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Comprehensive Exam COB- Aubrey > Embryology > Flashcards

Embryology Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The principal energy source for ejaculation spermatozoa is:
    a. prostatic acid phosphatase
    b. internal glucose
    c. prostatic citric acid
    d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid
    e. glycogen release from the vaginal epithelium
A

d. fructose in seminal vesicle fluid

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2
Q
  1. Of the barriers to sperm survival and transport within the female reproductive tract, low pH is most important in the:
    a. upper uterine tube
    b. lower uterine tube
    c. uterine cavity
    d. cervix (is a barrier for other reasons not pH)
    e. vagina
A

e. vagina

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3
Q
  1. During the menstrual cycle, a sharp spike in plasma levels of which of the following hormone jus before ovulation is responsible for ovulation?
    a. fsh
    b. LH
    c. estrogen
    d. progesterone
    e. estradiol 17 beta
A

b. LH

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4
Q
  1. Transcription of which of the following genes is required to permit cleavage to proceed to the 2 cell stage in mammalian embryos?
    a. nanog
    b. 4-oct
    c. cdx-2
    d. sox-2
A

b. 4-oct

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following cells are responsible for the production of testosterone in the testes?
    a. sertoli cells
    b. leydig cell
    c. grandulose cells
    d. spermatogonia
A

b. leydig cell

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6
Q
  1. The graafian follicle, in addition to participating in ovulation, also has endocrine function. What components of the graafin cfollicle formteh corpus luteum?
    a. granulose cells
    b. Thecal cells
    c. Corona radiate cells
    d. Both granulose and thecal cells
A

d. Both granulose and thecal cells

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7
Q
  1. In mammalian embryos, unlike non mammalian and inverte embryos, most transcription via the embryonic genome, as opposed to the maternal genome, occurs as early as which ofhe following stages
    a. zygote
    b. 4-cell stage
    c. balstula
    d. gastula
A

b. 4-cell stage

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8
Q
  1. In Drosophoila from which ofhte following genes categories adre mRNA derived fromt eh maternal genone rathe than embryonic genome
    a. Egg polarity genes
    b. Pair rule genes
    c. Homeotic genes
    d. Gap genes
A

a. Egg polarity genes

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9
Q
  1. Which of the following is a transcription factor
    a. FGF
    b. Pax
    c. TGF
    d. Notch
    e. Wnt
A

b. Pax

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10
Q
  1. Zinc fingers or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules?
    a. Proto-oncogenes
    b. Signaling molecules
    c. Receptors
    d. Transcription factors
    e. None of the above
A

d. Transcription factors

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11
Q

**12. Sonic hedgehog is produced in which signaling center

a. Notochord
b. Interstinal portals
c. Floor plate of neural tube
d. Zone of polarizing activity in the limb bud
e. All of the above

A

e. All of the above

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12
Q
  1. Based on your knowledge of paralogous groups, which gene would be expressed most anteriorly in the embryo?
    a. Hoxa-13
    b. Hoxc-9
    c. Hoxd-13
    d. Hoxb-1
    e. Hoxb-6
A

d. Hoxb-1

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13
Q

**14. The principal inductor in primary neural induction is the:

a. Hypoblast
b. Primitive streak
c. Extraembryonic mesoderm
d. Notochordal process
e. Embryonic ectoderm

A

d. Notochordal process

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14
Q
  1. Cells of which germ layer are not present in the oropharyngeal membrane?
    a. Ectoderm
    b. Mesoderm
    c. Endoderm
    d. All are present
A

b. Mesoderm

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15
Q
  1. Brachyury, a deficiency in caudal tissues in the body, is cuased by a mutation in what gene?
    a. Lim-1
    b. Noggin
    c. T
    d. Sonic hedgehog
    e. Activin
A

c. T

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16
Q

**Hypoblast is a bilaminar, early embryo gives rise to which of the following tissue types?

a. Extraembryonic only
b. Embryonic only
c. Embryonic and extraembryonic
d. Neither

A

a. Extraembryonic only

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17
Q
  1. In meiosis pair of homologous chromosomes begins during which of the followoing stages of prophase I: a. Leptotine b. Zygotene c. Pachytene d. Diplotene
A

b. Zygotene

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following description best describes the oogonium and the ovary during the early fetal period? a. Diploid, no follicle b. Diploid, few follicle cells c. Haploid, no follicle d. Haploid, few follicle cells
A

a. Diploid, no follicle

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19
Q
  1. Inhibin released by the granulose cells during the mammary cycle inhibits secretions of gonadotropins especially FSH. Resulting in which of the following
A

