Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neonates/Children > Embryology and Pregnancy > Flashcards

Embryology and Pregnancy Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Sight Words (Ages 4-6) flashcards UMT for Kids flashcards
1
Q

Finding of Low Alpha Fetoprotein in amniotic fluid

A

Down syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is derived from the 3rd and 4th laryngeal pouches

A

1) Thymus

2) Parathyroid glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is derived from Ratchkes pouch

A

Adenohypophysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Component of pulomonary surfactant

A

Phosphatidylcholine (lecithin)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Used to measure the fetal lung maturity

A

Lecithin/sphingomyelin ration (L/S)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

At what week should the L/S ratio be 2:1

A

35th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What component from the mother exerts the greatest effect on the L/S ratio?

A

1) Cortisol

2) Cortisol has the greatest effect on increasing surfactant production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the processus vaginalis?

A

It is the invagination of the peritoneum that takes place when the testicles descend

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What occurs when the processus vaginalis remains?

A

1) Persistent connection between scrotum and peritoneal cavity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What occurs in week 2 of early development of the fetus?

A

1) Development of the bilaminar disc

2) Consists of 2 layers (hypoblast and epiblast)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What occurs in week 3 of early development of the fetus?

A

1) Development of the trilaminar disc
2) Consists of 3 layers (Ectoderm, Mesoderm, and endoderm)
3) Gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Process that forms the trilaminar embryonic disc. Establishes the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm germ layers

A

Gastrulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

How does gastrulation begin?

A

1) Invagination of the epiblast

2) Forms the primitive streak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does the ectoderm consist of?

A

1) Surface ectoderm
2) Neuroectoderm (CNS)
3) Neural crest cells (PNS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What does the mesoderm consist of?

A

1) Muscle
2) Bone
3) Cardiac
4) Renal
5) Vasculature
6) Adrenal cortex
7) Dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What does the endoderm consist of?

A

1) Gut tube epithelium

2) Luminal epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the pharyngeal clefts derived from? Archs? Pouches?

A

1) Clefts = ectoderm
2) Arches = mesoderm
3) Pouches = endodermd

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

When does the heart begin to beat in the fetus?

A

Week 4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What does the first pharyngeal cleft develop into?

A

External auditory meatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does the 1st pharyngeal arch become?

A

Chew

1) Muscles for mastifiction
2) CN V2 and V3
3) Meckles cartilage (manible, malleus, incus, sphenomandibular ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What does the 2nd pharyngeal arch become?

A

Smile

1) Reichert’s cartilage: stapes, styloid process
2) CNVII
3) Muscles: muscles of facial expression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What does the 3rd pharyngeal arch become?

A

Stylishly swallow

1) Muscles: Stylopharyngeus
2) CN IX (glossopharyngeal nerve)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What does the 4th-6th pharyngeal arches become?

A

Simply swallow and speak

1) Cartilages: thyroid, cricoid, arytenoids
2) 4th = pharyngeal constrictors; 6th = intrinsic muscles of larynx
3) 4th = CN X, 6th = CN X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What do the pharyngeal pouches develop into?

A

Ear, Tonsil, Bottom to Top
1st pouch = middle ear cavity and eustachian tube
2nd pouch = epithelial lining of palatine tonsil
3rd pouch = inferior parathyroids and thymus
4th pouch = superior parathyroids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Agenesis of 3rd and 4th pharyngeal pouches?

A

Di George syndrome

1) Hypocalcemia
2) Immunosuppressed
3) Cardiac defects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What embryological structure develops into the female reproductive structures?

A

Paramesonephric (Mullerian) duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

How does male development occur in fetus?

A

1) Y chromosome carries the SRY gene which produces testis-determining factor
2) Sertoli cell secrete Mullerian inhibitory factor (MIF) that suppress the development of the paramesonephric duct

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What secretes androgens to stimulate development of the mesonephric duct?

A

Leydig cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What do Sertoli cells produce early on in development of a fetus sex?

