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IMS > embryology > Flashcards

embryology Flashcards

1
Q

what does cranial refer to?

A

relating to the skull/ cranium

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2
Q

what area does caudal refer to?

A

tail end

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3
Q

what area does ventral refer to?

A

underside / abdominal

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4
Q

what area does dorsal refer to?

A

upperside/back

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5
Q

what are the 2 methods to date a pregnancy?

A

fertilisation age

menstrual age

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6
Q

how does fertilisation age date pregnancy?

A

it splits it into 3 stages:

  1. early development (ED) - cell devision and pre-embryonic
  2. embryonic (E) - organgenesis period
  3. foetal period - F
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7
Q

how does menstrual age date pregnancy?

A

dates pregnancy from the womans last menstrual period. splits it into 3 equal trimesters and lasts 2 weeks longer than fertilisation age to account for ovulation

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8
Q

what 2 main areas that cause congenital malformations?

A

genetic and environment

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9
Q

what are environmental factors that cause congenital malformations called and give examples

A

teratogens

  • infections
  • chemicals
  • physical (radiation)
  • maternal disease (diabetes)
  • deficiency of folic acid
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10
Q

when is the foetus most vulnerable ?

A

highest risk during the embryonic period - week 5 peak

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11
Q

what are the most common infectious agents that cause birth defects - TORCH

A

toxoplasmosis

other organisms = i ncluding a range of viruses such as parovirus, HIV, Epstein-barr, herpes and 8, varicella, syphilis and enterovirus

Rubella

cytomegalovirus

Herpes

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12
Q

what is taxoplasmosis?

A

toxoplasmosis = parasite found in cat faeces and uncooked/ raw meat
can cause inflammation of retina, hearing loss, enlarged spleen, hydrocephaly and microcephaly

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13
Q

what is rubella?

A

Rubella = infection passses over placenta in first 3 months of pregnancy leading to cloudy cornea, intellectual disability, microcephaly and heart defects

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14
Q

what is cytomegalovirus?

A 
virus that crosses placenta
infection via bodily fluids, usually asymptomatic.
can cause:
-enlarged spleen
-mineral deposits on the brain
-microcephaly
-psychomotor retardation
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15
Q

what is herpes virus?

A

herpes simplex - passsed on during birth
varicella zoster virus - chickenpox most dangerous 13-20 weeks or just before birth to 2 days postpartum

can cause:
-segmental skinloss/scarring
-limb gypoplasia/paresis
-microcephaly
visual defects
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16
Q

what are the effects of thalidomide on feotus?

A

causes shortened/absent limbs when used to treat morning sickness
now used to treat leprosy and HIV

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17
Q

what are the effects of alcohol on feotus?

A

foetal alcohol syndrom;

  • clear relationship between alcohol consumption and congenital malformation
  • small eye opening, smooth philtrum and thin upper lip
  • prenatal and postnatal growth retardation
  • intellectual disability
  • impaired motor ability and coordination
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18
Q

describe capacitation

A

the functional maturation of spermatozoon. it allows the acrosome reaction to occur.
the physiological changes that confer the sperm the ability to fertilise
1. enzymes produced by the endometrium (edacpacitation factors) act on the sperm cleaving surface glycoproteins and increasing membrane calcium permeability
2. causes an increase in cAMP and results in hyper mobility of sperm and destabilisation of the membrane surrounding the acrosome at the head of the sperm- so it can fuse with the oocyte - exposed parts to bind with zona pellucida

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19
Q

describe the acrosome reaction

A

capacitated sperm pass through the corona radiate (cells around the egg).
the acrosome releases sperm that allows sperm to penetrate the zona pellucida.
sperm penetration initiates the zona/cortical reaction

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20
Q

describe the zona reaction

A

the modifatio of the zona pellucida in response to fertilisation.
cortical granules shut down the zygote preventing polyspermy.
firstly the zona pellucida hardens, so no more sperm can enter then the sperm receptors in the zona pellucida are destroyed so any sperm that havent bound to the zona pellucida no longer can bind. therefore the zona pellucida becomes inpentrable and DNA from the male makes its way into the oocyte

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21
Q

describe the formation of the morula

A

when a zygote (singular fertilised egg cell) divides, this is called cleavage.
when it divides, the number of cells increases, but the overall size does not and the cells are still in the zona pellucida.
when it divides to 16-32 cells, it is the morula

currently in the fallopian tube

this is day 4 post fertilisaiton

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22
Q

describe the components of the morula

A

the inner cell mass makes the embryo - embryoblasts

the outer cell mass forms the support structures (placenta) - trophoblasts

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23
Q

describe the transformation of the blastocyst from the morula

A

uterine fluid enters intracellular spaces of the morula through the zona pellucida.
the inner cell mass becomes more compact forming the mebryoblasts

the outer cell mass flattens to form the trophoblats.

the cells of the blastocyst are called blastomeres

day 5 and moves into uterus

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24
Q

what is cleavage?

