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embedded and review questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. FLIP ______ documents are usually NOT used during flight. (B/1/1) a. planningb. enroute c. terminal d. departure
A

a. planning

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2
Q
  1. If you need to locate information about the altimeter changeover procedures, but cannot remember where to look, the best place to start your search would be the ______. (B/1/2)a. Explanation of Terms section in GP b. Chapter 4 of GP c. Index for Aviation Information in AP/1 d. Index for Aeronautical Information in GP
A

d. Index for Aeronautical Information in GP

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3
Q
  1. If planning a mission in the US, you should reference ______ for information about theater operations and supplementary airfield information. (B/1/3)a. AP/1 b. AP/2 c. AP/3 d. AP/4
A

a. AP/1

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4
Q
  1. It is mandatory to file the Preferred IFR Route if one is established between your departure and destination airfield. (B/1/4)a. True b. False
A

b. FalseFiling a preferred route is not mandatory but doing so results in more efficient handling of clearance, departure, and arrival.

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5
Q
  1. For information on special use airspace in the US, consult FLIP ______. (B/1/5) a. AP/1Ab. AP/2B c. GP d. AP/4
A

a. AP/1AFLIP Area Planning (AP)Special Use Airspace in the US is covered by AP/1A

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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a FLIP enroute publication? (B/2/1) a. IFR Supplement b. Low Altitude Enroute Chart c. AP/1Bd. Flight Information Handbook
A

c. AP/1BFLIP enroute publications:VFR SupplementIFR SupplementLow/High Altitude Enroute ChartsArea Charts Flight Information Handbook

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7
Q
  1. To find out what an airfield’s servicing capabilities are, you should reference ______. (B/2/2) a. FLIP GPb. the FIH c. AP/2B d. the IFR Supplement
A

d. the IFR Supplement

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8
Q
  1. Low altitude enroute charts are for operations below ______ feet MSL. (B/2/3)
A

18,000 ft MSL

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9
Q
  1. A star next to any item on the low altitude enroute chart indicates ______. (B/2/4) A. part-time or on request operation B. no lighting is available C. the service is not availableD. the service is for private use only
A

A. part-time or on request operation

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10
Q
  1. Radials and bearings on the low altitude enroute chart are ______. (B/2/5) a. trueb. magnetic c. only accurate within 25 SM d. A and C
A

b. magnetic

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11
Q
  1. (L) and (T) symbols on high altitude enroute charts refer to ______. (B/2/6) a. an airfield having landing and/or training restrictions b. types of airfield lighting systems c. a NAVAID having a restriction on its usable ranged. types of enroute altitude restrictions
A

c. a NAVAID having a restriction on its usable range

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12
Q
  1. Q-routes offer more direct routing than NAVAIDS and are applicable for what altitudes? (B/2/7) a. Surface to 18,000 feet MSL b. 18,000 feet MSL to FL 450 c. FL240toFL600d. All altitudes within the route structure
A

b. 18,000 feet MSL to FL 450 Q-routes are available for use by RNAV (GPS) equipped aircraft between, 18,000 MSL and FL 450.Depicted in blue on Enroute High Altitude Charts.

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13
Q
  1. The primary purpose of the small airfield sketch in the lower portion of each approach plate is to ______. (B/3/1)a. provide programming information for computer-based navigation systems b. assist in the movement of ground traffic c. aid pilots during landing transition by helping to identify the runway environment d. show required navigation aid frequencies for the approach
A

c. aid pilots during landing transition by helping to identify the runway environment

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14
Q
  1. What area is ALWAYS shown to scale on a published instrument procedure? (B/3/2) a. only the area outside the solid line circle b. only the area inside the solid line circle c. A and Bd. only the profile view
A

b. only the area inside the solid line circle

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15
Q
  1. What equipment would be required to fly the final approach portion of a published instrument procedure titled “VOR or ILS RWY 32L?” (B/3/3)a. VOR b. DME c. ILS d. A or C
A

d. A or Ca. VOR c. ILS

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16
Q
  1. Military departure procedures are found in ______. (B/3/4) a. FLIP low altitude terminal books b. FLIP high altitude terminal books c. the STAR bookd. A and B
A

d. A and Ba. FLIP low altitude terminal books b. FLIP high altitude terminal books