Regression of the corpus luteum

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20
Q
  1. Splitting of the blastocyst during early development, results in the two complete blastocyst enclose within a single trophoblast is the most common mode of twinning. Assuming complete normal identical twins result what developmental property is illustrated? a. Differentiation b. Determination c. Regulation d. Morphogenesis
A

c. Regulation

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21
Q

A 33 year old woman has have both ovaries removed because of large bilateral ovarian cyst. The next year she is on an extended expedition in northern canada, and her canoe tips, sending her replacement hormonal medicate to the bottom of the lake. More than 6 weeks elapse before she is able to obtain a new supply of medication. Which of the following would be least affected by the loss of the medication? A. blood levels of FSH and LH B. Ciliated cells of the uterine tube C. Mass of the heart D. Glandular tissue of the breasts E. Thickness of the endometirum

A

C. Mass of the heart

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22
Q

During spermatogenesis, histone is replaced by which of the following, to allow better packing of the condensed chromatin in the head of the spermatozoon? A. inhibin b. prostaglandin E c. testosterone d. protamine e. androgen-binding protein

A

d. protamine

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23
Q

Which cell type is located outside the blood-testis barrier? A. spermatozoon B. Secondary spermatocyte C. Spermatid D. Primary spermatocyte E. Spermatogonium

A

E. Spermatogonium

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24
Q

Which of the following cells normally participates in mitotic divisions? A. primary oocyte B. oogonium C. Primary spermatocyte D. spermatid E. secondary spermatocyte

A

B. oogonium

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25
Q

** At what stage of oogenesis is meiosis arrested in the female?

Metaphase I

Anaphase I

Prophase I

Metaphase II

Telophase I

A

At prophase (dipotene stage) of the first meiotic division and at metaphase of second meiotic division

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26
Q

What is the underlain cause of most spontaneous abortions during the early weeks of pregnancy?

A

Chromosomal abnormalities such as polyploidy

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27
Q

**The actions of what hormones are responsible for the changes in the endometrium during the menstrual cycle

A

Estrogen, secreted by ovary support preovulatory proliferative phase Progesterone is secreted by corpus luteum

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28
Q

Sertoli cells in the testis are stimulated by what two major reproductive hormones?

A

FSH produced by anterior pituitary Testosterone produced by Leydig cells

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29
Q

What is the principle hormonal stimulus for ovulation?

A

The sharp surge of LH

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30
Q

What is capacitation?

A

Interaction between a spermatozoon and female reproductive tissues that increase sperm ability to fertilize an egg

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31
Q

Where does fertilization occur?

A

upper this of uterine tube

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32
Q

What is polyspermy, how is it prevented after a spermatozoon enters the egg

A

prevented through fast block

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33
Q

What is the most common condition associated with spontaneous aborted embryos? A. Maternal imprinting B. Paternal imprinting C. Ectopic pregnancy D. Chromosomal abnormailites E. Lack of X-chromosomal inactivation

A

D. Chromosomal abnormailites

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34
Q

What tissue from the implanting embryo directly interfaces with the endometrial connective tissue A. Corona radiata B. Inner cell mass C. Extraembryonic mesoderm D. Epiblast E. Syncytiotrophoblast

A

E. Syncytiotrophoblast

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35
Q

The zona pellucida: A. Aids in the penetration of the endometrail epithelium B. Serves as a source of nutrients for the embryo C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo D. All of the above E. None

A

C. Prevents premature implantation of the cleaving embryo

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36
Q

What is the importance of the inner cell mass of the cleaving embryo?

A

The embryonic body proper arises from the inner cell mass

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37
Q

Parental imprinting is a phenomenon showing that certain homologous maternal and paternal chromosomes have different influences on the development of the embryo. Excess paternal influences result in abnormal development of what type of tissue at the expense of development of the embryo itself?

A

Trophoblastic issues

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38
Q

What is the function of integrins in implantation?

A

They allow the trophoblast of the embryo to adhere to the uterine epitheium

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39
Q

Where in the cell is the retinoid acid receptor located?

A

The receptors for retinoid acid are located in nucleus

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40
Q

A mutation for what receptor is the basis for basal carcinomas of the skin? A. Patched B. Retinoic acid C. Notch D. FGF receptor E. None

A

A. Patched

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41
Q

Zinc finger or helix loop helix arrangements are characteristic of members of what class of molecules? A. proto-oncogenes B. signaling molecules C. Receptors D. Transcription factors E. None

A

D. Transcription factors

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42
Q

A 35 year old married man with a history of chronic respiratory infection sis found on a routine X-ray examination to have dextrocardia. Further physical examination and imaging studies reveal that he has complete sinus inversus. He has also been going to another clinic for completely different problem, which is related to the same underlying defects. What clinic a. urology b. dermatology c. infertility d. orthopedic e. oncology

A

c. infertility Because of respitatory issues with situs inverses, probably has mutation of a dynein gene. Person have immotile sperm

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43
Q

Which of the following tissues arises from cells passing through the primitive streaks? a. embryonic endoderm b. hypoblast c. cytotrophoblast d. primary yolk sac e. anmion

A

b. hypoblast

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44
Q

The prechordal plate plays an important role in regionalization of the: a. notochord b. forebrain c. embryonic mesoderm d. primitive node e. hindbrain

A

b. forebrain

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45
Q

Which layer of the bilaminar (two-layered) embryo gives rise to all of the embryonic tissue proper?

