Emergency Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

Define anaphylaxis

A

Airway, breathing and circulation problems with associated skin changes

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2
Q

Give 3 signs of anaphylaxis

A
Anxiety 
Lightheadedness
LOC
Confusion
Headache
Hypotension 
Tachycardia
Skin flushing 
Hives
Itching 
Runny nose
Angioedema
Cough 
Hoarseness
Odynophagia 
SOB
Wheeze 
Vomiting
Diarrhoea
Cramping
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3
Q

How is anaphylaxis managed?

A
A-E assessment 
Call for help 
Lie patient flat and raise legs 
Give adrenaline (0.5ml of 1:1000 IM)
Establish airway
Give high flow oxygen, IV fluid challenge, chlorphenamine (10mg IM/IV), hydrocortisone (200mg IM/IV)
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4
Q

How are acute asthma attacks classified by severity? Give a feature of each

A

Moderate - PEFR 50-75% best/predicted
Severe - PEFR 33-50%, cannot complete sentences
Life threatening - PEFR <33%, SpO2 <92%, silent chest, normal PCO2
Near fatal - raised PCO2, mechanical ventilation

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5
Q

Give 2 indications for NIV

A

COPD - pH <7.35, pCO2 >6.5, RR >23, persistent
Neuromuscular disease
Obesity

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6
Q

Give an absolute and relative contraindication to NIV

A

Absolute - severe facial deformity, facial burns, fixed upper airway obstruction
Relative - pH <7.15, GCS <8, confusion/agitation, cognitive impairment

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7
Q

Define trauma

A

Bodily harm resulting from exposure to an external force or substance (mechanical, thermal, electrical, chemical or radiant) or a submersion
This bodily harm can be unintentional or violence-related

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8
Q

How can trauma be classified by mechanism?

A
Blunt 
Penetrating 
Acceleration/deceleration
Burn
Crush
Fall
Immersion/submersion
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9
Q

What approach should be used for a trauma patient?

A
Catastrophic haemorrhage 
Airway 
C-spine
Breathing 
Circulation 
Disability 
Everything else
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10
Q

How can the risk of c-spine injury be assessed to determine whether a patient requires imaging?

A

C-spine XR needed if any of the following are present:
High risk factors - age >=65, dangerous mechanism, paraesthesia
Other factors - not ambulatory/sitting in ED, immediate neck pain, midline tenderness, unable to rotate neck

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11
Q

What options are available for c-spine immobilisation?

A

Collar

Blocks and tape

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12
Q

How are c-spine x-rays interpreted?

A

Lateral view - adequacy, alignment, bones, cartilage and corticated ring, prevertebral soft tissues (AABCCP)
AP - adequacy, alignment, bone, spaced spinous processes, soft tissue (AABSS)

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13
Q

How is the adequacy of a c-spine XR determined?

A

Check if C1-T1 can be seen (8 vertebrae)

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14
Q

What lines are used to check alignment on a c-spine XR?

A

Anterior vertebral line
Posterior vertebral line
Spinolaminar line
Posterior spinous line

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15
Q

What does a crack in the corticated ring mean?

A

Hangman fracture

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16
Q

How are prevertebral soft tissues assessed on c-spine XR?

A

Above C4 they can be 1/3rd of the width of a vertebral body

Below C4 they can be the whole width

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17
Q

What are the 3 views taken on c-spine XR?

A

Lateral
AP
Open mouth

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18
Q

Give 3 signs of a base of skull fracture

A

Battle’s sign
Raccoon eyes
CSF/blood leakage from ear/nose (haemotympanum, rhinorrhoea, otorrhoea)

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19
Q

Loss of function of what tracts are responsible for decorticate and decerebrate posturing?

A

DeCortiCate - Corticospinal

DeceRebRate - Rubrospinal

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20
Q

What are the indications for CT in head injury?

A

High risk - GCS <15 at 2 hours after injury, suspected open/depressed skull fracture, vomiting >=2 times, age >=65
Medium risk - amnesia >=30 mins before impact, dangerous mechanism

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21
Q

What causes a ‘blown pupil’?

A

Herniation of uncus through tentorium

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22
Q

What are the 4 types of rewarming in trauma?

A

Passive (blankets)
Active external (bair hugger)
Active internal (warm fluids, cavity lavage)
Extracorporeal

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23
Q

How should a secondary survey be structured in trauma?

A

Head to toe examination
Complete neurological examination
AMPLE history - allergies, medications, PMH, last eaten/drank, events related to injury

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24
Q

How should wounds be assessed?

A

A-E assessment

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25
Q

What information should be obtained in the history for a wound?

A

Mechanism of injury
Time of injury
PMH
Occupation and hand dominance

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26
Q

Give 2 things to consider on assessing a wound

A
Damage to regional structures 
Need for XR
Need for anaesthetic for proper examination 
Control of bleeding 
Need for washout/debridement
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27
Q

Name 3 types of wounds

A
Incisional 
Laceration 
Abrasion
Puncture 
Penetration
Contusion
Haematoma
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28
Q

What options are available for wound closure?

A
None
Glue
Steristrips
Sutures
Staples
Skin graft
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29
Q

What type of wounds are fit for primary closure?

A

Clean
Minimal contamination
Recent
Well opposed

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30
Q

What type of wounds are fit for secondary closure?

A
Puncture 
Abrasion
Late presentation 
Bites 
Abscesses
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31
Q

What type of wounds should never be closed?

A

Bites

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32
Q

What should be considered for bite wounds?

A
Do not close 
Always XR
Antibiotics 
Tetanus status
BBV 
Follow-up
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33
Q

What is the maximum dose of lignocaine? What can be used to increase this?

A

3mg/kg

+ adrenaline = 7mg/kg

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34
Q

Name 3 types of suture and their use

A

Simple interrupted - shallow, no tension
Continuous - scalp, long
Locking continuous - moderate tension, haemostasis
Subcuticular - cosmetic
Vertical mattress - eversion, reduce dead space, decrease tension
Horizontal mattress - fragile skin, high tension
Percutaneous/deep - reduce dead space, decrease tension

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35
Q

What information should be given to the patient with a wound you have managed before they leave?

A
Dressing information 
Keep it dry and clean 
Warn about infection and signs to look out for 
Timeline for suture removal (7-10 days)
Healing/scarring
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36
Q

What is the difference between a burn and a scald?

A

Burn - dry thermal damage to the skin and underlying tissues (e.g. flame, electrical)
Scald - wet thermal damage to the skin and underlying tissues (e.g. boiling water)

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37
Q

How is the degree of a burn classified?

A

Superficial - erythema, mild pain, 7-14 days to heal
Superficial partial - wet pink blisters, moderate pain, 2-4 weeks to heal
Deep partial - drier red may have blisters, sluggish/absent CRT, pain may not be present, 3-8 weeks to heal with severe scarring, needs grafting
Full thickness - dry white, absent CRT and pain, needs grafting

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38
Q

How is the area of a burn calculated?

A

Lund and Browder method

Rule of 9s

39
Q

How is fluid replacement for a burn calculated?

A

Parkland formula
Volume of Ringer’s lactate = 4ml x BSA x weight (kg)
Give half of this in the first 8 hours and the rest over the next 16 hours

40
Q

How should the fingers be assessed for tendon injury?

A

FDP - keep PIP of the finger being tested extended and ask the patient to flex DIP
FDS - keep all fingers extended except one being tested, ask patient to flex PIP

41
Q

What signs are indicative of flexor tenosynovitis?

A

Kanavel’s signs - tenderness over flexor tendon, symmetrical swelling of the finger (sausage), finger held in flexion, extreme pain on passive extension

42
Q

How should a toxicology presentation be assessed?

A
A-E assessment 
Call for help 
Local guidelines/algorithms
Interventions and re-assessment 
Documentation
Check TOXBASE
43
Q

Define a toxidrome

A

Classic constellation of signs and symptoms caused by a dangerous level of toxins in the body, often the consequence of an overdose, which can be used to help identify the culprit drug

44
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of an anticholinergic overdose

A
Confusion
Agitation
Hallucination 
Hyperthermia 
Dry mouth 
Urinary retention
Reduced bowel sounds 
Mydriasis
Flushed skin 
Tachycardia 
Hypertension 
Tachypnoea 
Shaking
Myoclonus
45
Q

How is an anticholinergic overdose managed?

A

Supportive measures
Benzodiazepines for agitation
Sodium bicarbonate for QRS prolongation

46
Q

Name an anticholinergic drug which could potentially be the cause of an overdose

A

Antihistamines
Tricyclic antidepressants
Antipsychotics

47
Q

Name a sympathomimetic drug which could potentially be the cause of an overdose

A

Cocaine
Amphetamine
Methamphetamine

48
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of sympathomimetic overdose

A
Mydriasis
Hyperthermia
Lacrimation
Urination 
Diaphoresis
Hypertension 
Tachycardia
Tachypnoea
Increased bowel sounds 
Agitation 
Diarrhoea
Hallucinations
Paranoia
49
Q

How is sympathomimetic overdose managed?

A

Benzodiazepines
Aspirin and GTN for chest pain
Cooling +/- dantrolene

50
Q

Name a opioid drug which could potentially be the cause of an overdose

A

Heroin
Morphine
Methadone

51
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of opioid overdose

A
Coma 
CNS depression 
Pinpoint pupils
Respiratory depression
Needle marks 
Hypothermia 
Bradycardia
Hypotension
52
Q

How is opioid overdose managed?

A

Naloxone

53
Q

Name a benzodiazepine drug which could potentially be the cause of an overdose

A

Diazepam

Street valium

54
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of benzodiazepine overdose

A
Coma 
CNS depression 
Respiratory depression 
Hypotension
Bradycardia
Rhabdomyolysis
Hypothermia
55
Q

How is a benzodiazepine overdose managed?

A

Supportive measures

Flumazenil (try to avoid)

56
Q

What information is important to ascertain in paracetamol overdose?

A

Timescale - within 1 hour, 1-8 hours, 9-24 hours, >24 hours

Type - staggered, therapeutic, all at once

57
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of paracetamol overdose

A
Nausea and vomiting 
Lethargy 
RUQ pain
Hepatomegaly 
RUQ tenderness
Abnormal LFTs
Confusion
Jaundice 
Encephalopathy 
Hypoglycaemia
Lactic acidosis
Coagulopathy 
AKI
58
Q

What dose limits can guide likelihood of toxicity?

A

<75mg/kg over 24 hours - unlikely
75-150mg/kg over 24 hours - uncommon but possible
>150mg/kg over 24 hours - risk of serious toxicity

59
Q

How is paracetamol overdose managed?

A

N-acetylcysteine (most effective within 8 hours of ingestion)
SNAP protocol
Need to plot dose

60
Q

What are the indications for N-acetylcysteine in paracetamol overdose?

A

Above nonogram line
Dose >150mg/kg
Biochemical evidence of liver injury
Clinical evidence of liver failure

61
Q

What serious adverse effect can N-acetylcysteine have?

A

Anaphylaxis

62
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of salicylate overdose

A
Nausea 
Vomiting 
Tinnitus 
Deafness
Lethargy 
Dizziness
Sweating 
Pyrexia
Respiratory alkalosis
Seizures 
Coma
63
Q

How is salicylate overdose managed?

A

Urinary alkalinisation with IV sodium bicarbonate

Haemodialysis

64
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of beta-blocker overdose

A
Bradycardia 
Hypotension
AV block 
Syncope
HF
Bronchospasm
Hypoglycaemia 
Hyperkalaemia
Coma
Seizure
65
Q

How is beta-blocker overdose managed?

A
Bradycardia - atropine 
Resistant - glucagon, high dose insulin 
Propranolol - IV sodium bicarbonate if wide QRS
Sotalol - monitor for Torsades
Consider pacing
66
Q

What one thing do you want to know about a beta-blocker or calcium channel blocker overdose?

A

Immediate or modified release

67
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of calcium channel blocker overdose

A
Bradycardia 
First degree heart block 
Hypotension 
Refractory shock 
MI 
Mesenteric ischaemia 
Hyperglycaemia 
Hyperkalaemia
Acidosis
Vomiting 
Seizures
Pulmonary oedema
Renal failure
68
Q

How is calcium channel blocker overdose managed?

A

IV fluids
Atropine
10% calcium gluconate
High dose insulin

69
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of tricyclic antidepressant overdose

A
Drowsiness
Tachycardia
Hypotension
Dry mouth 
Blurred vision 
Constipation 
Urinary retention 
Seizure 
Prolonged GT
Broad complex arrhythmia 
Coma 
Anticholinergic syndrome
70
Q

How is tricyclic antidepressant overdose managed?

A

IV bicarbonate

Intubate ASAP

71
Q

What are the antidotes for digoxin, iron, methotrexate and sulphonylureas?

A

Digibind
Desferrioxamine
Folic acid
Octreotide/glucose

72
Q

What are the antidotes for antipsychotics, lithium, warfarin and heparin?

A

Procyclidine
IV fluids/haemodialysis
Vitamin K/prothrombin complex
Protamine sulphate

73
Q

What are the 2 main toxicology emergencies?

A

Serotonin syndrome

Neuroleptic malignant syndrome

74
Q

Name 2 drugs which can cause serotonin syndrome

A
SSRIs
TCAs
MAOIs
Cocaine
MDMA
75
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of serotonin syndrome

A
Altered mental status
Autonomic hyperactivity 
Neuromuscular abnormality 
Spontaneous clonus 
Tremor 
Hyperreflexia 
Ocular clonus and agitation, sweating or hypertonia with fever
76
Q

How is serotonin syndrome managed?

A
Consult TOXBASE 
Stop all serotonergic agents 
ECG
Bloods including CK
Agitation - diazepam/midazolam
Hyperthermia - fans/ice packs 
Severe - cyproheptadine/chlorpromazine
77
Q

What are the 2 main causes of neuroleptic malignant syndrome?

A

Recently started antipsychotics

Stopping Parkinson’s drugs abruptly

78
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of neuroleptic malignant syndrome

A
Pyrexia
Diaphoresis
Tachycardia
Hypertension
Muscle rigidity 
Agitated delirium with confusion
Reduced reflexes 
Lead pipe rigidity 
Normal pupils
Reduced GCS
79
Q

How is neuroleptic malignant syndrome managed?

A

Stop antipsychotics
IV fluids
Dantrolene
Bromocriptine

80
Q

Give 3 signs/symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning

A
Pounding headache 
Nausea and vomiting 
Vertigo 
Ataxia 
Confusion 
Tachycardia 
False elevation of O2 saturation 
Pink skin and mucosa 
Rhabdomyolysis
Lactic acidosis 
DIC
81
Q

How can O2 saturation be checked in carbon monoxide poisoning when falsely elevated?

A

VBG/ABG - carboxyhaemoglobin levels

82
Q

How is carbon monoxide poisoning managed?

A

High flow/hyperbaric O2

Manage complications

83
Q

Define frailty

A
Health state related to ageing
Increased vulnerability to stressors 
Loss of biological reserves 
Failure of homeostatic mechanisms 
Accumulation of damage to cells in multiple organs
84
Q

Why is frailty important to consider in EM?

A

Frail patients have disproportionate changes in their health following seemingly small stressors, with a prolonged recovery period, and potential inability to return to previous functional levels

85
Q

Why is it important to identify frailty in EM?

A

Frailty should trigger a comprehensive geriatric assessment (CGA) - MDT approach

86
Q

How should a falls history be approached?

A

Before
During
After
Collateral history

87
Q

What investigations should be done in a patient with a fall?

A
ECG
XR (chest, limb, pelvis)/CT
Urinalysis
Bloods - FBC, U&Es, CRP, LFTs, CK, troponin, D-dimer, INR, G&S
FAST scan
88
Q

What should be considered in the management of a fall in ED?

A

Treat consequences
Social circumstances preventing safe discharge
PT/OT assessment

89
Q

What drugs cause meiosis?

A
Opiates 
Clonidine
Antipsychotics 
Ondansetron
Mirtazepine
90
Q

What drugs cause mydriasis?

A
Benzodiazepines 
Alcohol 
Anticholinergics 
Seretonergics 
Cocaine 
Amphetamines 
MDMA
91
Q

What is the toxidrome for anticholinergics?

A
Blind as a bat (mydriasis)
Hot as a desert (hyperthermia)
Mad as a hatter (delirium)
Red as a beet (flushed skin)
Dry as a bone (dry mucous membranes)
92
Q

What is the treatment for anticholinergic toxicity?

A

Cooling
Benzodiazepines (agitation)
Sodium bicarbonate (QRS prolongation)

93
Q

What is the toxidrome for cholinergics?

A
Pin point pupils 
Frothing at the mouth 
Sweating 
Crying
Running nose 
Vomiting 
Urination 
Diarrhoea
94
Q

What is the treatment for cholinergic toxicity?

A

Intubate (respiratory depression)
Atropine (severe)
Pralidoxime (neuromuscular dysfunction)