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17
Q
  1. Relief is depicted on aeronautical charts using ______. (B/4/1) a. contour lines b. shading c. elevation/gradient tintsd. all of the above
A

d. all of the abovea. contour lines b. shading c. elevation/gradient tints

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18
Q
  1. Hydrography portrays ______. (B/4/3) a. man-made features b. aeronautical information c. terrain elevationd. bodies of water
A

d. bodies of water

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19
Q
  1. The CHUM and CHUM Supplement or E-CHUM could be used to update ______. (B/4/4) a. TPCsb. ONCs c. JOGs d. all of the above
A

d. all of the abovea. TPCsb. ONCs c. JOGs CHUM - Chart Updating Manual

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20
Q
  1. What would you do first to get NOTAMs for Mathis Field (KSJT) using DINS? (C/1/1) a. Type in MATHIS b. Type in KSJT c. Click View NOTAMSd. A or B above
A

b. Type in KSJT

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21
Q
  1. D series NOTAMs are those that need wide dissemination and you can call any FSS at 1-800-WX- BRIEF to get the D NOTAMs you are interested in. (C/1/2)a. True b. False
A

a. True

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22
Q
  1. FDC NOTAMs will automatically be provided by the FSS mission briefer. (C/1/3) a. Trueb. False
A

b. FalseFDC NOTAMs will not be given as part of a normal pilot briefing. You must ask for them.

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23
Q
  1. If your destination is a civil field that is not listed in the IFR Supplement, you need to reference ______. (C/1/4)a. AP/1 b. the FIH c. the A/FD d. AP/2F
A

c. the A/FD Airport/Facility Directory

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24
Q
  1. FLIP planning documents are updated by ______. a. US Notice to Airman (NOTAM) system b. Planning Change Notices c. Urgent Change Noticesd. all of the above
A

d. all of the abovea. US Notice to Airman (NOTAM) system b. Planning Change Notices c. Urgent Change Notices

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25
Q
  1. Information on Military Training Routes (MTRs) can be found in ______. a. GPb. the IFR Supplement c. AP/1B d. AP/4
A

c. AP/1B

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26
Q
  1. An airport depicted with a brown symbol on the low altitude enroute chart ______. a. does not have a published instrument procedure b. is found only in the A/FD c. has a minimum runway length of 5000 feetd. has published radar approach minimums
A

a. does not have a published instrument procedure

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27
Q
  1. RNAV routes are available for ______ equipped aircraft and are depicted in ______ on Low Altitude and High Altitude Enroute charts.a. Radar; blue b. TACAN; green c. GPS; blue d. VORTAC; black
A

c. GPS; blue

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28
Q
  1. All airports shown on high altitude enroute charts have at least one hard surfaced runway with a minimum runway length of ______ feet.a. 3000 b. 5000 c. 8000 d. 10,000
A

b. 5000

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29
Q
  1. FLIP terminal books include ______. a. all DoD instrument terminal procedures b. all civil instrument terminal procedures c. civil procedures requested by the military d. A and C
A

d. A and Ca. all DoD instrument terminal procedures c. civil procedures requested by the military

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30
Q
  1. The Terminal Change Notice (TCN) book contains amendments to ______. a. terminal high altitude volumes only b. the STAR book c. terminal low altitude volumes onlyd. both terminal high and low altitude volumes
A

d. both terminal high and low altitude volumes

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31
Q
  1. Which chart would be best for a mission, or portion of a mission, requiring a high level of detail? a. TPCb. ONC c. JOG d. Sectional
A

c. JOG On most Air Force missions, you will use either a TPC, ONC, or if the mission calls for a high level of map detail, a JOG chart.

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32
Q
  1. VFR chart relief symbols are used to depict ______. a. bodies of water b. cultural objects c. airports and special use airspaced. differences in the elevation of the land surface
A

d. differences in the elevation of the land surface

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33
Q
  1. The NTAP provides NOTAM information ______. a. of a short term nature b. of a long term nature c. consisting only of D Class NOTAMsd. consisting only of critical L Class NOTAMs
A

b. of a long term nature NTAP - Notices to Airmen PublicationNTAP book contains NOTAM information that is expected to remain in effect for an extended period of time (greater than 90 days) or, that is known sufficiently in advance to be included in publication of this book.