A

Epibalst

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46
Q

Of what importance is the primitive node in embryonic development?

A

acts as organizer

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47
Q

The migration of mesodermal cells from the primitive streak is facilitated by the presence of what molecules of the extracellular matrix?

A

hyaluronic acid and fibronectin

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48
Q

What molecules can bring about mesodermal induction in an early embryo

A

Vg1 and activin

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49
Q

At what stage in the life history of many cells are cell adhesion molecules lost?

A

migratory phase Re-express when settle down

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50
Q

Which of these cell and tissue types arises from cranial, but not trunk, neural crest cells? A. Sensory ganglia B. Adrenal medulla C. Melanocytes D. Schwann cells E. None of the above

A

E. None of the above

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51
Q

Which of the following is a poor substrate for migrating neural crest cells? A. Laminin B. Chondroitin sulfate C. Fibronectin D. Type IV collagen E. Hyaluronic acid

A

B. Chondroitin sulfate

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52
Q

Neural crest cells arise from which of the following? A. Somite B. Dorsal non-neural ectoderm C. Neural tube D. Splanchnic mesoderm E. Yolk sac endoderm

A

C. Neural tube

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53
Q

Which of the following is involved in the migration of neural crest cells from the neural tube? A. Snail B. BMP-2 C. Mash-1 D. Norepinephrine E. Glial growth factor

A

A. Snail (Slug)

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54
Q

Which is not a derivative of neural crest? A. Sensory neurons B. Motor neurons C. Schwann cells D. Adrenal medulla E. Dental papilla

A

B. Motor neurons

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55
Q

What maintains the competence of neural cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons? A. Shh B. Acetylcholine C. Mash 1 D. Glial growth factor E. TGF-Beta

A

C. Mash 1

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56
Q

If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into the cranial region, they can form all of the following types of cells except: A. Pigment cells B. Schwann cells C. Sensory neurons D. Cartilage E. Autonomic neurons

A

D. Cartilage

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57
Q

**What molecule produced by the notochord is instrumental in inducing the floor plate of neural plate?

A. Hoxa-5

B. Retinoic acid

C. Pax-3

D. Msx-1

E. Shh

A

E. Shh

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58
Q

The cell bodies of the motor neurons of a spinal nerve arise from which of the following? A. Basal plate B. Marginal zone C. Floor plate D. Roof plate E. Alar plate

A

A. Basal plate

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59
Q

Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing which of the following? A. Acetylcholine B. Laminin C. Epinephrine D. Norepinephrine E. Shh

A

B. Laminin

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60
Q

Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is: A. Spina bifida occulata B. Meningocele C. Cranioschisis D. Rachischisis E. Myelomeningocele

A

D. Rachischisis

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61
Q

Rhombomeres are segmental divisions of which of the following? A. Forebrain B. Midbrain C. Hindbrain D. Spinal cord E. None of the above

A

C. Hindbrain

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62
Q

Rathke’s pouch arises from which of the following? A. Diencephalon B. Stomodeal ectoderm C. Mesencephalon D. Pharyngeal endoderm E. Infundibulum

A

B. Stomodeal ectoderm

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63
Q

Shaping of the snout involves the establishment of a gradient between which of the following pairs of signals? A. FGF-8 and Edn-1 B. Hox and Pax C. TGF-2 an dBMP-4 D. FGF-8 and Shh

A

D. FGF-8 and Shh

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64
Q

**In craniofacial development, segmentation of the cranial neural tube occurs as a result of expression of which of the following genes?

A. Sox

B. BMP

C. Hox

D. TGF

A

C. Hox

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65
Q

Except for the pharyngeal muscles, pharyngeal arch mesoderm (tendons, etc.) are derived from which of the following? A. Neural crest B. Somitomeres C. Paraxial mesoderm D. Parachordal mesoderm

A

A. Neural crest

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66
Q

In molar development, induction of secondary enamel knots by the primary enamel knot followed by apoptosis of the primary enamel knot is associated with which of the following morphogenic events? A. Formation of future molar cusps B. Induction of the ameloblast layer C. Induction of ondontoblast layer D. Formation of the dental sac

A

A. Formation of future molar cusps

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67
Q

At which of the following stages in tooth development do both the ameloblast and odontoblast layers first appear together? A. Tooth bud stage B. Cap stage C. Bell stage D. Dental sac stage

A

C. Bell stage

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68
Q

Which of the following is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage? A. BMP-4 B. Shh C. FGF-8 D. Pax-9

