbrain - Weber’s syndrome

66
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Ipsilateral: facial pain and temp loss
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temp loss
Ataxia, nystagmus, double vision
Horner’s syndrome

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral medullary syndrome, Wallenberg syndrome)

67
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Ipsilateral: facial paralysis and deafness
Contralateral: limb/torso pain and temperature loss

A

Anterior inferior cerebellar artery (lateral pontine syndrome)

68
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

Amaurosis fugax

A

Retinal/ophthalmic artery

69
Q

What is the likely site of the lesion for a stroke patient presenting with:

‘Locked-in’ syndrome

A

Basilar artery

70
Q

How do lacunar strokes present?

A

present with either isolated hemiparesis, hemisensory loss or hemiparesis with limb ataxia

strong association with hypertension

common sites include the basal ganglia, thalamus and internal capsule

71
Q

Whilst symptoms alone cannot be used to differentiate haemorrhagic from ischaemic strokes, patients who’ve suffered haemorrhages are more likely to have:

A

decrease in the level of consciousness: seen in up to 50% of patients with haemorrhagic stroke

headache is also much more common

nausea and vomiting

seizures occur in up to 25% of patients

72
Q

What scoring tools can be used to identify strokes quickly in the community and in ED?

A

FAST tool:
F – Face
A – Arm
S – Speech
T – Time (act fast and call 999)

ROSIER Tool:

The ROSIER tool (Recognition Of Stroke In the Emergency Room) gives a score based on the clinical features and duration

stroke is possible in patients scoring one or more

73
Q

How should suspected strokes be investigated?

A

Urgent non-contrast CT head scan to exclude haemorrhage

acute ischaemic strokes:
‘hyperdense artery’ sign corresponding with the responsible arterial clot - this tends to visible immediately
may show areas of low density in the affected territory once ischaemia has set in

acute haemorrhagic strokes:
typically show areas of hyperdense material (blood) surrounded by low density (oedema)

74
Q

How should a confirmed ischaemic stroke be managed?

A

aspirin 300mg orally or rectally should be given as soon as possible (continued daily for 2 weeks)

Thrombolysis with alteplase should be given if:
* it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms
* haemorrhage has been definitively excluded (i.e. Imaging has been performed)

75
Q

What is recommend for patients with an acute ischaemic stroke who present within 4.5 hours?

A

A combination of thrombolysis AND thrombectomy

76
Q

What are the absolute contraindications to delivering thrombolysis?

A

Previous intracranial haemorrhage
Uncontrolled hypertension >200/120mmHg
Seizure at onset of stroke
Intracranial neoplasm
Suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage
Stroke or traumatic brain injury in preceding 3 months
Lumbar puncture in preceding 7 days
Active bleeding
Oesophageal varices
Pregnancy

77
Q

How may you investigate for an underlying cause of stroke?

A

Patients with a TIA or stroke are investigated for carotid artery stenosis and atrial fibrillation with:

Carotid imaging (e.g., carotid ultrasound, or CT or MRI angiogram)
ECG or ambulatory ECG monitoring

78
Q

What secondary prevention should be offered to patients who have had a stroke?

A

Clopidogrel 75mg once daily (alternatively aspirin plus dipyridamole)
Atorvastatin 20-80mg (not started immediately – usually delayed at least 48 hours)
Blood pressure and diabetes control
Addressing modifiable risk factors (e.g., smoking, obesity and exercise)

79
Q

How can you measure someone’s functional status post-stroke?

A

Barthel index (BI): an outcome measure for stroke

Describes 10 tasks, and is scored according to amount of time or assistance required by the patient for each given task

Tasks: feeding, moving from wheelchair to bed, personal toileting, getting on/off toilet, bathing, walking on level surface, ascending/descending stairs, dressing, controlling bowels and controlling bladder

The total score is from 0 to 100, with 0 being completely dependent, and 100 being completely independent

80
Q

Cauda equina syndrome (CES) is a serious condition in which the lumbosacral nerve roots that extend below the spinal cord are compressed.

What may cause it?

A

the most common cause is a central disc prolapse
this typically occurs at L4/5 or L5/S1

other causes include:
tumours: primary or metastatic
infection: abscess, discitis
trauma
haematoma

81
Q

What features may CES present with?