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34
Q
  1. A good rule of thumb when selecting a cross-country destination is to select a base within ______NM. (B/1/1) a. 200 b. 300 c. 600d. 700
A

b. 300

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35
Q
  1. If you were flying a route of 220 miles, what approximate altitude would you plan to use? (B/1/2) a. 10,000b. 12,000 c. 20,000 d. 22,000
A

d. 22,000

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36
Q
  1. Which of the following is a way to decrease fuel consumption during cruise? (B/2/1) a. Fly optimum altitude b. Fly proper cruise speed c. Minimize dragd. All of the above
A

d. All of the abovea. Fly optimum altitude b. Fly proper cruise speed c. Minimize drag

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37
Q
  1. Given constant altitude cruise and 50 knots of headwind, which of the following statements is true if you want to achieve maximum fuel efficiency? (B/2/2)a. Cruise at max endurance airspeed. b. Cruise at an airspeed greater than max range airspeed. c. Cruise at an airspeed less than max endurance airspeed. d. Cruise at max range airspeed
A

b. Cruise at an airspeed greater than max range airspeed.

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38
Q
  1. Which of the following does NOT meet the published instrument procedures definition of AFI 11- 202, Volume 3? (B/3/1)a. ILS approach published in a FLIP Low Altitude Terminal bookb. Local procedure approved for use by MAJCOMc. A non DoD/NGA or NACO approach chart acceptable to the Pilot in Command (regardless of MAJCOM approval)d. A PAR approach with minimums published in a FLIP Terminal book
A

c. A non DoD/NGA or NACO approach chart acceptable to the Pilot in Command (regardless of MAJCOM approval)

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39
Q
  1. If filing to a destination outside Class A airspace that requires radar to fly the only available approach, you must be able to positively identify your aircraft’s position within ____ NMs of the airfield. (B/3/2)a. 5 b. 15 c. 25 d. 40
A

c. 25

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40
Q
  1. If filing to a destination with a circling approach only, the forecast ______ must be at or above the lowest compatible published instrument procedures minimums. (B/3/3)a. ceiling b. visibility c. ceiling and visibility d. winds
A

c. ceiling and visibility

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41
Q
  1. T or F? Since the T-6A is GPS equipped, it is permissible to designate an airfield as an alternate that only has a GPS approach even if forecast weather for ±1 hour of your ETA DOES NOT permit a VFR descent from the IFR MEA to a VFR approach and landing. (B/4/4)
A

FALSEIf the only compatible published instrument procedure at your destination is a circling approach, AFI 11-202 V 3 requires that the forecast weather meet both the ceiling and visibility requirements for your ETA +/- 1 hour.

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42
Q
  1. The forecaster tells you that the weather at Corpus Christi International is 1500 broken, 8000 overcast, with 7 miles visibility. Do you need to designate an alternate for this mission? (B/5/1)a. Yes b. No
A

A. Yesan alternate is required:Ceiling

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43
Q
  1. In the T-6A, for STTO entry on the AF Form 70 use ______ minute(s) and ______ pounds of fuel. (C/1/1)a. 1;25 b. 1;50 c. 2;50 d. 3; 100
A

b. 1;50 STTO - Start, Taxi, TakeoffSTTO (1 min and 50 lbs)

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44
Q
  1. T or F? Level off fuel (L/O) is the planned amount of fuel used from departure field elevation to planned cruise altitude. (C/1/2)
A

TRUE

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45
Q
  1. Using your calculator, determine the distance to level off with a 180 knot average groundspeed and a time to climb of 8 minutes. (C/1/3)a. 22 miles b. 24 miles c. 27 miles d. 31 miles
A

b. 24 miles

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46
Q
  1. T or F? Under IFR rules, make your alternate calculations based on proceeding direct from the missed approach point at your destination to the IAF at your alternate. (C/2/4)
A

FALSEUnder IFR rules, you make your alternate calculations based on proceeding direct from the destination IAF to an appropriate IAF at the alternate at cruise altitude.