A

special form of mitosis where the cells get smaller gradually in size

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25
Q

describe baslocyst hatching and the initiation of implantation into the endometrium of the uterus

A

occurs around day 5-6, involves the blastocyst hatching out of the protective zona pellucida
this allows increased growth, access to uterine nutrient secretions and blastocyst adhesion to the uterine lining

the blastocyst then implants onto the endometrium.

26
Q

describe the differentiation of the trophoblast into syncytiotrophoblast and cytotrophoblast

A

when trohpoblast comes into contact with the nedometrium

the inner layer of the trohpoblast which is external to the all of the blastocyst differentiates into cytotrophoblasts, through fusion or invasion lineage

syncytiotrophoblasts differentiate from cytotrophoblasts by fusion pathway

27
Q

describe the differentiation of the embryoblast into epiblasts and hypoblast

A

embroyblast differentiates into epiblast (on inside) and hypoblast cells (on top) forming bilaminar disc

28
Q

what does the trophoblast differentiate into?

A

syncytiotrophoblasts and cytotrophoblasts

29
Q

what dpes the embryoblast differentiate into?

A

epiblast and hypoblast

30
Q

what is the importance of the epiblast and hypoblast in establishing the dorsal/ventral exis of the embryo?

A

bilaminar disc formation is the first stage of organisation of the body plan. it establishes the dorsal/ventral axis of the embryo - epiblast being the dorsal side, implanting (back first) into the endometrium lining. hypoblast cells form the ventral surface

31
Q

describe the full implantation of the blasocyst

A

syncytiotrophoblasts are the outer layer of the embryo and secrete enzymes which digest the embryos way into the uterine lining

32
Q

describe the formation of the amnionic cavity

A

small fluid filled cavity forms between the epiblast and the cytotrophoblast

33
Q

describe the formation of the yolk sac

A

the migration of hypoblast cells to encase the blastocyst cavity at day 9 this is completely implanted and covered with hypoblast cells, forming the primary yolk sac.

a second wave of hypoblast cells migrate to form a secondary (definitive) yolk sac which pushes cells away from the embryo.

34
Q

describe the production of human gonadotrophin and its importance in pregnancy testing

A

syncytiotrophoblasts secrete HCG which helps to maintain endometrium and may play a role in maternal immunotolerance which is a good indicator of pregnancy, this can be detected in urine

35
Q

what is the name for the type of pregnancy where the embryo implants in abnormal sites

A

ectopic preganacy

36
Q

why can embryo implant into abdominal site?

A

the gap between the ovary and frimbrae allows fertilised egg to go through

37
Q

uterine tube implantation can cause …

A

haemmorage as the embryo grows as it can rupture the uterine tube

may have to have uterine tube removed along with foetus

38
Q

what can occur as a result of abdominal pregnancy?

A

lithopaedon, when abdominal pregnacy remain undiagnosed and the foetus dies due to lack of blood supply, it is too large to be reabsorbed so it calcifies instead to protect the mother from necrotic tissue of the foetus

39
Q

what is placenta privia

A

when implantation occurs near the cervix and can cause severe bleeding in late pregnancy

40
Q

describe the formation of a hydatidiform mole

A

development of the trophoblast without any embryonic tissue due to fertilisation of an empty egg lacking a nucleus
syncytiotrophoblasts will still produce HCG so gives positive pregnancy test

41
Q

explain the process of gastrulation

A

gastrulation commences in week 3 with the formation of the primitive streak
epiblast cells move towards the primitive streak
these cells then detach from the epiblast and insert into the hypoblast to replace the hypoblast cells
successive migration leads to the formation of 3 germ layers
this forms the mesoderm which is the second germ layer and the ectoderm which is the 3rd germ layer

42
Q

what does gastrulation do?

A

transform bilaminar embryonic disc into a trilaminar disc

43
Q

what are the derivatives of the ectoderm

A

the ectoderm forms the epidermis of the skin and epidermal derivatives (hair, nails, sweat glands, mammory glands), nervous tissue and sense organs, pituitary gland , adrenal medulla, enamel of teeth and lens of eye

44
Q

what are the derivatives of the mesoderm?