A

D. Pax-9

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69
Q

Cleft lip results from lack of fusion of which of the following? A. Nasomedial and nasolateral process B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes C. Nasolateral and maxillary D. Nasolateral and mandibular processes

A

B. Nasomedial and maxillary processes

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70
Q

Which of the following abnormalities in teath development is characterized by teeth the appear blue-gray or amber brown and are opalescent and may be caused by mutation in type I collagen? A. Amelogenesis imperfecta B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta C. Enamel fluorosis D. KGB syndrome

A

B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta

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71
Q

Muscles of facial expression are innervated by cranial nerve seven. This relationship would suggest that these muscles are derived form which of the following pharyngeal arches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

A

B. Second

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72
Q

The malleus of the middle ear in mammals is derived from which of the following former jaw articulation bones? A. Columella B. Meckel’s cartilage C. Quadrate D. Articular

A

Articular

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73
Q

Which bone forms around Meckel’s cartilage? A. Mandible B. Malleus C. Stapes D. Maxilla

A

A. Mandible

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74
Q

Which of the following develop from the third pharyngeal pouch in response to high concentrations of Shh? A. Thyroid B. Superior parathyroids C. Thymus D. Inferior parathyroids

A

D. Inferior parathyroids

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75
Q

Hypoplasia of mandible and facial bones is commonly associated with an autosomal dominant condition involving TCOF1 gene. IN this condition, there is reduced populationof neural crest cells in 1st pharyngeal arch. This condition is associated with which of the following anomalies? A. Treacher Collins Syndrome B. Pierre Robin Syndrom C. DiGeorge syndrome

A

A. Treacher Collins Syndrome

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76
Q

Which of the following is derived from Rathke’s pouch? A. Neurohypophysis B. Thymus C. Adenohypophysis D. Thyroid

A

C. Adenohypophysis

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77
Q

The auditory tube is derived of which of the following pharyngeal pouches? A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth

A

First

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78
Q

Calcitonin secreting cells (C cells_, embedded in the thyroid gland, are derived from which of the following primordia? A. Ventral midline gut endoderm B. Third pharyngeal pouch C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch D. Rathke’s pouch

A

C. Fourth pharyngeal pouch

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79
Q

An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomaly in that region. During surgery it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebra were missing. What condition did the infant have? Meningocele Meningomyelocele Encephalocele Spina bifida occulta rachischisis

A

Spina bifida occulta

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80
Q

6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is CHARGE association Von Recklinghausen’s disease (fibroneuromas) Hirchsprung’s disease Waardenburg’s syndrome None of the above

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

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81
Q

Neural-crest derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye Neural retina Lens Optic nerve Cornea None

A

Cornea

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82
Q

The otic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the Telencephalon Rhombencephalon Infundibulum Diencephalon Mesencephalon

A

Rhombencephalon

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83
Q

What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve Pax2 FGF3 BMP4 PAX6 BMP7

A

Pax2

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84
Q

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the Optic cup Chordamesoderm Optic vesicle Lens vesicle Neural retina

A

Lens vesicle

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85
Q

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the Cochlea and earlobe Auditory tube and incus Stapes and earlobe Auditory tube and stapes Otic vesicle and stapes

A

Stapes and earlobe

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86
Q

The facial nerve (CN 7) supplies muscles derived from which pharyngeal arch? First Second Third Fourth Sixth

A

Second

87
Q

In the case of holoprosencephaly, defects of facial structures are typically secondary to defects of the Pharynx Oral cavity Forebrain Eyes Hindbrain

A

Forebrain

88
Q

Meckel’s cartilage is a prominent structure in the early formation of the Upper jaw Hard palate Nasal septum Soft palate Lower jaw

A

Lower jaw

89
Q

An early induction in tooth development consists of the ectoderm of the dental epithelium acting on the underlying neural crest mesenchyme. Which of the following molecules is an important mediator of the inductive stimulus? BMP-4 Tenascin Hoxb-13 Msx-1 Syndecan

A

BMP-4

90
Q

Which of following does not connect directly with the primary nephric (mesonephric) duct? Metanephros Cloaca Nephrotomes Mesonephric tubules Ureteric bud

A

Metanephros

91
Q

Which association is correct? Potter’s facies and hydramnios Urachal fistula and hydramnios Horseshoe kidney and superior mesneteric artery GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema Bilateral renal agenesis and compensatory hypertrophy

A

GDNF and metanephrogenic blastema

92
Q

Which defect is strongly associated with olifohydramnios? Pelvic kideny Renal agenesis Horseshoe kidney Crossed ectopia Polycystic kidney

A

Renal agenesis

93
Q

The uterus arises from? Paramesonephric ducts Urogenital sinus Mesonephric tubules Pronephric ducts Mesonephric ducts

A

Paramesonephric ducts

94
Q

The metanephrogenic blastema is induced by the Pronephric duct Ureteric bud Mesonephric tubules Allantois Mesonephric duct