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47
Q
  1. In the T-6A, use a standard P&A fuel of ______ minute(s) and ______ pounds of fuel. (C/2/5) a. 1;10b. 5;25 c. 10; 50 d. 15; 100
A

d. 15; 100P&A - Penetration and Approach

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48
Q
  1. Enter the date on the DD 175 based on ______ time. (D/1/1) a. Localb. UTC
A

a. Local

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49
Q
  1. Call signs on the DD 175 are limited to a maximum of ______ characters. (D/1/2) a. 3b. 5 c. 7 d. 9
A

c. 7

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50
Q
  1. T or F? If you require service at your destination you would enter the word “Service” in the Remarks section of the DD 175 flight plan. (D/1/5)
A

FALSEYou enter “S” S - Service RequiredPPR - PPR number(s)R - Aircraft will remain over night

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51
Q
  1. If filing a stopover flight plan and an alternate is required for the second destination, where do you show the alternate airfield’s identifier and the ETE to that alternate? (D/1/7)a. In the remarks section b. In the “ALTN AIRFIELD” and “ETE TO ALTN” blocks c. In parenthesis following the last entry in the “ROUTE OF FLIGHT” section of the second leg d. On a separate line in the “ROUTE OF FLIGHT” section preceded by a circled “A”
A

c. In parenthesis following the last entry in the “ROUTE OF FLIGHT” section of the second leg

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52
Q
  1. If filing to a destination where radar is required to fly the approach and you are operating in Class A airspace, you ______.a. must be able to positively fix your position within 25 NMs of the airfield using a nonradar fix/facilityb. must be able to positively fix your position within 50 NMs of the airfield using a nonradar fix/facilityc. may file to the nearest nonradar fix or facility and request radar vector service d. None of the above. You may not file to a radar only destination.
A

c. may file to the nearest nonradar fix or facility and request radar vector service

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53
Q
  1. To designate an airfield as an alternate, forecast weather (± 1 hour of ETA) must be ______ above lowest compatible published instrument procedure minimum and visibility of ______ or published visibility, whichever is ______.a. 1000 feet; 3 SM; lower b. 1000 feet; 3 SM; higher c. 500 feet; 2 SM; lower d. 500 feet; 2 SM; higher
A

d. 500 feet; 2 SM; higher

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54
Q
  1. On an enroute chart, a flag with an X in it indicates a ______. (B/1/1) a. MEAb. MRA c. MOCA d. MCA
A

d. MCAMCA - Minimum Crossing AltitudeThe flag with the X in it indicates the route and direction where the MCA applies.

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55
Q
  1. Jet route altitudes start at ______ and go up to ______. (B/1/2) a. 14,500 MSL; FL450 b. 14,500 MSL; FL600 c. 18,000 MSL; FL450d. 18,000 MSL; FL600
A

c. 18,000 MSL; FL450

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56
Q
  1. T or F? RNAV routes offer the most dependable routing for GPS equipped aircraft.(B/1/3)
A

FALSEGPS and other RNAV procedures rely on data extracted from the aircraft database. The potential for serious navigation errors is created by inherent properties of database creation and its use by aircrew and aircrew systems.

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57
Q
  1. T or F? The pilot may use GPS-provided data to ensure terrain clearance for IFR flight. (B/1/4)
A

FALSEAlthough GPS will provide a minimum safe altitude display, it is advisory only.

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58
Q
  1. Which of the following would NOT require you to change your flight plan in-flight? (B/2/1) a. Change in destination b. Change from VFR to IFR only c. Change in routingd. Change of ETA by 15 minutes
A

d. Change of ETA by 15 minutes

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59
Q
  1. Select the best way to use your in-flight log. (B/3/1)a. Disregard the log because the in-flight planning is more accurate.b. Keep track of the heading and times so you can update your ETA.c. Log the actual times and fuel and compare this to your planned data to be sure you can get to your destination.d. Log only the time information to be sure you can get to your destination.
A

c. Log the actual times and fuel and compare this to your planned data to be sure you can get to your destination.