A

Mullerian inhibitory factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Describe the early development of the fetus from week 1 to 10

A

1) Week 1 = hCG secretion after implantation
2) Week 2 = bilaminar disc development
3) Week 3 = trilaminar disc development/gastrulation
4) Week 3-8 = Organogenesis; susceptible to teratogens
5) Week 4 = heart beats and limbs develop
6) Week 8 = fetal movment
7. Week 10 = genitalia have characteristics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

When is the fetus most susceptible to teratogens?

A

3rd-8th week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What do the following teratogens do to the fetus?

1) ACE inhibitor
2) Alkylating agents
3) Aminoglycosides
4) Carbamazepine (anti-convulsant)
5) Diethylstilbestrol
6) Warfarin
7) Heparin

A

1) Renal damage
2) Absence of digits, multiple anomalies
3) CN VIII toxicity
4) Neural tube defects (spina bifida)
5) Vaginal Clear cell adenocarcinoma and T shaped uterine cavity
6) Stippled epiphyses and nasal hypoplasia
7) Prematurity and fetal demise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What do the following teratogens do to the fetus?

1) Folate antagonists
2) Lithium
3) Phenytoin and Diphenylhydantoin
4) Tetracylcine
5) Thalidomide
6) Lisinopril
7) Valproic acid
8) Retinoids (Isotretinoin or Etritinate)

A

1) Neural tube defect
2) Ebstein’s anomaly (atrialized right ventricle)
3) Fetal hydantoin syndrome
4) Discolored teeth
5) Limb defect (flippers)
6) Fetal mortality
7) Neural tube defect, cardiac, and skeletal abnormalities
8) Ear defects, blindness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What do the 1-4,6 aortic arch derivatives become?

A

1) 1= maxillary artery
2) 2 = Stapedial
3) 3 = Common Carotid and part of internal carotid
4) 4 = Right subclavian and Left part of aortic arch
5) 6 = Proximal part of pulmonary arteries and ductus arteriosus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What does the Wolffian duct make up?

A

SEED

1) Seminal vesicles
2) Epididymis
3) Ejaculatory duct
4) Ductus deferens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What is the triple marker screen?

A

1) alpha fetoprotein
2) hCG
3) Uncongugated estriol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

External intestines with no peritoneal lining

A

Gastrochisis

38
Q

External intestines with peritoneal lining

A

Omphalocele

39
Q

Low triple marker screen

A

Edward’s syndrome (trisomy 18)

40
Q

Craniofacial defects, mitral regurgitation, other cardiac problems

A

Fetal Alcohol syndrome

41
Q

Rupture without signs of labor

A

Premature rupture of membranes (PROM)

42
Q

Death of fetus past 20 weeks of gestation

A

Intrauterine Fetal demise

43
Q

What are women with intrauterine fetal demise at an increased risk for?

A

DIC

44
Q

Difficult delivery of the shoulder lasting at least 60 seconds from when the head delivers

A

Shoulder Dystocia

45
Q

Number of times a pt. has been pregnant

A

Gravida

46
Q

Number of times a person has delivered

A

Para

47
Q

Greater than 37 week delivery

A

Term

48
Q

Delivery between 20-36.6 weeks

A

Preterm

49
Q

Pregnancy ending prior to 20 weeks

A

Abortions

50
Q

What are the numbers after Para?

A

Texas Power And Light1) Term2) Preterm3) Abortion4) Living

51
Q

How do you determine due date?

A

9 months plus 7 days

52
Q

What are uterine factors for spontaneous abortion?

A

1) Cervical incompetence2) Congenital Abnormal Uterus3) Fibroids4) Intrauterine adhesions (Ashermann syndrome)

53
Q

What do these disease have in common? (Sickle cell anemia, CF, Tay-Sach, Thallasemia

A

Autosomal recessive

54
Q

What do these diseases have in common? (Tuberous sclerosis, neurofibromatosis, achondroplasia, craniofacial synostosis, adult onset polycystic kidney disease)

A

Autosomal dominant

55
Q

Premature separation of the implanted placenta

A

Abruptio Placentae

56
Q

What are the clinical findings of Abruptio placentae?

A

1) Painful vaginal bleeding
2) Uterine tenderness
3) Hyperactivity
4) Increased uterine tone

57
Q

How is Abruptio placentae diagnosed?

A

Diagnosed based on clinical findings

58
Q

What are complications of Abruptio placentae?

