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1
Q 
1-1. Fracture is a type of material failure. Of the following, which is another type of material failure? 
A. Fracture mechanics
B. Low frequency dynamic loading
C. Permanent deformation
D. Elongation within the elastic range
E. None of the above
A

Permanent deformation

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2
Q

Which of the following statements best differentiates between a defect and a discontinuity?
A. Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.
B. All discontinuities are defects.
C. All defects will lead to failure if undetected; discontinuities can be harmless.
D. Discontinuities are external natural boundaries only; defects are internal flaws originating from errors in processing.

A

Discontinuities can propagate and become defects.

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3
Q

Nondestructive testing is often differentiated from other measurements or inspection techniques in that:
A. NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material.
B. NDT is a measurement of dimensions, geometry, and appearance.
C. NDT uses electronic instruments to identify, evaluate, and locate discontinuities.
D. NDT is an inspection tool used to confirm the findings of the many other quality assurance techniques.

A

NDT involves indirect tests related to some other quality or characteristic of the material.

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4
Q

Which of the following describes a function of NDT?
A. Identification and sorting of material
B. Identification of material properties
C. Assuring the absence of faults or defect the could cause a part to fail
D. All of the above

A

All of the above

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5
Q

An important basis for the success of fracture control design procedures Is:

A. that all flaws are detected by NDT or proof testing before the component enters service.

B. in the use of large factors of safety.

C. in the use of a value of strength that the material used in the design is presumed to possess.

D. the need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not present when the component enters service.

E. all of the above.

A

the need to assure that unexpected flaws of some critical size are not present when the component enters service.

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6
Q

If properly utilized, NDT can assist in fracture control by:
A. accurately measuring the tensile strength of design materials.
B. providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.
C. predicting the time it will take a given size discontinuity to grow to a critical size.
D. all of the above

A

providing an accurate evaluation of the number and type of discontinuities that exist in a material.

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7
Q

A statement that a particular experiment produced a 0.9 probability of detection with a 95% confidence level means that:

A. there is a 95% probability that the probability of detection is overstated

B. there is a 5% probability that the probability of detection is overstated.

C. on the average, 90% of all flaws will be detected.

D. on the average, 95% of the all flaws will be detected.

E. on the average, 95 out of 100 flaws will be detected 90% of the time.

A

there is a 5% probability that the probability of detection is overstated.

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8
Q 
Most metals and plastics that are solids and have reasonable strength at room temperature are called:
A. composite materials.
B. manufacturing materials.
C. raw materials.
D. allotropic materials,
E. engineering materials.
A

engineering materials.

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9
Q 
Materials properties as used in design are most frequently determined by. 
A. theoretical analysis.
B. materials testing.
C. the National Bureau of Standards.
D. fracture mechanics testing.
A

materials testing.

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10
Q

Even at the early stages of product planning, nondestructive testing should be considered because:
A. it may be required by codes and specifications.
B. the design of the part should permit easy access to critical areas for later inspection.
C. the material selected should be compatible with a NDE technique that can accurately
evaluate the product.
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

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11
Q 
Which of the following materials properties are of most concern if corrosion resistance is essential? 
A. Processing properties
B. Mechanical properties
C. Physical properties
D. Chemical properties
A

Chemical properties

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12
Q

Which of the following is true relative to the comparison of the properties of aluminum based alloys and iron based alloys?

A. Iron has a lower melting point than aluminum.

B. Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment.

C. Iron can be alloyed to Increase its strength, whereas aluminum Is strongest In Its pure state.

D. Iron is preferred in load carrying designs, but it should not be used for any deformation type of manufacturing process.

E. All of the above.

A

Iron can exist in several different crystalline structures, and its properties can be controlled by heat treatment.

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13
Q 
Tensile tests are conducted on specimens from a newly developed alloy In order to determine the ultimate tensile strength of the material. Such tests are referred to as:
A. indirect tests.
B. physical properties tests.
C. destructive tests. 
D. proof tests.
A

destructive tests.

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14
Q 
A bar that is 12 inches long, 2 inches wide, and 1 inch thick is subjected to a tensile load acting along the length of the bar of 36,000 pounds. What is the tensile stress within the bar?
A. 1,500 pounds per square inch
B. 3,000 pounds per square inch
C. 12,000 pounds per square inch 
D. 18,000 pounds per square inch 
E. 36,000 pounds per square inch
A

18,000 pounds per square inch

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15
Q 
On the diagram below, point B is called the: A. elastic range.
B. elastic limit.
C. yield point.
D. yield strength.
E. modulus of elasticity.
A

elastic limit.

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16
Q 
The modulus of elasticity, or Young's modulus, is a measure of the material's relative: 
A. tensile strength.
B. compressive strength.
C. resistance to stress.
D. stiffness.
E. yield strength.
A

stiffness

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17
Q

Which of the following materials is typically considered when the application only requires high compressive strength?

A. Low carbon steel
B. High carbon steel
C. Cast iron
D. Magnesium

A

Cast iron

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18
Q

A fatigue failure can often be prevented by utilizing NOT to:
A. verify the cyclic loading on a component part.
B. detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.
C. measure the endurance limit of a part undergoing cyclic stresses.
D. determine percent elongation of a material before it is placed in service.

A

detect surface discontinuities that could be stress risers.

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19
Q 
Which of the following tests utilize a pendulum to break a specimen that is notched and supported on both ends, with the result of measuring energy absorption?
A. Creep test
B. Charpy test
C. Fatigue test
D. Transverse rupture test
A

Charpy test

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20
Q 
Direct hardness tests provide a measure of a material's ability to resist: 
A. bending.
B. surface and near-surface penetration.
C. tensile stresses.
D. elongation.
A

surface and near-surface penetration.

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21
Q

A particular type of steel has an ultimate strength of 80,000 pounds per square inch (psi), an elastic limit of 60,000 psi, and a yield strength of 62,000 psi. An allowable design stress of 20,000 psi is
used. What Is the (actor of safety based on the ultimate strength?

A. 0.25
B. 0.33
C. 3
D. 3.1
E. None of the above
A

None of the above

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22
Q 
Under ordinary usage, metals exist as:
A. amorphous solids.
B. mixtures and compounds of iron and carbon. 
C. crystalline solids.
D. face-centered cubic lattices.
A

crystalline solids.

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23
Q

The terms “body-centered cubic,” “face-centered cubic,” and “hexagonal close-packed” all refer to the:

A. different size grains that can exist at the same time in a metallic structure.

B. sequence of crystalline growth in a typical mild steel.

C. lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.

D. change in a metallic structure as it undergoes plastic deformation.

A

lattice structures that make up unit cells in a solid metallic structure.

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24
Q 
The process of returning ductility to a cold-worked low carbon steel is called: 
A. precipitation.
B. recrystallization.
C. allotropic change.
D. austenitization.
A

recrystallization.

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25
Q 
Many metals exhibit an increase in strength caused by plastic flow beyond the elastic limit. This effect is called:
A. twinning.
B. plastic deformation.
C. work hardening. 
D. recrystallization. 
E. age hardening.
A

work hardening.

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26
Q 
When used as in-process treatment, recrystalization can: 
A. improve ductility.
B. refine grains,
C. increase hardness.
D. result in both A and B above. 
E. result in all of the above.
A

result in both A and B above.

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27
Q

Processes called austeniting, annealing, normalizing, and spherodizing are:
A. performed only on non-ferrous metals
B. approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes.
C cold-working processes.
D. age hardening

A

approximate equilibrium heat-treatment processes.

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28
Q 
The terms “precipitation hardening” and solution heat treatment” are often used interchangeably with the term:
A. age hardening.
B. recrystallization.
C. annealing.
D. work hardening. 
E. plasticizing
A

age hardening.

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29
Q 
Spheroidizing and normalizing have the effect of 
A. increasing ductility.
B. age hardening.
C. reducing the grain size. 
D. causing a phase change.
A

increasing ductility.