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60
Q
  1. On each leg of your flight, you are increasingly above the planned fuel and are ahead on time. What is the most likely cause for this? (B/3/2)a. You have more headwind than forecast. b. You have less headwind/more tailwind than forecast. c. The planning documents are out of date. d. The aircraft is more efficient on a long flight.
A

b. You have less headwind/more tailwind than forecast.

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61
Q
  1. You are at FL250 on an IFR flight plan, and you want to increase your TAS from 240 knots to 255 knots. Are you required to report this change to center? (B/4/2)a. No. Only indicated airspeed changes are reported. b. No. It is not greater that a 5% change in airspeed. c. Yes. Any airspeed change requires a report to center. d. Yes. It is greater than 5% or 10 knots change in true airspeed.
A

d. Yes. It is greater than 5% or 10 knots change in true airspeed.If you change your TAS by plus or minus 5% or 10 knots (whichever is greater), you are required to report the change to Center.

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62
Q
  1. T or F? If you have lost comm and in VMC conditions, you are required to land at the nearest suitable airport. (B/5/1)
A

FALSEIf VMC, maintain VMC and continue under VFR. Land as soon as practicable and notify ATC. Not required to land and any airfield.

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63
Q
  1. The MEA is FL 220, and you filed for FL260. You are assigned FL 240 by Center. Which altitude would you fly if you lost communication? (B/5/2)a. FL 220 b. FL 240 c. FL 260 d. FL240 or FL260
A

b. FL 240 MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude

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64
Q
  1. Which document lists Center frequencies? (B/5/3) a. Flight Information Handbook b. IFR Supplement c. Enroute High Altitude Chartd. FLIP General Planning
A

b. IFR Supplement

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65
Q
  1. The weather forecaster did not forecast any significant weather for your route of flight. Halfway to your destination, you encounter thunderstorms with heavy rains. What should you do? (B/6/1)a. Avoid the thunderstorms and notify METRO of the unexpected weather. b. Fly your flight as planned and notify METRO of the unexpected weather. c. Avoid the thunderstorms and, if you experience any icing or turbulence, report it to METRO. d. Fly your flight as planned and contact METRO to get an update on the storms.
A

a. Avoid the thunderstorms and notify METRO of the unexpected weather.

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66
Q
  1. Which cloud has the most hazardous weather associated with it? (B/6/2) a. Cumulusb. Stratus c. Cumulonimbus d. Cirrus
A

c. Cumulonimbus

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67
Q
  1. In order to fly RNAV DPs, CDI sensitivity must be set, either manually or automatically, at terminal sensitivity (±______ nm, ______ scale deflection). (B/8/1)a. 1; half b. 3; half c. 1; full d. 3; full
A

c. 1; full Terminal sensitivity +/- 1NM, full scale deflection

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68
Q
  1. TAA area lateral boundaries are identified by magnetic courses ______ the IF (IAF). (B/8/2) a. TOb. FROM c. abeam d. parallel to
A

a. TO

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69
Q
  1. T or F? If using GPS in the terminal area, pilots should not comply with ATC instructions to proceed direct to a point on a STAR/DP. (B/8/3)
A

FALSEThis requirement also does not preclude aircrew from complying with ATC instructions by proceeding direct to a point on a STAR/DP or by receiving ATC vectors onto course.

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70
Q
  1. IFR flight in controlled airspace requires that you have a filed flight plan and have operable______ prior to takeoff.a. GPS b. UHF communication equipment c. VHF communication and TACAN navigation d. communication, navigation, and identification equipment
A

d. communication, navigation, and identification equipment

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71
Q
  1. In most cases, ______ airspace begins at 14,500 feet MSL and includes Victor routes and transition airspace.a. Class A b. Class C c. Class D d. Class E
A

d. Class E

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72
Q
  1. The MEA provides ______ obstacle clearance in mountainous terrain and ______ in non- mountainous terrain.a. 1000 feet; 1000 feet b. 1000 feet; 2000 feet c. 2000 feet; 1000 feet d. 2000 feet; 2000 feet
A