A

1) Hypoxia and fetal death
2) DIC
3) Hypovolemic shock
4) Acute renal failure
5) Sheehan’s syndrome

59
Q

Complete separation of the uterine musculature through all of its layers leading to fetus being extruded from the uterine cavity; sudden onset of abdominal pain, abnormal fetal heart pattern

A

Uterine rupture

60
Q

Describe the Apt Test?

A

1) Test used to determine origin of blood
2) Blood is obtained from the vagina and placed in tap water
3) KOH is added
4) Brown = mom; Red = fetus

61
Q

Loss of 500 mL after vaginal delivery or 1000 mL after Cesarean delivery

A

Postpartum Hemorrhage

62
Q

Most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage

A

Uterine Atony

63
Q

Differential for Postpartum Hemorrhage

A

1) Uterine atony
2) Genital tract trauma
3) Retained placental tissue
4) Uterine inversion
5) Low placental implantation
6) Coagulation disorder
7) Abruptio placentae

64
Q

Differential for Antepartum Hemorrhage

A

1) Placenta previa
2) Abruptio placentae
3) Uterine rupture
4) Fetal vessel rupture

65
Q

What is the most common cause of Abruptio placentae?

A

Maternal Hypertension

66
Q

painful vaginal bleeding in associate with uterine tenderness, hyperactivity and increased tone

A

Abruptio placentae

67
Q

Treatment for uterine rupture

A

Total abdominal hysterectomy

68
Q

Fever and increasing uterine tenderness after postpartum day 2-3

A

Puerperal sepsis

69
Q

What is the management for preterm labor?

A

1) Culture
2) Steroids (used for fetal lung maturity)
3) Tocolysis

70
Q

What is a tocolytic?

A

1) Magnesium sulfate- competes Ca

71
Q

What are post-term pregnacies at risk for?

A

1) Fetal mortality

2) Meconium is more common

72
Q

How much weight should a woman gain during pregnancy?

A

10-40lbs

73
Q

What is placenta accreta? increta? percreta?

A

1) attachment to myometirum
2) Invading the myometrium
3) attchement through the myometrium to the serosa

74
Q

What is the most common cause of DIC in pregnancy?

A

Abruptio Placentae

75
Q

When unprotected vessels pass over the cervical os

A

Vasa previa

76
Q

Pulmonary hypoplasia, limb deformaties, and characteristic facies due to oligohydramnios; occurs with renal agenesis

A

Potter syndrome

77
Q

New onset of hypertension prior to 20 weeks gestational age; >140/90

A

Gestational hypertension

78
Q

What are cystic hygromas associated with?

A

Turner syndrome

79
Q

Mass composed of cystic spaces of connective tissue rich in lymphoid aggregates associated with turner syndrome

A

Cystic hygroma

80
Q

What are the complications of Turner syndrome?

A

1) Webbed neck
2) Primary amenorrhea
3) Low hair line
4) Cystic hygroma
5) Lymphedema
6) Shield chest
7) Short stature

81
Q

What do neural crests become?

A

1) Enteric nervous system
2) Adrenal medulla chromaffin cells
3) C cells of thyroid
4) Atrioventricular and aorticpulmonary septae
5) CN

82
Q

What is the FGF gene important for?

A

Limb lengthening

1) Defect observed in achondroplasia

83
Q

What is the sonic hedgehog gene important for?

A

CNS development

84
Q

What is the Wnt-7 gene important for?

A

Organization along dorsal-ventral axis

85
Q

What is the result of a defective Hox gene

A

appendages in wrong locations

86
Q

What defect has occured if pt. has primary ammenorrhea but secondary sex characteristics?

A

Failure of Mullerian ducts to fully develop

87
Q

21 day old boy has palpable swelling in neck, feeds well, Favors looking toward right, firm swelling on the left side of neck that does not move when swallowed; no other findings

A

Torticollis

88
Q

Cause of torticollis

A

Intrauterine malposition

89
Q

Failure of the maxillary prominence and medial nasal prominence to fuse

A

Cleft lip

90
Q

Failure of the intermaxillary segment and maxillary prominences to fuse

A

Cleft palate

Neonates/Children (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions