Embryology Flashcards

1
Q

How long is the menstrual cycle on average?

A

28 days

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2
Q

What is the range of normal menstrual cycle length?

A

21�35 days

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3
Q

What is the purpose of the menstrual cycle?

A

Prepare for pregnancy

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4
Q

What happens during the menstrual phase (Days 1�5)?

A

Shedding of the uterine lining

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5
Q

What hormone helps follicles grow in the follicular phase?

A

FSH

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6
Q

What hormone thickens the uterus in the follicular phase?

A

Estrogen

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7
Q

What triggers ovulation on Day 14?

A

LH surge

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8
Q

What is released during ovulation?

A

Egg

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9
Q

Which phase follows ovulation?

A

Luteal phase

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10
Q

What hormone is produced by the corpus luteum?

A

Progesterone

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11
Q

What maintains progesterone levels if fertilization occurs?

A

hCG

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12
Q

What happens if fertilization does not occur?

A

Corpus luteum breaks down

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13
Q

What follows the breakdown of the corpus luteum?

A

Menstruation

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14
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Missed periods

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15
Q

What is dysmenorrhea?

A

Painful periods

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16
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy bleeding

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17
Q

What is oligomenorrhea?

A

Irregular cycles

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18
Q

What commonly causes menstrual cycle issues?

A

Hormonal imbalances

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19
Q

What structure forms the placenta?

A

Trophoblast

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20
Q

What is the role of the trophoblast?

A

Implantation into the uterine wall

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21
Q

What does the cytotrophoblast provide?

A

Structural support

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22
Q

What does the syncytiotrophoblast secrete?

A

hCG

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23
Q

What is the blastocoel?

A

Fluid-filled cavity

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24
Q

What is the function of the blastocoel?

A

Provides space for cellular movement

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25
Q

What structure becomes the embryo?

A

Inner Cell Mass (ICM)

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26
Q

What does the epiblast give rise to?

A

Three germ layers

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27
Q

What does the hypoblast contribute to?

A

Yolk sac & extraembryonic structures

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28
Q

What is the morula?

A

Solid ball of cells

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29
Q

What marks the transition from morula to blastocyst?

A

Formation of a hollow structure

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30
Q

When does implantation begin?

A

Day 5�6

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31
Q

What facilitates implantation?

A

Trophoblast

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32
Q

Why is blastocyst formation important in IVF?

A

Higher implantation success

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33
Q

What does the chorion develop from?

A

Trophoblast & extraembryonic mesoderm

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34
Q

What is the function of the chorion?

A

Forms placenta for nutrient exchange

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35
Q

What are chorionic villi?

A

Projections that anchor the embryo

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36
Q

What is the function of the amniotic cavity?

A

Protects the embryo

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37
Q

What does the yolk sac provide?

A

Early nutrition

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38
Q

What does the yolk sac contribute to?

A

Blood cell formation & primitive gut

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39
Q

What forms during gastrulation?

A

Three germ layers

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40
Q

What does the ectoderm develop into?

A

Skin, brain, nervous system

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41
Q

What does the mesoderm form?

A

Muscles, bones, blood, circulatory system

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42
Q

What does the endoderm develop into?

A

Gut, liver, lungs, internal organs

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43
Q

What does the neural tube become?

A

Brain & spinal cord

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44
Q

What is the function of the connecting stalk?

A

Future umbilical cord

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45
Q

What does the connecting stalk transfer?

A

Oxygen & nutrients

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46
Q

What can errors in neurulation cause?

A

Neural tube defects

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47
Q

What protects the early embryo?

A

Zona pellucida

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48
Q

What does the trophoblast develop into?

A

Placenta

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49
Q

What is the role of the blastocoel cavity?

A

Cell differentiation

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50
Q

What does the amniotic cavity do?

A

Protects the embryo

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51
Q

What does the yolk sac support?

A

Blood cell formation & nutrition

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52
Q

What does the bilaminar disc lead to?

A

Gastrulation

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53
Q

What do chorionic villi help with?

A

Nutrient exchange

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54
Q

What forms around the embryo for protection?

A

Amniotic cavity

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55
Q

What happens at stronger implantation?

A

Uterine wall attachment

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56
Q

What structure absorbs nutrients from the mother?

A

Chorionic villi

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57
Q

What role does the blastocoel cavity play?

A

Provides support

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58
Q

What structure acts as a shock absorber?

A

Amniotic cavity

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59
Q

What does the yolk sac aid in?

A

Early blood cell formation

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60
Q

What is the significance of early embryonic stages?

A

Maternal-fetal connection

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61
Q

What does the neural plate form?

A

Brain & spinal cord

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62
Q

What is the function of the embryonic cavity?

A

Supports embryo growth

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63
Q

What is the amniotic membrane?

A

Protects the embryo

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64
Q

What does the placenta take over from the yolk sac?

A

Nutrient supply

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65
Q

What happens if the neural tube does not close properly?

A

Spina bifida

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66
Q

What is the purpose of the zona pellucida?

A

Regulates implantation

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67
Q

When does the neural tube form?

A

Week 3�4

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68
Q

What does the epiblast eventually form?

A

All three germ layers

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69
Q

What supports the embryo before the placenta?

A

Yolk sac

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70
Q

What key structure forms at implantation?

A

Blastocyst

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71
Q

What is the first sign of brain & spinal cord formation?

A

Neural plate

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72
Q

What is the purpose of the menstrual cycle?

A

To prepare for pregnancy.

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73
Q

How long does the menstrual cycle typically last?

A

About 28 days.

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74
Q

What is the normal range of the menstrual cycle length?

A

21�35 days.

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75
Q

What are the four phases of the menstrual cycle?

A

Menstrual, Follicular, Ovulatory, Luteal.

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76
Q

What happens during the menstrual phase?

A

Shedding of the uterine lining.

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77
Q

What days does the menstrual phase usually occur?

A

Days 1�5.

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78
Q

What hormone helps follicles grow during the follicular phase?

A

FSH (Follicle-Stimulating Hormone).

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79
Q

What is the role of estrogen in the follicular phase?

A

Thickens the uterine lining.

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80
Q

What days does the follicular phase usually occur?

A

Days 1�14.

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81
Q

What triggers ovulation?

A

A surge in LH (Luteinizing Hormone).

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82
Q

On which day does ovulation typically occur?

A

Day 14.

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83
Q

What happens during ovulation?

A

The egg is released.

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84
Q

What structure produces progesterone in the luteal phase?

A

Corpus luteum.

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85
Q

What is the role of progesterone in the luteal phase?

A

Maintains the uterus for potential pregnancy.

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86
Q

What hormone maintains progesterone levels if fertilization occurs?

A

hCG (Human Chorionic Gonadotropin).

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87
Q

What happens if fertilization does not occur?

A

The corpus luteum breaks down, leading to menstruation.

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88
Q

What is amenorrhea?

A

Absence of periods.

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89
Q

What is dysmenorrhea?

A

Painful periods.

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90
Q

What is menorrhagia?

A

Heavy menstrual bleeding.

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91
Q

What is oligomenorrhea?

A

Irregular menstrual cycles.

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92
Q

What commonly causes menstrual cycle disorders?

A

Hormonal imbalances.

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93
Q

What does the trophoblast form?

A

The placenta.

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94
Q

What is the function of the trophoblast?

A

Implantation into the uterine wall.

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95
Q

What are the two layers of the trophoblast?

A

Cytotrophoblast and Syncytiotrophoblast.

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96
Q

What does the Syncytiotrophoblast secrete?

A

hCG.

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97
Q

What is the function of the blastocoel?

A

Provides space for cellular movement and development.

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98
Q

What does the inner cell mass (ICM) form?

A

The embryo.

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99
Q

What does the epiblast give rise to?

A

All three germ layers (ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm).

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100
Q

What is the function of the hypoblast?

A

Contributes to the yolk sac and extraembryonic structures.

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101
Q

What marks the transition from a morula to a blastocyst?

A

Formation of a hollow structure.

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102
Q

What initiates implantation?

A

The blastocyst attaching to the uterine wall.

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103
Q

Why are blastocyst-stage embryos used in IVF?

A

Higher implantation success rates.

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104
Q

What does the chorion develop into?

A

The placenta.

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105
Q

What is the function of the amniotic cavity?

A

Protects the embryo and maintains temperature.

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106
Q

What is the role of the yolk sac?

A

Provides early nutrition and blood cell formation.

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107
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

Formation of three germ layers.

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108
Q

What does the ectoderm develop into?

A

Skin, brain, nervous system.

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109
Q

What does the mesoderm develop into?

A

Muscles, bones, blood, circulatory system.

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110
Q

What does the endoderm develop into?

A

Gut, liver, lungs, and internal organs.

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111
Q

What does the neural tube develop into?

A

Brain and spinal cord.

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112
Q

What structure transfers oxygen and nutrients from the placenta?

A

The umbilical cord.

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113
Q

What can errors in neural tube formation cause?

A

Spina bifida.

114
Q

What protects the embryo before implantation?

A

Zona pellucida.

115
Q

What is the function of the trophoblast?

A

Develops into the placenta.

116
Q

What is the function of the blastocoel cavity?

A

Supports cell differentiation.

117
Q

What does the amniotic cavity protect?

A

The developing embryo.

118
Q

What stage marks the beginning of bilaminar disc formation?

A

Early blastocyst formation.

119
Q

What structure helps anchor the embryo to the uterus?

A

Chorionic villi.

120
Q

What does the yolk sac provide before placenta development?

A

Early blood cell formation and nutrition.

121
Q

What structure helps in implantation and maternal-fetal exchange?

A

Chorionic villi.

122
Q

What major event happens in early embryo development stage 5?

A

Neural plate formation.

123
Q

What will the neural plate later form?

A

The brain and spinal cord.

124
Q

What major structure begins forming in early embryo development stage 6?

A

The neural tube.

125
Q

What is the first organ to start functioning?

A

The heart.

126
Q

What is the purpose of the amniotic sac?

A

Protects the embryo with fluid.

127
Q

What is the earliest form of placental villi?

A

Primary villi.

128
Q

What invades primary villi to form secondary villi?

A

Extraembryonic mesoderm.

129
Q

When do tertiary villi form?

A

By day 20�21.

130
Q

What is the function of tertiary villi?

A

Gas, nutrient, and waste exchange.

131
Q

How many arteries and veins are in the umbilical cord?

A

Two arteries, one vein.

132
Q

What is a bilobed placenta?

A

A placenta divided into two lobes.

133
Q

What is velamentous cord insertion?

A

Umbilical cord attaches to fetal membranes instead of the placenta.

134
Q

What is vasa previa?

A

Fetal blood vessels cross the birth canal.

135
Q

What side of the placenta is covered by the amnion?

A

Fetal surface.

136
Q

What side of the placenta has cotyledons?

A

Maternal surface.

137
Q

What twin type shares a placenta but has two amniotic sacs?

A

Monochorionic diamniotic (MCDA) twins.

138
Q

What is Twin-Twin Transfusion Syndrome (TTTS)?

A

Abnormal vascular connections between MCDA twins.

139
Q

What twin type shares both a placenta and an amniotic sac?

A

Monochorionic monoamniotic (MCMA) twins.

140
Q

What is a major risk of MCMA twins?

A

Cord entanglement.

141
Q

What structure connects the fetus to the placenta?

A

The umbilical cord.

142
Q

What is circumvallate placenta?

143
Q

What complications can circumvallate placenta cause?

144
Q

Where is the umbilical cord inserted in marginal cord insertion?

145
Q

What risks are associated with marginal cord insertion?

146
Q

What is a bilobed placenta?

147
Q

What risk is associated with a bilobed placenta?

148
Q

Are all placental variations harmful?

149
Q

Why is ultrasound monitoring important in placental variations?

150
Q

Where does the umbilical cord attach in velamentous cord insertion?

151
Q

Why is velamentous cord insertion dangerous?

152
Q

What complications can result from velamentous cord insertion?

153
Q

What imaging is used to monitor velamentous cord insertion?

154
Q

Why might a C-section be needed for velamentous cord insertion?

155
Q

What are conjoined twins?

156
Q

What are craniophagus twins?

157
Q

What are cephalophagus twins?

158
Q

What are omphalophagus twins?

159
Q

What are pygophagus twins?

160
Q

What forms during Stage I of facial development?

161
Q

What does the frontonasal prominence form?

162
Q

What do the maxillary prominences contribute to?

163
Q

What does the mandibular prominence form?

164
Q

What are nasal placodes?

165
Q

What forms during Stage II of facial development?

166
Q

What do nasal pits develop into?

167
Q

How do maxillary prominences change in Stage II?

168
Q

What happens to the mandibular prominences in Stage II?

169
Q

What structures surround the nasal pits?

170
Q

What major fusion occurs in Stage III of facial development?

171
Q

What continues to merge in Stage III?

172
Q

What facial structure fully forms in Stage III?

173
Q

What groove forms between the developing eye and lip?

174
Q

What structures are more defined in Stage III?

175
Q

What is the final stage of facial development?

176
Q

What completes fusion in Stage IV?

177
Q

What facial feature becomes fully visible in Stage IV?

178
Q

What happens to the eyes in Stage IV?

179
Q

What structures finalize in Stage IV?

180
Q

From which gut section does the stomach develop?

181
Q

What rotation does the stomach undergo?

182
Q

What does stomach rotation create?

183
Q

What does the duodenum develop from?

184
Q

What happens if duodenal recanalization fails?

185
Q

What structure gives rise to the liver and biliary system?

186
Q

What structures arise from the cystic diverticulum?

187
Q

What forms the pancreas?

188
Q

What happens to the ventral pancreatic bud?

189
Q

What artery supplies the foregut?

190
Q

What artery marks the foregut-midgut transition?

191
Q

How many somites are visible at 14 somite stage?

192
Q

What do somites develop into?

193
Q

What is happening to the neural tube at 14 somite stage?

194
Q

What do pharyngeal arches contribute to?

195
Q

What is the visible heart feature at 14 somite stage?

196
Q

What body shape is characteristic at 14 somite stage?

197
Q

How many somites are present at 25 somite stage?

198
Q

What region expands at 25 somite stage?

199
Q

What new structures appear at 25 somite stage?

200
Q

How does the heart change at 25 somite stage?

201
Q

What happens to pharyngeal arches at 25 somite stage?

202
Q

What is the first stage of palate development?

203
Q

What does the median palatine process form from?

204
Q

What begins growing medially in early palatal development?

205
Q

What occurs in Stage II of palate development?

206
Q

What separates the oral and nasal cavities?

207
Q

What does the nasal septum do in palate development?

208
Q

What does palate fusion prevent?

209
Q

What structures fully separate after palate fusion?

210
Q

What is the function of the hard palate?

211
Q

What is the function of the soft palate?

212
Q

What forms the primary palate?

A

The intermaxillary segment.

213
Q

What does the primary palate give rise to?

A

The premaxilla and anterior hard palate.

214
Q

What forms the secondary palate?

A

The lateral palatine processes.

215
Q

What does the secondary palate give rise to?

A

The majority of the hard and soft palate.

216
Q

What are palatal shelves?

A

Embryonic structures that elevate and fuse to form the roof of the mouth.

217
Q

What is the nasopalatine canal?

A

A persistent communication between the primary and secondary palates.

218
Q

What results if the palatal shelves fail to fuse?

A

Cleft palate.

219
Q

What problems can cleft palate cause?

A

Issues with speech and feeding.

220
Q

What is the function of the thyroglossal duct?

A

Helps form the thyroid gland.

221
Q

What happens if the thyroglossal duct does not disappear?

A

A thyroglossal cyst forms.

222
Q

Where does the thyroid gland originate?

A

At the base of the tongue.

223
Q

How does the thyroid gland move during development?

A

It migrates down to the neck.

224
Q

Where do thyroglossal cysts typically appear?

A

As a midline neck swelling.

225
Q

How do thyroglossal cysts move?

A

They move when swallowing.

226
Q

What is the treatment for thyroglossal cysts?

A

Surgical removal using the Sistrunk procedure.

227
Q

What embryonic structures contribute to tongue development?

A

Pharyngeal arches.

228
Q

What germ layers contribute to tongue development?

A

Ectoderm and endoderm.

229
Q

What forms in Stage I of tongue development?

A

Lingual swellings.

230
Q

What is the role of lateral lingual swellings?

A

They form the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

231
Q

What is the function of the tuberculum impar?

A

It appears transiently but does not contribute significantly.

232
Q

What does the copula arise from?

A

The second pharyngeal arch.

233
Q

What happens to the copula?

A

It is later overgrown.

234
Q

What does the hypobranchial eminence form?

A

The posterior one-third of the tongue.

235
Q

What structures support tongue development?

A

Surrounding mesenchymal tissues.

236
Q

What happens in Stage II of tongue development?

A

The lateral lingual swellings enlarge and merge.

237
Q

What does the hypobranchial eminence contribute to?

A

The posterior tongue and epiglottis.

238
Q

What is the foramen cecum?

A

A depression marking the site of the thyroglossal duct.

239
Q

What occurs in Stage III of tongue development?

A

Maturation and innervation.

240
Q

What nerve innervates the anterior two-thirds of the tongue for general sensation?

A

Lingual nerve (branch of CN V3).

241
Q

What nerve provides taste sensation to the anterior tongue?

A

Chorda tympani (branch of CN VII).

242
Q

What nerve innervates the posterior one-third of the tongue?

A

Glossopharyngeal nerve (CN IX).

243
Q

Where do tongue muscles originate from?

A

Occipital somites.

244
Q

What nerve innervates tongue muscles?

A

Hypoglossal nerve (CN XII).

245
Q

What nerve innervates the epiglottis and laryngeal structures?

A

Vagus nerve (CN X).

246
Q

What forms the pancreas?

A

Dorsal and ventral pancreatic buds.

247
Q

What germ layer does the pancreas originate from?

A

Endoderm of the foregut.

248
Q

What does the dorsal pancreatic bud form?

A

The body and tail of the pancreas.

249
Q

What does the ventral pancreatic bud form?

A

The head and uncinate process.

250
Q

What happens during pancreatic rotation?

A

The ventral pancreatic bud rotates around the duodenum to fuse with the dorsal bud.

251
Q

Why is pancreatic rotation important?

A

It forms a single functional pancreas.

252
Q

What structure forms from the fusion of pancreatic ducts?

A

The main pancreatic duct (duct of Wirsung).

253
Q

What happens if pancreatic rotation fails?

A

Congenital anomalies like annular pancreas.

254
Q

What is annular pancreas?

A

A condition where the pancreas encircles the duodenum and causes obstruction.

255
Q

What are the two major functions of the pancreas?

A

Endocrine (hormone secretion) and exocrine (enzyme production).

256
Q

What is the function of the superior mesenteric artery (SMA)?

A

It serves as the central axis for gut rotation.

257
Q

What is the first stage of gut rotation?

A

Midgut loop formation and physiological herniation.

258
Q

Why does the midgut herniate?

A

The abdominal cavity is too small to accommodate rapid growth.

259
Q

Where does the midgut herniate?

A

Into the extraembryonic coelom within the umbilical cord.

260
Q

What happens in the second stage of gut rotation?

A

A 90-degree counterclockwise rotation.

261
Q

What happens to the cranial limb during initial rotation?

A

It moves to the right.

262
Q

What happens to the caudal limb during initial rotation?

A

It moves to the left.

263
Q

What happens during the third stage of gut rotation?

A

Retraction and an additional 180-degree rotation.

264
Q

When does the midgut return to the peritoneal cavity?

A

Week 10-11.

265
Q

What is the total degree of gut rotation?

A

270 degrees counterclockwise.

266
Q

What guides the large intestine into position?

A

The downward shifting of the cecum.

267
Q

What happens in the final stage of gut rotation?

A

Fixation and final arrangement.

268
Q

What happens to the colon during final positioning?

A

It frames the small intestine.

269
Q

Where does the ascending colon end up?

A

On the right side.

270
Q

Where does the descending colon end up?

A

On the left side.

271
Q

Where does the transverse colon lie?

A

It crosses the abdomen.

272
Q

What anchors the intestines?

A

The mesentery.

273
Q

What is malrotation?

A

Incomplete or incorrect gut rotation.

274
Q

What can malrotation lead to?

A

Volvulus, causing intestinal obstruction.

275
Q

What is an omphalocele?

A

Persistent herniation of the gut outside the abdominal cavity.

276
Q

What is Meckel�s diverticulum?

A

A remnant of the vitelline duct.

277
Q

What complications can Meckel�s diverticulum cause?

A

Bleeding or infection.

278
Q

What forms the small intestine?

A

The cranial limb of the midgut loop.

279
Q

What forms parts of the large intestine?

A

The caudal limb of the midgut loop.

280
Q

What part of the gut elongates the most?

A

The small intestine.

281
Q

What provides blood supply to the midgut?

A

The superior mesenteric artery (SMA).