c. 2000 feet; 1000 feet MEA - Minimum Enroute Altitude

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73
Q
  1. To adjust your flight plan in-flight, you ______. a. contact the nearest military base operations and file your request b. contact the enroute controlling agency and make your request c. fly your change if in radar contact without contacting Center d. land at the nearest airport and refile your flight plan
A

b. contact the enroute controlling agency and make your request

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74
Q
  1. When a TAA is published, it replaces the ______ for the approach procedure. a. MEAb. MSA c. MRA d. MOCA
A

b. MSA

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75
Q
  1. Compulsory reporting points are denoted by a ______. a. flag with an X in it b. filled-in triangle c. triangle that is not filled-ind. flag with a C in it
A

b. filled-in triangle

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76
Q
  1. You must report a change in airspeed when ______. a. changing your IAS by plus or minus 5% or ten knots b. changing your IAS by plus or minus 10% or 5 knots c. changing your TAS by plus or minus 10% or 5 knots d. changing your TAS by plus or minus 5% or 10 knots
A

d. changing your TAS by plus or minus 5% or 10 knots

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77
Q
  1. If you go lost comm on an IFR flight plan, you will fly the highest of your ______ altitude. a. assigned, planned, or expected b. planned, MEA or expected c. assigned, MEA, or expectedd. planned, MEA, or assigned
A

c. assigned, MEA, or expected

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78
Q
  1. What is the proper way to contact a military weather facility in-flight? a. (Name) weather b. Air Force (name) weather c. Navy (name) weatherd. (Name) METRO
A

d. (Name) METRO

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79
Q
  1. What is the difference between a full service METRO and a limited service METRO? a. There is no difference. b. A full service METRO has a forecaster on duty. c. Full service METROs are at Navy bases.d. A limited service METRO has only one radio frequency.
A

b. A full service METRO has a forecaster on duty.

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80
Q
  1. If you were planning a mission from Laughlin AFB to Randolph AFB, you would consult ______ forRandolph supplementary airfield information. (B/1/1)
A

AP/1

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81
Q
  1. If you wanted to know if your destination has the proper grade fuel available for your aircraft, you would consult the ______. (B/1/2)
A

IFR Supplement

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82
Q
  1. If you are planning your IFR flight to operate at 20,000 feet MSL, you should use a ______ enroute chart. (B/1/3)
A

high altitude

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83
Q
  1. For information on emergency procedures, you would consult the ______. (B/1/4)
A

Flight Information Handbook

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84
Q
  1. Most Air Force VFR missions commonly use what type charts for VFR navigation? (B/1/5)
A

Most use TPC, ONC, or JOG charts

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85
Q
  1. What are the obstacle clearances established by MEA indications? (B/4/1)
A

2000 feet in mountainous terrain 1000 feet in non mountainous terrain When not shown on the high chart, MEA is 18,000 feet MSL

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86
Q
  1. What are some reasons you may have to make adjustments to your flight plan? (B/4/2)
A

a. Winds b. Turbulence c. Icing

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87
Q
  1. Position reports are not required when in radar contact unless requested by controllers. When you are not in radar contact, how will you know when to transmit a position report? (B/4/3)
A

Position reports are required at all compulsory reporting points, indicated by a filled-in triangle.

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88
Q
  1. Where would you find the formats for flight plan changes and position reports? (B/4/4)
A

The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement

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89
Q
  1. You are IMC and assigned to fly FL 260, your MEA is FL 240, and you requested FL 280. If you experience lost communications, what altitude should you fly? (B/4/5)
A

Fly the highest of: A - assignedM – minimum IFR altitude (MEA) E -expected. In this case, fly your assigned altitude, FL 260.

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90
Q
  1. If you fly into unexpected hazardous weather, you should transmit a PIREP. Where would you find the PIREP format? (B/4/6)
A

Flight Information Handbook, Section C

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91
Q
  1. RNAV Terminal Area Procedures require that aircraft equipment meet certification standards addressed in what publication? (B/4/7)
A

AFI11-202V3

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92
Q

2 (1 in answer key). What are some restrictions on filing GPS-direct routes?