A

Ureteric bud

95
Q

Nucleated erythrocytes found circulating in the embryo are produced in the Yolk sac Para-aortic clusters Liver Bone marrow None of above

A

Yolk sac

96
Q

In a 7M fetus, blood draining the left temporalis muscle enters the heart via the Left anterior cardinal vein Coronary sinus Left common cardinal vein Superior vena cava None of above

A

Superior vena cava

97
Q

Adherons are inductive particles released by what structure in the endocardinal cushion area? Endocardium Cardiac jelly Myocardium Epicardium None of above

A

Myocardium

98
Q

Neural crest contributes to the structures of which of the following Truncus arteriosus Ascending aorta Plumonary trunk All of the above None of the above

A

All of the above

99
Q

For which of these cardiovascular malformations is a paten ductus arteriosus necessary for survival of the individual Atrial septal defect Ventricular septal defect Double aortic arch Right subclavian artery from arch of aorta None of the above

A

None of the above

100
Q

5 days after birth, an infant becomes cyanotic during a prolonged crying spell. Cyanosis is most likely caused by venous blood entering the systemic circulation through the Interatrial septum Ductus arteriosus Ductus venosus Umbilical vein Interventricular septum

A

Interatrial septum

101
Q

The internal carotid artery arises from aortic arch number 1 2 3 4 5

A

3

102
Q
  1. Infant w/ Tuft of hair, dura and arachnoid layers complete, neural arches of several vertebrae missing? Which of the following did it have? a. Meningocele b. Meningomyelocele c. Encephalocele d. Spina bifida occulta e. Rachischisis
A

d. Spina bifida occulta

103
Q
  1. Which of the following is caused by failure of the choroid fissure to close during the sixth week of pregnancy? a. Anophthalmos b. Microphthalamos c. Cyclopia d. Colobomo e. Presbyopia
A

Colobomo

104
Q

Neural crest cells form many components of the nervous system but do not form what?

A

Motor neurons

105
Q

What mutant has specific behavioral defects related to the cerebellum? Due to what abnormal cell? Formation of what abnormal

A

Weaver Radial glial cells in cerebellum Formation of granular layer of the cerebellar cortex

106
Q

What is characterized by abnormal behavior and absence of normal cortical layering? What is defective? What does this do?

A

Reeler Reelin: extracellular protein defective Reelin: may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

107
Q

Rostral patterning center?

A

FGF-8

108
Q

What may serve as a stop signal for radial neuronal migration or as an insertional signal for migrating neurons

A

Reelin

109
Q

Dorsal patterning center?

A

BMPs and Wnts

110
Q

Ventral patterning center

A

Shh

111
Q

Neural crest cells are from what?

A

Neural plate

112
Q

Neural crest cells from trunk transplanted into head form most neural crest derivates except -What also differentiates

A

Cartilage or skeletal elements (even though normally do) Some cells differentiate into cholinergic parasym instead of adrenal sympathetic normally produced

113
Q

Most neural crest cells from somites 1-3

A

Pass into pharyngeal arches 4 and 6 or form cardiac crest

114
Q

Neural crest cells from somites R4-R7

A

Make up vagal crest Form parasympathetic innervation for digestive tract

115
Q

What induces formation of lens placed from lens ectoderm?

A

Optic vesicle

116
Q

Absence of Pax6 in eye development

A

Optic vesicle can’t induce formation of lens placode

117
Q

Corneal epithelium is induced to from cornea by what?

A

Lens vesicle

118
Q

groove in optic vesicle is what?

A

Choroid fissure

119
Q

What runs in the choroid fissure?

A

Hyaloid artery to posterior chamber

120
Q

Rathke’s pouch is an evagination from the roof of what? What is its primordium for the anterior pituitary

A

Stomodeal ectoderm -Adenohypophysis

121
Q

First arch develops into ______ because of the lack of _____ gene expression

A

Jaws Hox

122
Q

Expression of what keeps arch 2 from differentiating into arch 1 and forming jaws

A

Hoxa2

123
Q

What is necessary for tooth development to continue past the bud stage

A

Pax9

124
Q

Primary enamel knots can give rise to secondary enamel knots which progress to what

A

Molar cusps

125
Q

For salivary gland development the signaling between Shh and FGF occurs where

A

Within the epithelium (Rather then between epithelium and mesenchyme)

126
Q

Malformation of anterior endoderm and prechordial plate leads to this clinical

A

Holoprosencephaly

127
Q

Main organizer for pharyngeal arch development is

A

Foregut endoderm

128
Q

The opening of the thyroglossal duct that persists as a small pit at base of tongue