A

low back pain

bilateral sciatica: around 50% of cases

reduced sensation/pins-and-needles in the perianal area

decreased anal tone

urinary dysfunction
incontinence is a late sign that may indicate irreversible damage

82
Q

How should CES be investigated and managed?

A

urgent MRI whole spine
surgical decompression

83
Q

How may a primary brain injury be classified?

A

focal (contusion/ haematoma) or diffuse (diffuse axonal injury)

Diffuse axonal injury occurs as a result of mechanical shearing following deceleration, causing disruption and tearing of axons

84
Q

How may cerebral contusions be classified?

A

adjacent to (coup) or contralateral (contre-coup) to the side of impact

85
Q

What is secondary brain injury?

A

When cerebral oedema, ischaemia, infection, or herniation exacerbates the original injury

The normal cerebral auto regulatory processes are disrupted following trauma, making the brain more susceptible to blood flow changes and hypoxia

86
Q

What is shown here?

A

Extradural haematoma

Bleeding into the space between the dura mater and the skull

Most occur in the temporal region where skull fractures cause a rupture of the middle meningeal artery

87
Q

What is shown here?
What are the risk factors?

A

Subdural haematoma
Bleeding between the dura mater and the arachnoid mater

Risk factors include old age, alcoholism and anticoagulation

Slower onset of symptoms than a epidural haematoma, +/- fluctuating consciousness

88
Q

What is shown here?

A

Subarachnoid haemorrhage

89
Q

Which patients with head injuries require a CT head within 1 hour?

A

GCS < 13 on initial assessment
GCS < 15 at 2 hours post-injury
suspected open or depressed skull fracture
any sign of basal skull fracture
post-traumatic seizure
focal neurological deficit
more than 1 episode of vomiting

90
Q

Give some signs of basal skull fracture

A

haemotympanum, ‘panda’ eyes, cerebrospinal fluid leakage from the ear or nose, Battle’s sign

91
Q

If a patient is on warfarin who have sustained a head injury with no other indications for a CT head scan, what should you do?

A

perform a CT head scan within 8 hours of the injury

92
Q

How should traumatic head injuries be managed?

A

Life threatening rising ICP : consider IV mannitol/ furosemide while theatre is being prepped

Diffuse cerebral oedema may require decompressive craniotomy

Depressed skull fractures:
open = formal surgical reduction and debridement
closed injuries may be managed nonoperatively

93
Q

Which patients should receive ICP monitoring following head injury?

A

ICP monitoring is appropriate in those who have GCS 3-8 and normal CT scan.
ICP monitoring is mandatory in those who have GCS 3-8 and abnormal CT scan.

94
Q

What is the most likely cause of hyponatraemia in a patient with a traumatic head injury?

A

SIADH

95
Q

What is the minimum cerebral perfusion pressure in children and adults?

A

Minimum of cerebral perfusion pressure of 70mmHg in adults and between 40 and 70 mmHg in children.

96
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupil that is sluggish to respond to light (or fixed) =

A

3rd nerve compression secondary to tentorial herniation

97
Q

Bilaterally dilated pupils that are sluggish to respond to light (or fixed) =

A

Poor CNS perfusion
Bilateral 3rd nerve palsy

98
Q

Unilaterally dilated pupil that is cross reactive (Marcus - Gunn) in response to light =

A

Optic nerve injury

99
Q

Bilaterally constricted pupils =

A

Opiates
Pontine lesions
Metabolic encephalopathy

100
Q

Unilaterally constricted pupil with preserved light reflex =

A

Sympathetic pathway disruption (e.g. Horner’s)

101
Q

What is temporal arteritis? (also known as giant cell arteritis)

A

a vasculitis of unknown cause that affects medium and large-sized vessels

peak incidence is in 70yr olds

requires early recognition as may be sight threatneing

102
Q

Which patient group is at risk of developing temporal arteritis?

A

patients with Polymyalgia Rheumatica

around 50% of TA patients have features of PMR such as aching and morning stiffness in proximal limb muscles

103
Q

What features does temporal arteritis typically present with?

A

typically patient > 60 years old
usually rapid onset (e.g. < 1 month)
headache
jaw claudication
tender, palpable temporal artery
also lethargy, depression, low-grade fever, anorexia, night sweats

104
Q

How should temporal arteritis be investigated?

A

vision testing is a key investigation in all patients

inflammatory markers : raised ESR (> 50 mm/hr) and raised CRP

temporal artery biopsy: skip lesions may be present

105
Q

What are the potential ocular complications of temporal arteritis?

A

anterior ischemic optic neuropathy is most common: occlusion of the posterior ciliary artery (branch of the ophthalmic artery) → ischaemia of the optic nerve head
swollen pale disc and blurred margins on fundoscopy

diplopia
temporary visual loss - amaurosis fugax
permanent visual loss may develop suddenly

106
Q

How should temporal arteritis be managed?

A

urgent high-dose glucocorticoids should be given as soon as the diagnosis is suspected and before the temporal artery biopsy

no visual loss = high-dose prednisolone
evolving visual loss = IV methylprednisolone prior to starting high-dose prednisolone

there should be a dramatic response, if not the diagnosis should be reconsidered

urgent ophthalmology review
patients with visual symptoms should be seen the same-day by an ophthalmologist

107
Q

What is bulbar palsy ?

A

signs and symptoms linked to the impaired function of the lower cranial nerves arising from the brainstem

Glossopharyngeal (9), vagus (10), accessory (11) and hypoglossal (12) are affected

due to the lower part of cranial nerves or their lower motor neurones being damaged

108
Q

What symptoms might someone present with if they have a bulbar palsy?

A

dysphagia (glossopharyngeal nerve damage)
difficulty chewing
lack of gag reflex
nasal regurgitation
difficulty in handling secretions / aspiration of secretions
slurred speech, dysphonia and dysarthria

109
Q

What may cause someone to develop a bulbar palsy?

A

Brainstem stroke
Brainstem tumour
Degenerative diseases e.g. ALS
Autoimmune diseases e.g. Guillain Barre
Genetic Conditions

110
Q

How can bulbar palsies be investigated and managed?

A

consider CSF testing to rule out multiple sclerosis (may present similarly)
MRI to investigate for brainstem strokes and tumours

treat the underlying cause

manage sxs - NG tube for feeding, SALT team input, medications to reduce drooling

111
Q

Name 4 conditions that are stroke mimics. How are they differentiated from an acute stroke?

A

HEMI:

  • Hypoglycaemia
  • Epilepsy
  • Migraine (hemiplegic)
  • Intracranial tumours/infections

The Recognition of Stroke in the Emergency Room (ROSIER) scale

112
Q

Define TIA

A

TIA: a transient episode of neurologic dysfunction caused by focal brain, spinal cord, or retinal ischaemia, without acute infarction.

113
Q

How are TIAs managed acutely?

A

Immediate antithrombotic therapy:

give aspirin 300 mg immediately, unless contraindicated e.g. the patient has a bleeding disorder or is taking an anticoagulant (needs immediate admission for imaging- CT head- to exclude a haemorrhage)

114
Q

If the patient has had more than 1 TIA (‘crescendo TIA’) or has a suspected cardioembolic source or severe carotid stenosis:

A

discuss urgently with a stroke specialist

115
Q

If the patient has had a suspected TIA in the last 7 days:

A

arrange assessment within 24 hours by a stroke specialist

116
Q

If the patient has had a suspected TIA which occurred more than a week previously:

A

refer for specialist assessment as soon as possible within 7 days

117
Q

In cases of stroke, thrombolysis with alteplase should only be given if:

A

it is administered within 4.5 hours of onset of stroke symptoms (unless as part of a clinical trial)
haemorrhage has been definitively excluded (i.e. Imaging has been performed)

118
Q

How is GCS scored?

A

In GCS, take the best response from each side!

MoVE 654

Motor:
6. Obeys commands
5. Localises to pain
4. Withdraws from pain
3. Abnormal flexion to pain (decorticate posture)
2. Extending to pain
1. None

Verbal:
5. Orientated
4. Confused
3. Words
2. Sounds
1. None

Eye opening:
4. Spontaneous
3. To speech
2. To pain
1. None