A

dermis of the skin, epithelial (lining of blood vessels, lymph vessels, body cavities and joint caviities), muscle tissue, connective tissue, adrenal cortex, heart, kidney and ureters, internal reproductive organs and spleen

45
Q

what are the derivatives of the endoderm

A

epithetlial (lining of respiratory tract, GI tract, lymphatic cavity, autiory tube, urinary bladder and urethra), liver, glalbladder, pancreas, thymus, thyroid gland, parathyroid glands, palatine tonsils

46
Q

how is the notochord formed?

A

while the primitive streak is regressing, the primitive nodes form the notochordal process (hollow tube)

the notochordal process transiently fuses with the endoderm to form the flattened notochordal plate

the notochordal plate separates from the endoderm and fuses to form solid notochord

47
Q

describe the role of the notochord in inducing neurulation

A

notochord initates neurulation by releasing signals that cause the overyling ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate
the tube formed ends up becoming the brain and the spinal chord

48
Q

describe the role of the notochord in inducing the formation of the vertebrae

A

the notochord initiates and organises the formation of the vertebrae from somites. the notochord induces differentiation of the somites into 3 parts - sclerotome (bone and cartilage), myotome (skeletal muscle) and dermatome (dermis)

the notochord then organises the sclerotome which srurounds the notochord to form the ventral body and surround the neural tube to form the vertebral arch

most og the notochord degenerates as bodies of vertebrae form. remnants perists as nucleus pulpous of invertebral discs

49
Q

what are the two uses of the notochrod?

A

to intiate the formation of the vertebrae and neurulation - forming the neural tube

50
Q

what are the consequences of abnormal formation of vertebrae?

A

spina bifida

51
Q

what are the 3 main types of spina bifida?

A

spina bifida - spinal chord does not form properly. in spina bifida part of the neural tube does not form properly. - tuft of hair over defected point

meningocele - severe type of spinabifida where the protective membranes around the spinal cord (meninges) push out through the spine. the spinal cord usually develops normally so surgery can be done to remove the membranes without damaging the nerves

myelomeningocele - the most severe type of spina bifida, where the babys spinal canal remains open along several vertebrae in the back, allowing the spinal cord and protective membranes around it to push out and form a sac in the babys back

52
Q

describe the process of neurulation and the formation of the neural tube

A

the overlying ectoderm to thicken and form the neural plate (induction)

53
Q

describe the consequences of abnormal neurulation and neural tube defects

A

anecephaly - the forebrain does not form, affecting cognition, memory, speech, vision and hearing. a brain stem is present but it is usually exposed (has functioning heart, lungs and some reflexes)

rachsischisis - complete spina bifida where there s a cleft through the entire spinal column

54
Q

how can neural tube defects be prevented?

A

by ensuring mother has enough folic acid before and during pregnancy

55
Q

what is the origin of neural crest cells?

A

the come from cells at the lateral edge that separate the neural tube

56
Q

what are the derivatives of the neural crest cells?

A

they disperse widely and differentiate into a variety of strcuture s thoughout the body

such as head connective and skeletal structures, nerves and pigment cells

57
Q

describe the consequences of neural crest development

A

neurofibromatosis which is a genetic condition caused by a mutation in neurofibrin 1 (NF1) gene. this is a tumour surpressor gene that is switched off = benign tumours of nervous system, skin and cranial bones

58
Q

describe ventral wall defects

A

ectopia cordis - lateral folds fail to fuse in thracic region, leaving the heart outside the body
gastrochisis - lateral folds fail to fuse in the abdominal region so intestines lie outside of the body walls, short time period to put into a septic bag so baby can grow space inside for intestinal contents

59
Q

what are some common causes of infertility in women?

A 
endocrine disorders
uterine or uterine tube abnormalities
endometriosis
anti-sperm antibodies
ageing
cancer treatment
60
Q

what are some common causes of infertility in men?

A

endocrine disorder
testicular abnormalities - decreased sperm o testosterone production
absence of vas deferends -cystic fibrosis
infection - mumps causes swelling of testes
anti sperm antibodies
obstruction of tract
varicocele (twisted and dilated veins around testicles = rasiign temperature and decreasing testicular function)
retrograde ejaculation (sperm released into bladder)
impotence
smoking
over weight
antibiotics
cancer treatment

61
Q

what are 5 articifcal reprodcutive technologies t?

A 
intrauterine insemination (IUI)
in vitro feritilsation (IVF) and embryo transfer
intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI)
gamete intrafallopian transfer (GIFT)
zygote intrafallopian transfer (ZIFT)

IMS (14 decks)

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