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30
Q 
When a steel has quench-hardened and is reheated to some point below the lower transformation temperature for the purpose of reducing brittleness, this is called:
A austenitization.
B. thermal slip deformation.
C. allotropic change. 
D. tempering.
A

tempering.

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31
Q 
Annealing is usually performed to: 
A. decrease hardness.
B. increase ductility.
C. relieve stresses.
D. both A and B above, 
E. all of the above.
A

all of the above.

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32
Q 
Attacks on metals by direct chemical action and/or electrolysis are called: 
A. rust.
B. corrosion.
C. austenitic transformations.
D galvanization.
A

corrosion.

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33
Q 
Metal corrosion that is accelerated when the metal is under loads is called: 
A. pitting corrosion.
B. galvanic corrosion.
C. electrochemical corrosion.
D. stress corrosion.
A

stress corrosion.

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34
Q 
Which of the following may be performed to help prevent corrosion? 
A. Stress relieving
B. Anodizing
C. Dipping in molten-metal
D. Electroplating 
E. All of the above
A

All of the above

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35
Q

Factors of safety are often In the range of 2 to 4; they:

A. provide allowances for unexpected loads or conditions.

B. present problems in designing effective aircraft.

C. could be reduced with the assurance of NOT techniques that the material was free of discontinuities.

D. relate to all of the above.

A

relate to all of the above.

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36
Q 
The reduction of iron ore by mixing with coke, limestone, and oxygen for combustion of the coke is accomplished in:
A. a blast furnace.
B. an open-hearth furnace.
C. a Bessemer converter. 
D. a basic oxygen furnace.
A

a blast furnace.

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37
Q

In the iron and steel-making process, the term “pig iron” refers to:

A. the waste material that contains high concentrations of impurities and slag and is either discarded or used as a by-product.

B. a high carbon, low ductility metal that Is produced in the blast furnace which can be used to make subsequent types of iron and steel.

C. the molten metal from the blast furnace that is not usable and is poured off into a series of crude castings called “pigs”.

D. both A and C above.

E. none of the above.

A

a high carbon, low ductility metal that Is produced in the blast furnace which can be used to make subsequent types of iron and steel.

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38
Q

Which of the following techniques is often used to speed-up the steel-making process?

A. Adding large amounts of carbon to the molten metal.

B. Reducing the amount of scrap steel that is often added to the molten metal.

C. Adding oxygen to the molten metal.

D. Converting the old open-hearth furnaces into electric furnaces.

A

Adding oxygen to the molten metal.

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39
Q 
Typically, the highest quality of steel is produced in: 
A. an electric furnace.
B. an open-hearth furnace.
C. a Bessemer furnace.
D. a basic oxygen furnace.
A

an electric furnace.

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40
Q

What percentage of carbon is found in steel? A. Between 3 and 4%
B. Between 2 and 3%
C. Less than 0.2%
D. Less than 2%

A

Less than 2%

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41
Q 
By which of the following processes is most of the world's steel produced? 
A. Bessemer converter
B. Electric furnace
C. Open-hearth
D. Crucible
E. Basic oxygen
A

Basic oxygen

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42
Q 
An undesirable by-product of steel-making processes is: 
A. coke.
B. low carbon steel.
C. low alloy steel.
D. slag.
A

slag.

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43
Q 
A steel with 40 points of carbon contains: 
A. 40% carbon.
B. 4% carbon.
C. 0.4% carbon.
D. 0.04% carbon.
A

0.4% carbon.

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44
Q 
Low carbon steel contains approximately: 
A. 0.6% to 2.5% carbon.
B. 0.06% to 0.25% carbon.
C. 0.5% to 1.6% carbon.
D. 5% to 16% carbon
A

0.06% to 0.25% carbon.

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45
Q 
Corrosion-resistant steels having relatively high percentages of nickel and chromium are called: 
A. wrought iron.
B. low alloy steels.
C. stainless steels.
D. nonferrous steels.
A

stainless steels.

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46
Q

Austenitic stainless steels are paramagnetic: this means that:
A. alternating current must be used when using magnetic particle testing method.

B. the steel is very dense and, relative to other steels, difficult to penetrate with x-rays.

C. ultrasonics is the logical NDT method to choose because of the coarse-grained nature of a paramagnetic material.

D. all of the above are true.

E. none of the above is true.

A

none of the above is true.

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47
Q

Which of the following is an advantage of cast steel over wrought steels?

A. Cast steels usually have higher mechanical properties than wrought steels.

B. Cast steels have more isotropic properties than wrought steels.

C. Cast steels are more corrosion-resistant than wrought steels.

D. Cast steels cannot be heat-treated, and are thus less expensive to produce than wrought steels.

A

Cast steels have more isotropic properties than wrought steels.

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48
Q 
Which of the following nonferrous metals Is the most important structural material? 
A. Copper alloys
B. Nickel alloys
C. Zinc alloys
D. Aluminum alloys
A

Aluminum alloys

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49
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the electrical conductivity of aluminum alloys?
A. Most aluminum alloys are in the range of 70% to 96% IACS.
B. Clad aluminum takes on the conductivity of the base metal.
C. Each basic wrought aluminum alloy has a conductivity distinct from any other.
D. Both A and B are true.
E. None of the above is true.

A

None of the above is true.

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50
Q

The heat treatment of aluminum for the purpose of hardening and strengthening:

A. is not possible with aluminum alloys as they contain no carbon and cannot undergo allotropic changes.

B. can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels

C. requires the use of special furnaces and is rarely done as a practical application.

D. requires that iron and carbon be alloyed for the best results.

A

can produce tensile strengths equivalent to some carbon steels

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51
Q 
Which of the following metals has low strength, high corrosion resistance, and is used largely in die casting operations?
A. Aluminum
B. Magnesium
C. Zinc
D. Manganese
A

Zinc

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52
Q 
Which of the following metal alloys has a density approximately two-thirds that of aluminum 
A. Magnesium
B. Beryllium
C. Copper
D. Nickel
A

Magnesium

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53
Q 
Brass and bronze are alloys of zinc, tin, and a large percentage of: 
A. beryllium.
B. copper.
C. lead.
D. nickel.
A

copper.

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54
Q 
Monel and Inconel are: 
A. nickel alloys.
B. steel alloys.
C. magnesium alloys.
D. aluminum alloys. 
E. copper alloys.
A

nickel alloys.

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55
Q 
Which of the following metals can typically be used in the as-cast state? 
A. Aluminum
B. Zinc
C. Steel
D. Iron
E. All of the above
A

All of the above

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56
Q 
A high strength, low density, corrosion resistant metal alloy of significance in the aircraft, marine,and chemical processing industries is:
A. tungsten.
B. zinc,
C. titanium.
D. magnesium.
A

titanium.

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57
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning plastics following their initial polymerization?
A. Thermoplastics resoften when reheated.
B. Thermosetting plastics do not soften, but char and deteriorate when reheated.
C. All plastics are synthetic, containing no natural materials.
D. Both A and B are true.
E. All of the above are true.

A

Both A and B are true.

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58
Q

Based on the ratio of strength-to-weight:
A. no plastic materials can compare with metals.
B. some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some steels.
C. plastics, as a group, are superior in strength to most ferrous metals.
D. none of the above are true.

A

some plastics, including nylon, may have strengths greater than some steels.

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59
Q

Design engineers are responsible for establishing the function, appearance, quality, and cost of a
product. Regarding the role of NDT in product design, which of the following is true?

A. As a group, designers, by their training and education, are adequately Informed about NDT to establish NDT procedures and acceptance criteria.

B. When NDT appears necessary in a design, the designer should properly select the methods and techniques to be used by reference to NDT handbooks.

C. Designers should depend solely upon NDT personnel to establish acceptance criteria.

D. None of the above is true.

A

None of the above is true.

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60
Q 
Manufacturing is a term that refers to processing that starts with raw material in a bulk form, and is concerned mainly with processing the raw material in a manner that changes:
A. its shape.
B. its chemical form.
C. its mechanical properties. 
D. its physical properties.
E. all of the above.
A

its shape.

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61
Q

Manufacturing processes change raw material by:
A. increasing the material’s volume.
B. decreasing the material’s volume.
C. solid deformation with no volume change.
D. both A and B.
E. All of the above.

A

All of the above.

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62
Q

Which of the following is true regarding solidification of molten metal in a casting mold?
A. The metal cools at a constant rate, thus providing fine equiaxed grains throughout.
B. Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of grains.
C. Solidification occurs at a constant rate, beginning at the interior of the casting and progressing outward.
D. Thick sections tend to cool more rapidly than thin sections because thin sections consist of mostly fine equiaxed grains

A

Cooling takes place in phases having different rates that produce different types of grains.

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63
Q

In a casting, shrinkage occurs:
A. only after the transformation from liquid to solid.
B. only after the transformation from solid to liquid.
C. before during and after the transformation from liquid to solid.
D. only when the metal is in the liquid state.

A

before during and after the transformation from liquid to solid.

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64
Q

Large voids of porosity in a casting result from:
A. turbulent flow of the molten metal during pouring
B. alloy element segregation.
C. molten metal boiling because of superheat.
D. gas evolution before and during solidification

A

gas evolution before and during solidification

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65
Q

During the solidification of a casting, the shrinkage that occurs:
A. may cause porosity and shrinkage cavities primarily in the outer surfaces where the metal cools first.
B. requires that the pattern used be slightly smaller than the desired dimension of the finished casting.
C. may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gases.
D. may result from all the above.

A

may cause cavities that are enlarged by the evolution of gases.

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66
Q

The design of the casting is important because the quality of the finished product can be adversely affected by:
A. a lack of molten metal to compensate for contraction
B. location of the gate with reference to either progressive solidification or directional solidification
C. the location of “hot spots” in areas of the casting that are isolated by thin sections.
D. all of the above.
E. none of the above.

A

all of the above.

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67
Q 
The term used to describe a discontinuity in a casting that occurs when molten metal interfaces with already solidified with failure to fuse at the interface is:
A. hot tear
B. cold shut
C. lack of fusion. 
D. segregation.
A

cold shut

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68
Q

The part of the casting where the gate or riser was attached:
A. should be the area used to establish reference standards for future NDT examinations because this area will contain the best quality cast material.
B. provides the best quality material because of rapid cooling in this area.
C. should be the area that “ freezes” first, thus preventing excessive shrinkage cavities.
D. may provide a concentration point for discontinuities.

A

may provide a concentration point for discontinuities.

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69
Q 
Risers, feeders. or feed heads in castings serve lo provide sources of molten metal to compensate for:
A. misruns.
B. cold shuts.
C. hot tears.
D. dendritic grain growth, 
E. shrinkage.
A

shrinkage.

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70
Q 
Green sand casting molds include: 
A. sand, clay, and water.
B. sand, wax, and solvent.
C. sand, refractory metals, and water. 
D. sand, carbon, and green clay.
A

sand, clay, and water.

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71
Q 
Mold material in the form of inserts that exclude metal flow and thus form internal surfaces or passages in a casting are called:
A. chills.
B. chaplets.
C. cores. 
D. patterns.
A

cores.

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72
Q 
Small metal supports used to support and position cores become part of a casting by fusing with the molten metal. Such devices are called:
A. core hangers.
B. chills. 
C chaplets. 
D. risers. 
E. patterns.
A

chaplets.

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73
Q 
Which of the following may cause a discontinuity even though its intended purpose is to prevent shrinkage cavities by absorbing heat from the molten metal in the center of the casting?
A. Riser
B. Core
C. Internal chill 
D. Chaplet
A

Internal chill

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74
Q 
Which of the following NDT methods is commonly used to inspect castings for core shift, nonfused chaplets and to determine that all core materials have been removed?
A. Ultrasonics
B. Magnetic Particle
C. Radiography 
D. Eddy Current 
E. All of the above
A

Radiography

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75
Q 
Casting molds made by covering a heated metal pattern with sand that is mixed with particles of thermosetting plastic are called:
A. green sand molds.
B. shell molds.
C. plaster molds.
D. die casting molds. 
E. permanent molds.
A

shell molds.

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76
Q 
Permanent molds are most frequently made of: 
A. ceramics.
B. fused sand and plastic,
C. metal.
D. plaster.
A

metal.

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77
Q 
Another term for precision casting and the lost wax process is: 
A. investment casting.
B. die casting.
C. metal mold casting.
D. shell mold casting.
A

investment casting.

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78
Q 
A casting process used to produce hollow products like large pipes and hollow shafts is: 
A. investment casting.
B. blow casting.
C. core casting.
D. centrifugal casting
A

centrifugal casting

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79
Q 
A casting process used to produce elongated shapes by drawing solidified metal from a water cooled mold backed by molten metal is:
A. centrifugal casting.
B. continuous casting.
C. draw casting. 
D. extrusion.
A

continuous casting.

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80
Q 
An assembly that has been created by joining two or more parts by one or more welds is called a: 
A. joint.
B. bonded structure.
C. weld.
D. weldment.
A

weldment.

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81
Q

A general definition of welding describes the joining of two surfaces:
A. with a filler metal that has a higher melting point than the base metal.
B. with a filler material that is different from the base material.
C. In a permanent union established by atom-to-atom bonds.
D. where both heat and pressure are necessary for permanent bonding.

A

In a permanent union established by atom-to-atom bonds.

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82
Q 
Of the following, which is not a requirement for fusion bonding? 
A. Melting
B. Atomic closeness
C. Atomic cleanliness
D. Pressure
A

Pressure

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83
Q 
Metallurgical effects in a weld, such as grain size variation and shrinkage, are similar to those that occur in:
A. forgings.
B. castings.
C. extrusions.
D. hot-rolled plates.
A

castings.

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84
Q 
Pressure welding can be accented with pressure alone, but what else is usually added?
A. Heat
B. Filler material
C. Oxides
D. Adhesives
A

Heat

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85
Q

Proper brazing depends upon numerous factors being controlled. Of the following, which is not appropriate?

A Proper joint fit-up and joint preparation
B Adequate heat to melt the braze filler metal
C. Selection of proper braze filler metal.
D. Complete melting of the step metal and diffusion of the braze filler metal into the base metal
E. All of the above are important

A

Complete melting of the step metal and diffusion of the braze filler metal into the base metal

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86
Q

Soldering, brazing, and braze welding all:
A. have the same strength characteristics.
B. utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.
C. are fusion-type weldments
D. utilize liquid penetrant inspection to reveal porosity within the joint.

A

utilize a process where only the filler metal is actually melted.

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87
Q

Due to high temperatures and rapid rate of cooling the filler material used to fusion welds.
A. is coated with an oxide to help reduce weld defects.
B. contains alloys that will help compensate for properties lost during the welding process.
C. is alloyed with nickel, copper, and carbon to eliminate cracking.
D. should be as close as possible to the same alloy content as the base material.

A

contains alloys that will help compensate for properties lost during the welding process.

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88
Q

The uneven shrinkage and brittle structures that occur due to the rapid cooling of a weld can often be reduced by:
A. preheating the weldment prior to welding.
B. using a filler metal with a higher carbon content than the base metal.
C clamping the weldment in a rigid fixture.
D. over designing the size of the weldment to prevent shrinkage.

A

preheating the weldment prior to welding.

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89
Q 
After welding, many steel weldments are heat treated to obtain more uniform properties between the weld and base metal and to relieve stress. Which heat treatment method .s often used following welding?
A. Tempering
B. Martensitic aging 
C. Normalizing
D. Spheroidizing.
A

Normalizing

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90
Q 
Weldments subject to restraint during welding can develop high residual stresses. Unrestrained weldments can develop:
A. geometric distortion.
B. high residual stresses. 
C. cracking after the weld has cooled. 
D. all of the above.
A

all of the above.

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91
Q

Welds and weldments have been known to develop cracks long after cooling but prior to being used in service. .
What is the principal cause for such cracks?
A. Accelerated corrosion at high temperature
B. Scattered porosity in the weld
C. Improper selection of base material
D. Excessive residual stresses

A

Excessive residual stresses

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92
Q 
In arc welding, the electric arc Is usually sustained between an electrode and the: 
A. welding machine.
B. coating on the electrode.
C. work piece.
D. shielding gas.
A

work piece.

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93
Q 
Which of the following gases are most frequently used as shielding to provide an inert atmosphere in the vicinity of the weld?
A. Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide
B. Neon, tritium, and helium
C. Sulphur dioxide, argon, and oxygen 
D. Argon, nitrogen, and hydrogen
A

Argon, helium, and carbon dioxide

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94
Q

When molten metal is transferred from the electrode to the weld zone, It can be shielded from the atmosphere by:
A. the burning of coatings on the welding electrode.
B. maintaining the arc beneath flux powders.
C. the flow of a shielding gas around the arc.
D. all of the above.

A

all of the above.

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95
Q

The burn-off rate and amount of spattering during the arc welding process can often be controlled by:
A. proper post-heating of the entire weldment.
B. frequent changing of the tungsten electrode.
C. maintaining the longest arc length possible to reduce the heat in the weld zone.
D. selecting the proper electrode polarity.

A

selecting the proper electrode polarity.

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96
Q 
Which of the following welding processes uses a non-consumable electrode with the arc maintained in an atmosphere of Inert gas?
A. Gas Tungsten Arc Welding
B. Submerged Arc Welding
C. Gas Metal Arc Welding 
D. Electroslag Welding
A

Gas Tungsten Arc Welding

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97
Q

Shielding in the submerged arc welding process is provided by:
A. gases.
B. granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.
C. a flux-coated welding rod.
D. chopped glass fibers.

A

granular flux that completely surrounds the arc.

98
Q 
A welding process that is most frequently carried out in a vacuum chamber is: 
A. plasma arc welding.
B. electron-beam welding.
C. electroslag welding.
D. friction welding.
E. none of the above.
A

electron-beam welding.

99
Q 
The welding process capable of very high intensity and rate of heat transfer is: 
A. braze welding.
B. plasma arc welding.
C. diffusion welding.
D. soldering.
A

plasma arc welding.

100
Q 
The welding process in which the arc is extinguished after melting a slag cover and in which the base metal and copper slides form a sort of moving mold is called:
A. electroslag welding.
B. submerged arc welding.
C. electron-beam welding. 
D. slag-mold welding.
A

electroslag welding.

101
Q

In the process of diffusion welding, often called diffusion bonding, the base metal is joined by:

A. melting the weld joint area with strip heaters,
B. using high temperature adhesives.
C. putting it under pressure, at temperatures below the melting point.
D. the heat of frictional movement between the surfaces to be joined.
E. detonating explosives covering the materials to be joined.

A

putting it under pressure, at temperatures below the melting point.

102
Q

A slag inclusion can result in the following?

A. Small pieces of tungsten being dislodged from the electrode in the gas tungsten arc process.
B. insufficient cleaning of successive passes in a multi-pass weldment
C. Excessive undercut on intermediate passes in a multi-pass weldment
D. All of the above
E. Only B and C above

A

Only B and C above

103
Q

Crater cracks may take the form of a single crack or star-shaped cracks and will usually be found:
A. by magnetic particle techniques since crater cracks are always subsurface.
B. anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted,
C. in the natural crater formed between the two plates in a typical fillet weld.
D. In the root area of a multiple pass weld where the weld metal failed to flow completely into the root opening.

A

anywhere along a weld where the welding was stopped and restarted

104
Q

The principal purpose of pre-heat treatment and post-heat treatment in welds is to:
A. reduce the probability of formation of porosity in the weld,
B. neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.
C create grains in the weld that are the same as those in the base metal.
D. cause the weld ripple and reinforcement to blend into the base metal.

A

neutralize residual stresses and geometric distortion.

105
Q

In welding, the most obvious defects are those associated with structural discontinuities In the weld itself.
Other conditions that can also be considered as defects are:
A. improper weld dimensions and profile.
B. base metal irregularities that have been enlarged by welding stresses and distortion.
C. structurally sound welds, but those with Inadequate properties caused by errors In filler metal selection.
D. both A and C above,
E. all of the above.

A

all of the above.

106
Q

Cracks in the weld metal are primarily of which three types?
A. Shallow, deep, and intermittent
B. Longitudinal, transverse, and crater
C. Laminar, through, and oblique
D. Longitudinal, laminar, and intermittent

A

Longitudinal, transverse, and crater

107
Q

Thermal conductivity of a metal is an important factor to consider in making quality weldments because:

A. some metals, such as aluminum, have a low conductivity which results in weld defects due to localized heat build up.

B. some metals, such as stainless steel, have a high conductivity which results in lack of fusion defects as the heat is quickly removed from the weld zone.

C. in some metals, such as aluminum, very high temperature gradients are produced, causing stresses during cooling.

D. all of the above,

E. none of the above.

A

none of the above.

108
Q

Deformation of metals provides a number of advantages.
Which of the following is not an advantage?

A. Deformation processes increase the probability of defect formation.
B. High duplication accuracy results from most deformation processes.
C. In general, the properties of wrought metals are improved over their cast counterparts.
D. Thin sections can be more economically and more successfully produced than by casting.

A

Deformation processes increase the probability of defect formation.

109
Q

Among other things, the advantageous effects of recrystallization depend upon:
A. the rate of deformation.
B. the temperature at which deformation takes place.
C. the presence of carbon in excess of 2.5% for steels.
D. all of the above.
E. both A and B above.

A

both A and B above.

110
Q

Wrought products invariably exhibit:
A. high susceptibility to corrosion.
B. lower strength than their cast counterparts.
C directional properties.
D. poor weldabllity.
E. poor surface finishes unless machined.

A

directional properties.

111
Q

During the steel-making process, a large number of faults such as slag, porosity, and shrinkage cavities exist In the top of the Ingot. These discontinuities are:

A. mostly eliminated in subsequent hot working due to the pressure which “welds” the void shut.

B. located with nondestructive testing techniques at later stages of production.

C. almost non-existent with modern steel-making processes.

D. removed by cropping up to 1/3 off the top of the ingot.

A

removed by cropping up to 1/3 off the top of the ingot.

112
Q 
Discontinuities with their origin in the original ingot can be reduced in severity by the closing and welding of voids and the breaking up and elongation of inclusions by which of the following processes? 
A. Cold working
B. Hot working
C. Heat treatment 
D. Welding
A

Hot working

113
Q 
Which of the following would have the least ductility? 
A. Cold-rolled steel plate
B. Hot-rolled steel plate
C. Gray cast iron
D. Hot-rolled aluminum plate
A

Gray cast iron

114
Q 
A nondestructive testing technique best suited to locating discontinuities caused by inclusions rolled into steel plate is:
A. radiographlc Inspection,
B. ultrasonic inspection.
C. visual inspection.
D. magnetic particle inspection.
A

ultrasonic inspection.

115
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning deformation processes?
A. Hot working usually follows cold working.
B. Hot working must be followed by heat treatment.
C. Hot worked materials must be cold worked before they can be used.
D. Cold working usually follows hot working.
E. Cold working renders brittle material more ductile.

A

Cold working usually follows hot working.

116
Q 
Machinability and fatigue resistance are improved in most metals that have been: 
A. hot worked.
B. cold worked.
C. heat treated.
D. cast.
A

cold worked.

117
Q

Nondestructive testing is often utilized just following hot and cold working operations to:

A. assure that further operations are not performed on material that contains defects that could reject the manufactured part.

B. determine that defects do not exist in the material that could damage the rolling mills and other equipment.

C. determine the ductility of the material after the rolling operation is complete.

D. accurately determine the compressive strength of the material after it passes through the rolling mill.

A

assure that further operations are not performed on material that contains defects that could reject the manufactured part.

118
Q

Slabs, blooms, and billets are:

A. the three consecutive stages that the metal goes through during the production of products such as angle iron and channel iron.

B. the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.

C. types of defects that occur during the hot rolling of steel.

D. the three different shapes produced during typical cold rolling operations.

A

the shapes that the ingot is rolled into prior to a variety of secondary operations.

119
Q

A major purpose of pressing the metal powders during powder metallurgy processing Is to:
A. squeeze out excess moisture.
B further refine the grain’s
C. compact the powders Into mechanical and atomic closeness.
D. provide all of the above.

A

compact the powders Into mechanical and atomic closeness.

120
Q

loathe powder metallurgy process, sintering Is:
A. in most cases, a fully solid-state process.
B. never a fully solid-state process.
C. principally done at room temperature.
D. always done at elevated temperature and high pressure.

A

in most cases, a fully solid-state process.

121
Q 
Powdered metallurgy products cannot 
A. be hot worked after sintering.
B. be heat treated after sintering.
C. be machined after sintering.
D attain 100% of theoretical density.
E. be subjected to any of the processes mentioned above.
A

attain 100% of theoretical density.

122
Q

Which of the following is an application for powdered metal products?
A. Cemented carbide cutting tools and dies
B. Tungsten rocket nozzles
C. Oil-impregnated bushings
D. Both B and C are applications
E. All of the above are applications

A

All of the above are applications

123
Q 
Which of the following terms describe operations that bend, stretch, and shape sheet metals into three-dimensional shapes without significant plastic flow and deformation?
A. Bending
B. Forming
C. Drawing
D. Only A and B above 
E. All of the above
A

All of the above

124
Q 
In drawing and deep drawing, the final shape often can be completed in a series of draws, each successively deeper. What process performed between draws might effectively reduce the number of draws required?
A. Recrystallization
B. Pickling
C. Etching
D. Hardening heat treatment 
E. Hot rolling
A

Recrystallization

125
Q 
Spinning can be used to form: 
A. spherical tank halves.
B. cemented carbide cutting tools. 
C. crane hooks.
D. rectangular sheet metal tanks. 
E. solid spheres.
A

spherical tank halves.

126
Q

Most new developments in sheet metal forming typically use non-conventional energy sources. What is a common feature of these processes?
A. The use of lasers for controlled heat input.
B. The use of cryogenics to super-cool the metal prior to forming,
C. The use of energy sources that release large amounts of energy in a very short time.
D. The use of large autoclaves that contain both the tooling and the metal being formed.

A

The use of energy sources that release large amounts of energy in a very short time.

127
Q 
Machines designed to hold a cutting tool and a workpiece and establish a suitable set of motions between them to remove material from the workpiece are called:
A. mill-working machines.
B. factory machines.
C. machine tools.
D. metal-cutting machines.
A

machine tools.

128
Q

In describing machinability, three different measurements are generally considered on a relative, If

A. shear tensile and impact strength of the material being machined.

B. surface finish of the material achievable, power consumption required to remove a given

C. Softness of the material, sharpness of the cutting tool, and type of machine used to remove

D. volume of material before machining, after machining, and time required to remove that volume.

A

surface finish of the material achievable, power consumption required to remove a given

129
Q 
When used with respect to machine tools, the acronym N/C means: 
A. non-metal cutters.
B. non-corrosive coolant.
C. numerical control.
D. non-conventional. 
E. negative clearance.
A

numerical control.

130
Q

Which of the following can result in economical set-up and reduced machine time with an increase in repeatability and accuracy for a variety of machining operations?

A. The use of nondestructive testing to evaluate the finished product

B. The use of electrical discharge machining to replace the conventional lathes and surface grinders.

C. The use of modern ultrasonic machining operations.

D. The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

A

The use of numerical control systems applied to conventional types of machining operations.

131
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding plastics processing?

A. Unlike metals, plastics must be processed without the addition of heat.

B. Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding, casting, and

C. All plastics molding processes use liquid-state materials introduced into the mold cavity.

D. Injection molding can be done only with thermosetting materials.

A

Both thermoplastics and thermosetting plastics may be processed by molding, casting, and

132
Q

Reinforced plastics molding involves use of:

A. thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials.
B. thermosetting plastics and metallic powder reinforcement.
C. thermoplastics and wood fiber reinforcement materials.
D. thermoplastics and metallic powder reinforcement.

A

thermosetting plastics and fibrous reinforcement materials.

133
Q 
The mechanism of adhesion combines mechanical interlocking and: 
A. stickiness of the adhesive.
B. roughness of the adherends.
C. dynamic mechanical forces.
D. interatomic forces. 
E. all of the above.
A

interatomic forces.

134
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning composite materials?

A. Composite materials include combinations of non-metallic materials only.

B. When composite materials are cured, the constituents lose their original identity and form chemical compounds with one another.

C. A unique feature of composite materials is that their tensile strength frequently exceeds the

D. Composites are usually formed into complex three-dimensional shapes with each dimension approximately equal to the other two.

E. None of the above statements are true.

A

None of the above statements are true.

135
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning honeycomb?

A. Non-metallic honeycomb derives high strength and rigidity Irom a structural combination of relatively weak, thin, light-weight materials.

B. In honeycomb, the walls of the cellular core material are aligned parallel with the plane of the
face sheets.

C. All-metallic honeycomb can be bonded by adhesives, brazing, or diffusion welding, but honeycomb containing non-metallic elements can be bonded only by adhesives.

D. Both A and B are true.

E. Both A and C are true.

A

Both A and C are true.

136
Q

The major difference between materials classified as composites and those classified as mixtures is that:

A. mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents.

B. composites contain metallic constituents and mixtures are non-metallic.

C. mixtures start as liquids blended together and composites start as solids.

D. mixtures are elastomeric, while composites are characterized as having at least one plastic component.

A

mixtures are a type of composite with random orientation and shape of the constituents.

137
Q 
The acronym EDM refers to: 
A. engineering design materials. 
B. energy discharge machines. 
C. electro-dynamic machining.
D. electrical discharge machining. 
E. elastomeric/diatomic mixture.
A

electrical discharge machining.

138
Q 
The process used for shaping metals by chemical dissolution only, with selective removal accomplished by masking areas where metal is not to be removed, is called:
A. electrical discharge machining.
B. chemical milling.
C. electrochemical machining. 
D. electroforming.
E. none of the above.
A

chemical milling.

139
Q 
A process which is the reverse of electrochemical machining and which is the basis for electroplating is called:
A. chemical milling
B. electrical discharge machining
C. electroforming 
D. magnetoforming
A

electroforming

140
Q 
A cutting operation that has the ability to cut through thicknesses of over 3 feet of steel and is commonly used to remove surface defects on castings and forgings by “scarfing” is called:
A. friction cutting.
B. oxyacetylene cutting.
C. ultrasonic cutting.
D. gas metal arc cutting. 
E. plasma arc cutting.
A

oxyacetylene cutting.

141
Q

Which of the following statements is not true concerning surface finishing?

A. Cleaning operations are considered to be surface finishing processes.
B. Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.
C. Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.
D. Surfaces finishing is sometimes performed to improve surface and near surface mechanical properties.

A

Surface finishing is not typically followed by further processes.

142
Q

Carburizing and flame hardening are examples of:
A. annealing processing.
B. Casehardening processes.
C. processes that produce ductile surfaces.
D. electrochemical processes.

A

Casehardening processes.

143
Q 
The best and most economical cleaners used for removal of oils and greases are: 
A. pickling baths.
B. de-ionized water sprays.
C. wire brushes and cloth buffers.
D. petroleum solvents.
A

petroleum solvents.

144
Q

Some materials, such as aluminum, are corrosion resistant:
A. by virtue of the Immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.
B. only if anodized.
C. because the material itself will not readily combine with oxygen.
D. against all types of corrosive atmospheres.

A

by virtue of the Immediate oxidation of newly exposed surfaces.

145
Q

An advantage of electrostatic spraying is that:
A. the material being sprayed is directly attracted to all of the surfaces to be covered.
B. there is less waste due to over-sprayed material.
C. there is more uniform coverage of the surfaces.
D. both A and C above.
E. all of the above.

A

all of the above.

146
Q 
A corrosion protection material commonly applied to steel by hot dipping and galvanizing is: 
A. porcelain.
B. copper.
C. paint.
D. zinc
E. chromic acid.
A

zinc

147
Q 
Metals commonly applied to other metals by electroplating are: 
A. Nickel, chromium, and cadmium.
B. tin, zinc, and tungsten.
C. sliver, gold, and carbon.
D. copper, aluminum, and magnesium. 
E. both A and D above.
A

Nickel, chromium, and cadmium

148
Q 
A process that converts the base metal surface to an oxidized barrier layer of very small porous cells is called:
A. galvanizing.
B. plating.
C. anodizing. 
D. metalizing.
A

anodizing.

149
Q 
A technique for the inspection of manufactured products that utilizes the selection of a certain percentage of parts for inspection Is called:
A. standard deviation.
B. random sampling.
C. consumer risk curve.
D. natural selection.
E. analysis of variance.
A

random sampling.

150
Q

Implied in sampling inspection is:
A that the chosen plan will produce precise numbers of acceptable parts.
B. the need for a sample size of 100 units or multiples thereof.
C. a willingness to sometimes accept defective products.
D. the need to collect data in the form of variables instead of attributes.

A

a willingness to sometimes accept defective products.

151
Q 
A process control chart based on the means and ranges of measurements taken on periodic samples requires the measurement to be taken of:
A. attributes.
B. variables.
C. either attributes or variables. 
D. neither attributes nor variables.
A

variables.

152
Q 
Frequently, dimensions are permitted to vary within specified limits. These variations are called: 
A. variances.
B. fudge factors.
C. absolute dimensions.
D. factors of safety, 
E. tolerances.
A

tolerances.

153
Q 
Measurements are classified as being either, 
A. comparative or absolute.
B. comparative or dimensional.
C. general or specific.
D. dimensional or angular.
E. microscopic or macroscopic.
A

comparative or absolute.

154
Q 
Which of the following measurement tools uses the principle of light wave interference to check surface flatness?
A. Optical comparator
B. Vernier caliper
C. Sine bar
D. Go-no go gage
E. None of the above
A

None of the above

155
Q 
Gages such as plug gages, ring gages, go-no go gages, profile gages, thread gages, radius gages, etc., are all types of:
A. variable measurement tools.
B. absolute gages.
C. optical gages. 
D. fixed gages.
A

fixed gages.

156
Q 
Devices that show magnified reflected or profile images of the work piece on a frosted glass screen are called:
A. optical comparators.
B. optical flats.
C. optical projectors. 
D. optical micrometers. 
E. optical gages.
A

optical comparators.

157
Q

The majority of metals and some other materials
fall into a class that is often referred to as:
A. manufacturing materials.
B. construction materials.
C. engineering materials.
D. fabrication materials.

A

engineering materials.

158
Q

Engineering materials typically have relatively
high values of which of the following
characteristics?
a. Elasticity, creep resistance, and plasticity.
b. Hardness, strength, toughness, and
durability.
c. Transparency, homogeneity, and weight.
d. Translucence, geometry, and flexibility.

A

Hardness, strength, toughness, and

durability.

159
Q

Early manufacturing was primarily devoled to
products for which of the following sectors?
A. Agricultural and military goods.
B. Art and luxury goods.
C. Health and human services.
D. The industrial revolution.

A

Agricultural and military goods.

160
Q

Most manufacturing jobs dircctly connected with
the product require that the technician or
operator have a specific knowledge about certain
phases of the work and ___ of related areas.

A. technical knowledge
B. theoretical knowledge
C. general knowledge
D. in-depth knowledge

A

general knowledge

161
Q

To ensure that the final product has the quality
and reliability expected from the design,
qualified personnel must:

a. examine the processed material at every slage
of production.
b. examine the product upon completion of production.
c. examine the product at each stage of production.
d. examine the product when it is returned by
the customer for a defective condition.

A

examine the product at each stage of production.

162
Q

Communication between designers and
production personnel relies heavily on both
parties understanding the:

a. nomenclature used in the area of concern.
b. engineer-worker relationship.
c. supervisor-subordinate relationship.
d. time it takes to manufacture the part in question

A

nomenclature used in the area of concern.

163
Q 
Melting of a material and control of its shape
while it solidifies is referred to as:
A. forging.
B. smelting.
C. casting.
D. extruding
A

casting.

164
Q 
Reshaping of a matcrial in the plastic or
semisolid form is often called:
A. forming
B. casting.
C. smelting
D. welding.
A

forming

165
Q 
Shaping by metal removal in the solid state is
commonly performed to produce product
shapes. If the removed material is in chip form
the process is:
A. chipping.
B. grinding.
C. burring.
D. machining.
A

machining.

166
Q

The metallurgical changes that take place during
casting are of the same nature as those that take
place in:
A. extrusion.
B. fusion welding.
C. lamination.
D. rolling

A

fusion welding.

167
Q

Why do most manufactured articles consist of
assemblies of a number of separate parts?

A. Nothing can be manufactured from a single
piece of material.

B. All articles manufactured are separate parts.

C. Finished products that are constructed from
a single piece of material may not meet
design requirements and cannot be
practically produced at a reasonable cost.

D. Complex products with multiple material
properlies are easily made from a single
material on a routine basis.

A

Finished products that are constructed from
a single piece of material may not meet
design requirements and cannot be
practically produced at a reasonable cost.

168
Q

A designer must be familiar with both the
functional requirements of the product and the
probable market demand for various levels of quality and appearance. They must also be:

A. the mechanical properties of the material
they choose to manufacture the product.
B. the intricate details of how each manufacturing operation will be performed.
C. the final pricing of the product.
D. where the product will need to be
manufactured to give the greatest profit to
the manufacturer.

A

the mechanical properties of the material

they choose to manufacture the product.

169
Q

Proper application of inspection methods and
interpretation of their test indications relics
upon:

A. valid engineering drawings.
B. qualified nondestructive testing personnel.
C. a robust destructive testing process to prove
the product will not fail in service
D. professional supervision during the
manufacturing and assembly processes.

A

qualified nondestructive testing personnel.

170
Q 
In general, the most economical method for
producing complex shape changes with no
material volume change is:
A. machining.
b. casting.
C. welding.
d. shearing.
A

casting.

171
Q

Metal plating, clectrical dischargc machining,
chemical milling, and clectron beam machining
are all examples of which type of shape-changing processes?

A. No volume change method.
B. Addition or combination change method.
C. Subtraction or removal change method.
D. Special shape-changing method.

A

Special shape-changing method.

172
Q

Most of the metal that is refined is first cast as:

a. bar.
b. extrusion.
c. slab
d. pig or ingot.

A

pig or ingot.

173
Q

Metals, ceramics, semiconductors, and polymers
are the four major groups of which type of
materials?

A. Construction materials.
B. Engineering materials.
C. Raw materials.
D. Crystalline materials.

A

Engineering materials

174
Q

An example of a substitutional alloy, one where a
specific atom in a metal has been replaced by
another from a different element, would be:
A. plain carbon steel.
B. brass.
C. tungsten carbide.
D. silver.

A

brass

175
Q

A basic property of metal that allows it to be
extensively deformed under compression
without fracturing at room lemperature and
relatively high strain rates is called:

A. tensile strength.
B. creep resistance.
C. fracture toughness.
D. malleability.

A

malleability

176
Q

Large quantities of metals arc used in
engineering materials because of:

A. their wide variety of mechanical properties
and ability to conduct electricity and heat.
B. the high cost of extracting them from ore.
C. the rarity and complexity of extracting them
D. their low fracture toughness.

A

their wide variety of mechanical properties

177
Q

What type of engineering material has the ability
to keep its strength at high temperature (higher
than most metals and polymers), and is resistant
to most chemicals because of the strength and
stability of its bonds?
a. Plastics.
b. Composites.
c. Ceramics.
d. Pure alloys.

A

Ceramics

178
Q 
Thermistors are made from which of the
following?
A.Nano-conductors.
B.Composites.
C.Intrinsic semiconductors.
D.Extrinsic semiconductors.
A

Intrinsic semiconductors.

179
Q

Diodes, light-emitting diodes, and transistors are
all examples of which of the following?

A. Nano-conductors.
B. Composites.
C. Intrinsic semiconductors
D.Extrinsic semiconductors.

A

Extrinsic semiconductors.

180
Q

Regeling and re moline aleato trine drai als
advantages of which type of polymer?

A.Thermoplastic
B.Thermosetting.
C.Epoxy.
D.Covalent.

A

Thermoplastic

181
Q

Examples of natural composites would include
which of the following?

A. Concrete, cement, and brick.
B. Wood and granite.
C. Silk, beeswax, and bamboo.
D. Sandstone, coal, and slate.

A

Wood and granite.

182
Q

The properties of composites are greatly
influenced by the type of matrix and:

A. the time the matrix is allowed to cure.
B. the type, shape, and size of the reinforcement
materials used.
C. the colour of the matrix when exposed to
ultraviolet light.
D. the size of the object being manufactured.

A

the type, shape, and size of the reinforcement

materials used.

183
Q

Nearly inert, porous growth, surface reactive,
and absorbable are all examples of what broad
classification of engineering materials?

A. Noble metals
B. Biomaterials
C. Nano-materials
D. Bionic ceramics

A

Biomaterials

184
Q

Materials that change shape with temperature,
change dimension with application of an
electrical impulse, or respond to strain by
producing a magnetic field are called:

A. nano crystalline materials.
B. proprietary response materials.
C. smart materials.
D.activated materials.

A

smart materials.

185
Q

The number of protons in the nucleus of an
atom is referred to as which of the following?
a. Neutral number.
b. Atomic or Z-number.
c. Isotope number.
d. Electron-proton number.

A

Atomic or Z-number.

186
Q

Despite the advances in the use of composite
materials, the largest quantity of composites
comprises:
a. fiberglass.
carbon fiber.
c. concrete.
d. plywood.

A

concrete.

187
Q

Ionic, covalent, and metallic bonding are all
examples of what general type of chemical
bonding?
A. Strong bonds.
B. Weak bonds.
C.Permanent bonds.
D.Temporary bonds.

A

Strong bonds.

188
Q 
Which type of bond is always found in
compounds that contain both metallic and
nonmetallic elements?
a. Covalent.
b. Metallic.
C. Ionic.
d. Dipole-dipole.
A

Ionic

189
Q 
Two atoms that are covalently bonded will share
at least:
A. two electrons.
B. one electron.
C. two protons.
D. one proton.
A

one electron.

190
Q

The three most common lattice structures for
metals include which of the following?

a. Body-centered cubic, diagonal close-packed,
hexagonal open-packed.

b. Bodv-centered cubic. face-centered cubic,
diagonal close-packed.

c. Body-centered cubic, hexagonal
close-packed, diagonal close-packed.

d. Body-centered cubic. face-centered cubic,
hexagonal close-packed.

A

Body-centered cubic. face-centered cubic,

hexagonal close-packed.

191
Q

A material that has no well-defined crystalline
structure is often described as _____ in nature
A. ductile
B. amorphous
C. polymorphous
D. triaxial

A

amorphous

192
Q

Prior to the onset of vield, the ratio between
stress (amount of force per unit area) and strain
(change in length per unit length) is known as:

a. Avogadro’s number.
b. fatigue limit.
c. modulus of elasticity.
d. phase diagram.

A

modulus of elasticity.

193
Q

If an entire piece of material is only one crystal.
its properties will vary with direction. That
material is said to be:
a. allotropic.
b. anisotropic.
c. isotropic.
d. plastic.

A

anisotropic.

194
Q

If an entire piece of material is made up of small
crystals that are randomly oriented and its
properties are identical regardless of direction,
that material is said to be:
a. allotropic.
b. anisotropic.
c. isotropic.
d. plastic

A

isotropic.

195
Q

Iron has a body-centered cubic structure at
room temperature, but as it is heated this
structure changes to:
a. hexagonal close-packed.
b. body-centered tetragonal.
c. face-centered cubic.
d. hexagonal close-packed.

A

face-centered cubic.

196
Q 
Temporary deformation of a material when
stress is applied, which fully reverses when
stress is removed, is also known as:
a. plastic deformation.
b.elastic deformation.
c. thermal expansion.
d. viscous deformation.
A

elastic deformation.

197
Q

Permanent deformation of a material when a
stress is applied and then removed is also known as:
a. plastic deformation.
b. elastic deformation
c. magnetic deformation.
d. piezoelectric deformation

A

plastic deformation.

198
Q 
A \_\_\_\_\_ phase diagram graphically
illustrates the relationship between temperature,
composition, and the phases present in a
particular alloy system.
a. crystal
b. isothermal
c. equilibrium
d. atomic bonding
A

equilibrium

199
Q 
An iron-carbon mixture with more than 2.11%
carbon is commonly referred to as:
a. steel.
b. stainless steel.
c. cast iron.
d. primary iron.
A

cast iron.

200
Q

Heating a piece of material to a specific
temperature range, holding at that temperature
for a period of time, and cooling it slowly at a
specific cooling rate describes what
metalworking process?
a. Quenching.
b. Carburizing.
c. Forging.
d. Annealing.

A

Annealing.

201
Q

The technique used to provide uniformity in
grain size and composition throughout the
thickness of steel prior to further processing is
called:
a. full annealing.
b. process annealing.
c. normalizing.
d. stress relief.

A

normalizing.

202
Q

When some alloys are aged at room temperature
or at a slightly elevated temperature, it increases
the mechanical properties due to the precipitation of alloying elements. This procedure is called:

a. precipitation hardening.
b. cold hardening.
c. cold working.
d. precipitation softening.

A

precipitation hardening.

203
Q

The degradation of a material, or deterioration
of physical properties, due to a reaction with its environment describes:
a. abrasion.
b.corrosion.
c. fracture.
d. fatigue.

A

corrosion.

204
Q

The most common type of corrosion, which is
caused by a chemical or electrochemical reaction
that deteriorates the entire exposed surface of
the material. is referred to as:
a. localized corrosion.
b. pitting.
c. flow-assisted corrosion.
d. general corrosion.

A

general corrosion.

205
Q

Annealing to remove strain hardening due to
previous cold working and to restore ductility so
that additional cold working on the product can
be performed is called:
a. full annealing.
b. process annealing.
c. normalizing.
d. stress relief

A

process annealing.

206
Q

Corrosion that occurs under gaskets or seals,
inside cracks or seams, or in spaces filled with
deposits and under sludge piles is called:
a. filiform corrosion.
b. crevice corrosion.
c. galvanic corrosion.
d. erosion corrosion.

A

crevice corrosion.

207
Q

Corrosion that occurs as a result of localized
attack at or near the grain boundaries in a metal
or alloy is called:

a. crevice corrosion.
b. general corrosion.
c. intergranular corrosion.
d. fretting corrosion.

A

intergranular corrosion.

208
Q

The imperfection of crystals that are missing or
have a few extra atoms is referred to as a:
a. line defect.
b.point defect.
c. line dislocation.
d. screw dislocation.

A

point defect.

209
Q 
39. When the crvstalline lattice is deformed in a
spiral form, the dislocation is called:
a. line defect.
b. point defect.
c. line dislocation.
d. screw dislocation.
A

screw dislocation.

210
Q 
When a material is "cold worked" at room
temperature, causing plastic deformation, it
becomes harder to deform. This process is
called:
a. cold hardening.
b. case hardening.
c. strain hardening.
d. stress hardening.
A

strain hardening.

211
Q

A material that is plastically deformed (rolled.
pressed, drawn, extruded, and so on) above its
recrystallization temperature is said to have
been:
a. heat treated.
b. hot worked.
c. pressure treated.
d. pressure worked.

A

hot worked.

212
Q

The mass of an engineering material per unit of
volume (kg/m^3 or lb/ft^3) is also known as:
a. viscosity.
b. density.
c. volume.
d. area.

A

density

213
Q 
The thermal energy required to raise the
lemperature of a unit mass by one degree
measure by celsius (°C), kelvin (K). or
fahrenheit ("F) is known as:
a. applied heat.
b. melting point.
c. specific heat.
d. dispersal point.
A

specific heat.

214
Q

The quantity of heat transmitted per unit area
by a material of a given thickness and temperature gradient is known as:
a. thermal transmission.
b. thermal gradient.
c. thermal absorption
d. thermal conductivity.

A

thermal conductivity.

215
Q

In general, materials with high melting temps and strong bonds between atoms have a ____ than materials with lower melting points and weaker bonds between
atoms.
a. lower coefficient of thermal expansion
b. higher coefficient of thermal expansion
c. stronger coefficient o thermal expansion
d.weaker coefficient of thermal expansion

A

lower coefficient of thermal expansion

216
Q

When an applied load does not exceed vield
strength of the material and the material returns
to its original configuration after the load is
removed. this is known as:
a. plastic deformation
b. elastic deformation.
c. spring back.
d. resting state.

A

elastic deformation.

217
Q 
One of the most common tests for evaluating
the strength of a material is the:
a. brinell hardness test.
b. charpy impact test.
c. tensile test.
d. micro-hardness test.
A

tensile test

218
Q 
The maximum energy that can be absorbed per
unit volume without creating a permanent
distortion is known as:
a. tensile strength.
b.ultimate tensile strength.
c. modulus of elasticity.
d. modulus of resilience.
A

modulus of resilience.

219
Q

What material property, is measured that is
indicative of a materials ability to resist
permanent deformation or penetration with an
indenter under load?
a.Tensile strength.
b. Brittleness.
c. Toughness.
d. Hardness.

A

Hardness

220
Q

Vickers, knoop, rockwell, and brinell are all
examples of what type of material property test?
a. Tensile.
b.Impact.
c. Hardness.
d.Toughness.

A

Hardness

221
Q

The initiation of cracks at nucleation points.
such as stress concentration points or
inclusions, which begin to grow under cyclic
loading until they are large enough to cause
failure of a material, is called:
a. fatigue.
b.tension.
c. compression.
d. creep.

A

fatigue

222
Q

Iron tapped from the blast furnace during the
initial refining process from a mixture of iron
ore, hematite, magnetite, coke, and limestone is
referred to as:
a. billet.
b.slab.
c. ingot.
d. pig iron.

A

pig iron.

223
Q 
Onen-hearth. bessemer converter, electric arc.
and basic oxygen are all examples of:
a. secondary steel refining furnaces.
b. blast furnaces
c. primary ore refining furnaces.
d. forging equipment.
A

secondary steel refining furnaces

224
Q 
The principle use for wrought iron is in the
manufacturing of:
a. welded pipe.
b. plate steel.
c. strip steel.
d. extruded steel shapes.
A

a. welded pipe

225
Q

The majority of common carbon and low alloy
steels can be described by a standardized code
system developed by the American Iron and
Steel Institute, which consists of a letter
followed bu four or five numbers. The letter
refers to the:
a. carbon content of the steel.
b. steel manufacturing process used.
c. alloy content of the steel.
d. country of origin for the steel.

A

steel manufacturing process used.

226
Q

As the carbon content of steel is increased from
0.05% (low carbon), the strength of the material
also increases. This increase in strength causes a
loss of.
a. yield strength.
b. tensile strength.
c. hardness
d. ductility

A

ductility

227
Q

When the carbon content of pig iron is reduced
to less than 2% the resulting new material is
generically called:
a. cast iron.
b. white iron
c. gray iron
d. steel.

A

steel

228
Q

_____ are rarely hardened by heat treatment
because their carbon content permits so little
formation of hard martensite.
a. Alloy steels
b. Low carbon steels
c. Medium carbon steels
d. High carbon steels

A

Low carbon steels

229
Q 
Steels that contain
carbon contain
sufficient carbon that they may be heat treated
for desirable strength, hardness, machinability
or other properties.
a. 3 to 6%
b. 0.06 to 0.25%
c. 0.25 to 0.5%
d. 1.6 to 2.1%
A

0.25% to 0.5%

230
Q

Carbon steel, classified as tool and die steel, in
which hardness is the principle property desired,
is referred to as:
a. alloy steel.
b. low carbon steel.
c. medium carbon steel.
d. high carbon steel.

A

high carbon steel.

231
Q 
Alloying elements can affect all but which of the
following properties?
a. Weldability.
b. Hardness.
c. Corrosion resistance.
d. Contrast.
A

Contrast.

232
Q 
One advantage of cast steel over wrought steel is
that:
a. cast steel is isotropic.
b. wrought steel is isotropic.
c. cast steel is anisotropic.
d. wrought steel is anisotropic.
A

cast steel is isotropic.

233
Q 
The two major categories of aluminum alloys
are:
a. quenched and tempered.
b. cast and wrought.
c. heat-treated and age-hardened.
d. tempered and annealed.
A

cast and wrought.

234
Q 
The density of aluminum is approximately
that of steel.
a. one-quarter
b. one-third
c. one-half
d.one-fifth
A

one-third

235
Q

Copper alloys exhibit a combination of
corrosion resistance and thermal conductivity
that makes them useful as:

a. roofing material and drain piping.
b. baking and cooking vessels.
c. radiators and heat exchangers.
d. vent ducting and drip collectors.

A

radiators and heat exchangers.

236
Q

The addition of 5% nickel or more than 10%
chromium greatly increases the ability of the
allov to primarily:
a. resist fracture.
b. resist corrosion.
c. resist elongation.
d. resist creep.

A

resist corrosion.

237
Q

Nearly three-quarters of all nickel produced is
used for:
a. plating material and as an alloying element
in steel.
b. plating material and the production of currency
c. the production of currency and minting coins.
d. an alloying element for copper.

A

plating material and as an alloying element

in steel.

238
Q

Magnesium is the lightest metal commercially
available, with a density approximately _____ of aluminum.
a. one-quarter (1/4)
b.one-third (1/3)
c. one-half (1/2)
d. two-thirds (2/3)

A

two-thirds 2/3

239
Q

The high rate of strain hardening in magnesium
lessens its ability to permit plastic flow at a stress concentration point. This condition is known as:
a. hardness.
b. notch sensitivity.
c. ductile transition.
d. yield elasticity.

A

notch sensitivity.

240
Q 
Titanium has a high corrosion resistance in all
but which of the following environments?
a. General atmosphere.
b. Marine environment.
c. Reducing acids.
d. Biological environments.
A

Reducing acids.

241
Q 
Titanium, like magnesium and zirconium, has a
high rate of strain hardening due to its
crystalline structure. Its structure is:
a. body-centered cubic.
b. face-centered cubic.
c. close-packed hexagonal
d. face-centered hexagonal
A

close-packed hexagonal

emc (1 decks)

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