A

Foramen cecum

129
Q

Prevents neurons from crossing the midline of the central nervous system

A

Slit-2 and Robo

130
Q

Uroplakins

A

Proteins that make the ureter epithelium impermeable to water

131
Q

Steps in potters syndrome

A
  1. Renal agenesis –> 2. Reduced urinary output –> 3. Oligohydramnios–> 4a. Hip dislocation 4b. pulmonary hypoplasia –> death 4c. flattened face and ears
132
Q

If SRY gene then get what factor

A

Sox-9

133
Q

What maintains meiotic competency of germ cells and without individuals would be sterile

A

Dazl

134
Q

Primary heart field -Name -Part of heart -Exposure -Timeline -Express

A

Heart crescent Left ventricle and atria -atria if high RA -ventral if not RA Most primitive Express Hand-1

135
Q

Secondary heart field -Part of heart -Derived -Form -Express

A

Right ventricle and proximal outflow tract Derived from pharyngeal mesoderm Can form cardiac or skeletal muscle Express Hand-2

136
Q

Primary myocardium is guided by

A

Tbx-2

137
Q

What is the first asymmetrical embryonic structure to appear

A

Cardiac tube

138
Q

Chamber myocardium is guided by

A

Tbx-5

139
Q

Interatrial septum primum

A

Downward growth from cephalic wall of single atrium to endocardial cushion Separates atrium into left and right chambers

140
Q

Interatrial septum secundum

A

Forms to the right of septum primumand grows from dorsal to the ventral part of atrium

141
Q

Foramen ovale -what is it -where

A

Right to left atrial shunt Space formed within the septum secundum

142
Q

Fourth aortic arch -Right -Left Sixth aortic arch -associated with -dorsal portion

A

Right- Right subclavian A Left- Aortic arch Pulmonary system Dorsal portion becomes ductus arterioles shunt –> ligamentum arteriosus

143
Q

Right vitelline vein becomes

A

Portal vein

144
Q

Left umbilical vein becomes

A

Hepatic portal vein

145
Q

What allows oxygenated placental blood to bypass capillary network of liver

A

Ductus venosus

146
Q

**In the mature placenta, which fetal tissue directly interfaces with the maternal uterine connective tissue?

A. Cytotrophoblast

B. Syncytiotrophoblast

C. Extraembryonic mesoderm

D. Decidual cells

E. None of the above

A

Cytotrophoblast

147
Q

Which structure is mesodermal in origin?

A. Hair shaft (ectodermal)

B. Mammary duct

C. Sebaceous gland

D. Arrector pili muscle

E. None of the above

A

Arrector pili muscle

148
Q

In the let-down of milk during lactation, the myoepithelial cells contract in response to:

A. Progesterone

B. Oxytocin

C. Estrogens

D. Oxycontin

E. Lactalbumin

A

Oxytocin

149
Q

**Which of the following results occurs when all the Hox10 paralogs are knocked out?

A. The sacrum fails to form

B. The tip of the xiphoid process is split

C. Ribs form on the lumbar and sacral vertebrae

D. Hypoplasia of the clavicle and delayed ossification of the skull

A

Ribs forms on teh lumbar adn sacral vertebrae

150
Q

Which of the following signaling molecules is involved in the epidermal induction that results in the mesenchymal aggregation that forms the dermal papilla?

A. Dermo-1

B. Wnt-11

C. Shh

D. Noggin

A

Shh

151
Q

Inductive influence of which of the following signal molecules results in the formation of individual mammary placodes?

A. Dermo-1

B. Neurogulin-3

C. Shh

D. Tbx-3

A

Neurogulin-3

152
Q

Which of the following factors functions as the initial initiator of future forelimb development?

A. Hoxd

B. Tbx5

C. Shh

D. Gli3

A

Tbx5

153
Q

The most serious threat in fetal hydrops is CNS damage. The affected brain is enlarged and edematous and, when sectioned, has abright yellow color, particularly the basal nuclei, thalamus, cerebellum, cerebral gray matter, and spinal cord. The CNS damage is known as which of the following?

A. Erythroblastosis fetalis

B. Kernicterus

C. Phenylketonuria

D. Galactosemia

A

Kernicterus

154
Q

A high concentration of which of the following in the amniotic fluid might suggest a neural tube defect?

A. Lecithin

B. Alpha-fetoprotein

C. Kernicturus

D. Creatine

A

B. Alpha-fetoprotein

155
Q

The sclerotome arises from the cells located in the

Notochord

Paraxial mesoderm

Intermediate mesoderm

Lateral plate mesoderm

None of above

A

Paraxial mesoderm

156
Q

The cardiogenic plate arises from

Embryonic mesoderm

Somatic mesoderm

Splanchnic mesoderm

Intermediate mesoderm

Neural crest

A

Splanchnic mesoderm

157
Q

An inductive stimulus from which structure stimulates the transformation of epithelial sclerotome into 2ary mesnchyme?

Neural crest

Somite

Ectodermal placodes

Embryonic endoderm

Notochord

A

Notochord

158
Q

Which of these structueres in the embryo is unsegmented?

Somitomeres

Neuromeres

Notochord

Somites

A

Notochord

159
Q

The intermediate mesoderm is the precursor of the

Urogenital system

Heart

Somites

Body wall

Vertebral bodies

A

Urogenital system

160
Q

Which cellular component of the epidermis is a peripheral outpost of the immune system and functions to present antigens to other immune cells?

Merkel cells

Keratinocytes

Basal cells

Melanocytes

Langerhans’ cells

A

Langerhans’ cells

161
Q

Which myogenic regulatory factor is expressed latest in development of a muscle fiber

Myogenin

myoD

MRF-4/ myf-6

Myf-5

Pax-3

A

Myf-4/ myf-6

162
Q

Which of the following molecules plays an important role in determination of dorsoventral axis of developing limb?

Msx-1

Wnt-7

Hoxd-13

Pax-1

FGF-8

A

Wnt-7

163
Q

What molecule is associated with myogenic cells migrating into the limb bud from somites?

Shh

BMP-7

FGF-4

Pax-3

En-1

A

Pax-3

164
Q

In the developing limb the SSH gene product is produced in the

Progress zone

Region of interdigital cell death

ZPA

AER

Common muscle mass

A

ZPA

165
Q

The C.tissue of the limb arises from the

Paraxial mesoderm

Neural crest

Intermediate mesoderm

Somatic mesoderm

Lateral mesoderm

A

Lateral mesoderm

166
Q

The cell bodies of the motoneurons of a spinal nerve arise from the

Basal plate

Marginal zone

Floor plate

Roof plate

Alar plate

A

Basal plate

167
Q

An infant with a tuft of hair over the lumbar region of the vertebral column undergoes surgery for a congenital anomily in that region. During surgery it was found that the dura and arachnoid layers over the spinal cord were complete, but that the neural arches of several vertebra were missing. What condition did the infant have?

Meningocele

Meningomyelocele

Encephalocele

Spina bifida occulta

rachischisis

A

Spina bifida occulta

168
Q

Growth cones adhere strongly to a substrate containing

Acetylcholine

Laminin

Epinephrine

Norepinephrine

Sonic Hedghog

A

Laminin

169
Q

Complete failure of the neural tube to close in the region of the spinal cord is

Spina bifida occulta

Meningocele

Cranioschisis

Rachischisis

Myelomeningocele

A

Rachischisis

170
Q

Rhombomeres are segmented division of the

Forebrain

Midbrian

Hindbrain

Spinal cord

None

A

Hindbrain

171
Q

Which of these cells and tissue types from cranial but not trunk, neural crest cells?

Sensory ganglia

Adrenal medulla

Melanocytes

Schawann cells

None of the above

A

None of the above

172
Q

**What is one of the major enzymes in the acrosome that breaks down the intercellular matrix?

Acrosin

Hyaluronidase

Lipase

Zona lysin

A

Hyaluronidase

173
Q

Neural crest arise from the

Somite

Dorsal non-neural ectoderm

Neural tube

Splanchnic mesoderm

Yolk sac endoderm

A

Neural tube

174
Q

6 month- old infant exhibits multiple congenital defects, including cleft palate, deafness, ocular hypertelorism, and a white forelock but otherwise but otherwise dark hair on his head. The probable diagnosis is

CHARGE association

Von Recklinghausen’s disease

Hirchsprung’s disease

Waardenburg’s syndrome

None of the above

A

Waardenburg’s syndrome

175
Q

What molecule involved in migration of neural crest from the neural tube?

Slug / Snail

BMP-2

Mash 1

Norepinephrine

Glial growth factor

A

Slug / Snail

176
Q

Which is not a derivative of the neural crest?

Sensory neurons

Motor neurons

Schwann cells

Adrenal medulla

Dental papilla

A

Motor neurons

177
Q

What maintains the competence of neural crest cells to differentiate into autonomic neurons?

Sonic hedgehog

Acetylcholine

Mash 1

Glial growth factor

Transforming growth factor Beta

A

Mash 1

178
Q

If trunk neural crest cells are transplanted into cranial region, they can form all the following types of cells except:

Pigments cells

Schawann cells

Sensory neurons

Cartilage

Autonomic neurons

A

Cartilage

179
Q

Neural-crest derived cells constitute a significant component of which tissue of the eye

Neural retina

Lens

Optic nerve

Cornea

None

A

Cornea

180
Q

The optic placode arises through an inductive message given off by the

Telencephalon

Rhombencephalon

Infundibulum

Diencephalon

Mesencephalon

A

Rhombencephalon

181
Q

What molecule plays a role in guidance of advancing retinal axons through the optic nerve

Pax2

FGF3

BMP4

PAX6

BMP7

A

Pax2

182
Q

Surface ectoderm is induced to become corneal epithelium by an inductive event originating in the

Optic cup

Chordamesoderm

Optic vesicle

Lens vesicle

Neural retina

A

Lens vesicle

183
Q

The second pharyngeal arch contributes to the

Cochlea and earlobe

Auditory tube and incus

Stapes and earlobe

Auditory tube and stapes

Otic vesicle and stapes

A

Stapes and earlobe

184
Q
  1. In the formation of limb joints, which of the following signal molecules is responsible for inhibiting BMP in the region of the future joint cavity?

Shh

Noggin

Wnt-1

Eng-1

A

Noggin

185
Q
  1. Pre-muscle cells in the developing limb bud are derived from which of the following sources?

Lateral plate mesoderm

Somatic dermatomes

Somitic myotomes

Neural crest

A

Somitic myotomes

186
Q

The morphology of specific muscles within the limb bud is determined by which of the following factors?

Surrounding connective tissue

BMPs

Apical ectodermal ridge

Noggin

A

Surrounding connective tissue

187
Q
  1. Which of the following is observed when the forelimb rudiment of a salamander embryo is removed so that the limb fails to develop?

The associated spinal ganglia increase more than 150% of their normal size

Local nerves are not affected

The nerves of the brachial plexus remain smaller (thinner) than they would have been if the limb were still there.

Nerves of the future brachial plexus undergo apoptosis

A

The nerves of the brachial plexus remain smaller (thinner) than they would have been if the limb were still there.

188
Q

Which of the following occurs when an additional limb bud is transplanted into the immediate vicinity of the host forelimb of a salamander embryo?

Neither limb bud will be supplied by any branches of the brachial plexus

The brachial plexus nerves will develop branches running out to the additional limb and will supply it

The transplanted limb bud will be supplied by local nerves that would normally supply flank muscles

Local brachial plexus nerves deviate form the normal limb bud and supply only the transplanted limb bud

A

The brachial plexus nerves will develop branches running out to the additional limb and will supply it

189
Q
A
190
Q

**How many germ cells are ovulated?

A

400

191
Q

**How many germ cells are present at embryonic midterm?

A

7 million

192
Q

** How many germ cells at birth?

A

2 million

193
Q

**How many germ cells survive to puberty?

A

400,000

194
Q

**What induces overlying ectoderm to convert to neural ectoderm?

Transcription factors?

Signals?

A

Notochord

TF: Foxa-2 and Goosecoid

Signals: Noggin and Chordin

195
Q

**The proliferation phase is characterized by what hormone?

Progesterone

Estrodial

LH

FSH

Secreted by what?

A

Estradiol by granulosa cells

196
Q

The secretory phase is controlled by rising levels of what?

Progesterone

Estradiol

LH

FSH

Secreted by what?

A

Progesterone secreted by granulosa and thecal cells

197
Q

**What is the most important enzyme involved in the penetration of the zona pellucida?

A

Acrosin

198
Q

**The isthmic organizer is located where?

What is it?

A

Mesencephalon and Metencephalon

Signaling Center

199
Q

**What is the principal signaling molecule for the Isthmic organizer?

What does it do?

A

FGF-8 (Wnt-1 also)

Organizes and polarizes midbrain and cerebellum

200
Q

**What organizes and polarizes midbrain and cerebellum?

A

FGF-8 and Wnt-1 of Isthmic organizer

201
Q

**What signaling center is important in teh organizing telecephalon, parts of dienecephalon, olfactory area, adn pituitary gland?

And what signals?

A

Anterior neural ridge

Shh and FGF-8

202
Q

**What organizes borders between dorsal and ventral thalamus ?

What signal?

A

Zona limitans

Shh

203
Q

**Amnion (4)

From

Derivative

Two tissues

A

Inner cell mass

Epiblast deriative

Ectoderm & Mesoderm

204
Q

**Yolk Sac (4)

From

Derivative

Two tissues

A

Inner cell mass

Hypoblast derivative

Endoderm & Mesoderm

205
Q

Chorion (3)

From

Two tissues

A

Part of fetal maternal surface

Ectoderm and Mesoderm

206
Q

** Allantois (4)

From

Interfaces with

Two tissues

A

Inner cell mass

Interfaces iwth placenta via umbilical cord

Endoderm adn Mesoderm

207
Q

** What directly interfaces withthe maternal uterine CT?

A

Cytotrophoblast

208
Q

** Absence of normal cell death

A

Syndactyly

209
Q

**Failure of migration example

A

Pelvic kidneys

210
Q

**Failure to fuse or merge example

A

Cleft palate

211
Q

**Example of defective fields

A

Sirenomelia

212
Q

**Occipital cervical boundary

A

Hox3

213
Q

**Cervical thoracic boundary?

A

Hox6

214
Q

**Attached floating ribs boundary

A

Hox9

Comprehensive Exam COB- Aubrey (2 decks)

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