A

-Radar monitoring must be available on entire route -Route must begin and end at a departure and arrival fix when practical -Route must avoid prohibited and restricted airspace by at least three NMs

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93
Q

3 (2 in answer key). Which class of airspace covers controlled airspace over nontowered airfields?

A

Class E (Class D becomes Class E when tower closes)

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94
Q
  1. (4 in answer key) You are IMC and assigned to fly FL 180, your MEA is 10,000 feet, and you requested FL 200 and were told to expect that altitude. If you experience lost communications, what altitude should you fly?
A

a. Fly the highest of: b. A - assigned c. M - minimum IFR altitude (MEA) d. E – expected e. In this case, fly your expected altitude, FL 200.

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95
Q
  1. (6 in answer key) Which FLIP chart should you reference for a mission at 16,000 feet MSL?
A

Low altitude chart

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96
Q
  1. (7 in answer key) NOTAM abbreviation codes would be found in the _____.
A

Flight Information Handbook

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97
Q
  1. (8 in answer key) Which chart would you use if you needed more topographical detail than is represented on a TPC or Sectional chart?
A

A JOG chart

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98
Q
  1. (9 in answer key)Where can you find a formatted guide for changing flight plans in-flight?
A

The inside back cover of the IFR Supplement

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99
Q
  1. (10 in answer key) What condition must be met in order to use GPS for an approach or departure procedure?
A

Terminal(orbetter)RAIMmustbeavailable.

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100
Q
  1. When flying VFR, your destination must have a forecast ceiling equal to or greater than ______ feetand visibility of at least ______. (B/1/1) a. (1000 Air Force) (500 Navy)/1mile b. (1500 Air Force) (1000 Navy)/3miles c. (2000 Air Force) (1500 Navy)/3miles d. (2500 Air Force) (2000 Navy)/5miles
A

b. (1500 Air Force) (1000 Navy)/3miles

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101
Q
  1. You are operating at 1500 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace during daylight hours. What are your minimum cloud clearance requirements? (B/1/2)a. 500 feet below and 1000 feet above b. 1000 feet below and 2000 feet above c. 2000 horizontal d. Both A and C
A

d. Both A and Ca. 500 feet below and 1000 feet above c. 2000 horizontal

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102
Q
  1. The ______ section of the enroute supplement will tell you if a field is OBO or if a PPR is required. (B/1/3)a. COMMUNICATIONS b. SERVICE c. REMARKS d. NAVAIDS
A

c. REMARKS

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103
Q
  1. The main purpose of any checkpoint is to ______. (C/1/1) a. provide a point to start your timing b. provide a verification of the accuracy of your preflight planning c. ensure you avoid special use airspace d. provide a point to adjust your wind calculations
A

b. provide a verification of the accuracy of your preflight planning

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104
Q
  1. As a general rule of thumb, checkpoints should be between ______ and ______ minutes apart. (C/1/2) a. 2;5b. 5;25 c. 10; 30 d. 20; 40
A

b. 5;25

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105
Q
  1. When plotting courses on your VFR chart, the course line should extend inside the circle that highlights each checkpoint. (C/1/3)a. True b. False
A

b. False

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106
Q
  1. The objective when creating your map is give yourself points in time to cross-check position and validate planning. The best way to accomplish that is to plan the flight for a ______. (C/1/4)a. variable groundspeed b. constant airspeed c. constant groundspeed d. A and B
A

c. constant groundspeed

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107
Q
  1. Along with your checkpoint, the flight log should include entries for ______. (C/2/1) a. taxi fuel, climb fuel, descent fuel, and fuel reserve b. climb fuel and a minimum of two patterns at destination c. STTO, climb fuel, pattern and arrival fuel, and fuel reserved. STTO, backup instrument approach fuel, and fuel reserve
A

c. STTO, climb fuel, pattern and arrival fuel, and fuel reserve

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108
Q
  1. The upper portion (protractor) of the plotter is used to measure the ______ on aeronautical charts. (C/2/2)a. distance between points in nautical miles b. direction of lines in degrees c. scale of contour lines d. latitude and longitude of any point
A

b. direction of lines in degrees

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109
Q
  1. The small inner scales located about a third of the distance from the outer edge of the plotter are used for measuring a course with a ______. (C/2/3)a. meridian b. north-south grid line c. parallel d. east-west grid line
A

c. parallel

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110
Q
  1. Aircraft heading systems and aeronautical charts are both based on true north and south. (C/3/1) a. Trueb. False
A

b. False

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111
Q
  1. To convert your true course to a magnetic course you ______ easterly variation. (C/3/2) a. addb. subtract c. multiply it by d. divide it by
A

b. subtract

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112
Q
  1. Magnetic heading (MH) is magnetic course (MC) adjusted for ______. (C/3/3) a. magnetic variation b. TAS c. altituded. winds
A

d. winds

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113
Q
  1. On a VFR flight at low altitude, since calibration error is negligible, CAS will equal IAS. (C/3/4) a. Trueb. False
A

b. False

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114
Q
  1. The first step to compute your fuel is to determine the specific range factor using ______. (C/3/5) a. the Flight Manual b. your electronic calculator c. the aeronautical chart legendd. your plotter
A

a. the Flight Manual

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115
Q
  1. Which of the following items is usually NOT plotted on your VFR chart? (C/4/1) a. Magnetic heading b. Altitude c. Navigation aid frequenciesd. Continuation fuel
A

c. Navigation aid frequencies

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116
Q
  1. A route study is a detailed examination of the planned flight concentrating on visualizing what you should see as you navigate the route. (D/1/1)a. True b. False
A

a. True

117
Q
  1. When checking if an airfield is OBO or requires a PPR, you should consult NOTAMs and ______. a. the Enroute Supplement b. FLIP General Planning c. your aeronautical chartd. the Flight Information Handbook
A

a. the Enroute Supplement

118
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a type of special use airspace? a. Restricted areas b. Warning areas c. MOAsd. National Parks and Wildlife Zones
A

d. National Parks and Wildlife Zones

119
Q
  1. When measuring a course, the key first step is ______. a. check the magnetic variation b. apply the forecast winds c. determine the general direction of the course line d. convert groundspeed to true airspeed
A

c. determine the general direction of the course line

120
Q
  1. To convert your true course to magnetic course you ______ westerly variation. a. addb. subtract c. multiply it by d. divide it by
A

a. add

121
Q
  1. On a VFR flight above 3000 feet AGL and heading 090, which of the following would be a legal altitude to maintain?a. 5000 feet b. 5500 feet c. 6000 feet d. 6500 feet
A

b. 5500 feet

122
Q
  1. The main objective when completing the VFR map is to present all the essential information while ______.a. ensuring the course lines intersect precisely at each checkpoint b. minimizing clutter and the amount of map detail obscured by the markings c. ensuring that each possible radio frequency is included on the chart d. ensuring that any possible divert airfield is properly highlighted
A

b. minimizing clutter and the amount of map detail obscured by the markings

123
Q
  1. If you have any questions or difficulties completing a military VFR flight plan, you should refer to ______ for guidance.a. Enroute Supplement b. FLIP Area Planning c. FLIP General Planning d. FAR 98.0.0.2
A

c. FLIP General Planning

124
Q
  1. Once you have filed your VFR flight plan, clearance delivery ______. (B/1/1) a. provides an assigned altitude b. provides your route of flight c. provides your squawkd. provides nothing because you are not required to call them for a VFR flight plan
A

d. provides nothing because you are not required to call them for a VFR flight plan

125
Q
  1. How is your VFR flight plan activated when departing a military or civilian airfield? (B/1/2)a. Tower activates your VFR flight plan at a military field; Ground Control activates your VFR flight plan at a civilian.b. FSS activates your VFR flight plan from a military field; tower activates your VFR flight plan from a civilian field.c. Tower activates your VFR flight plan from a military field; FSS activates your VFR flight plan from a civilian field when you contact them after you are airborne.d. There is no difference
A

c. Tower activates your VFR flight plan from a military field; FSS activates your VFR flight plan from a civilian field when you contact them after you are airborne.

126
Q
  1. When departing from an airfield that has Class D airspace, you should remain on tower frequency until you are clear of their airspace. (B/1/3)a. True b. False
A

a. True

127
Q
  1. While under flight following you can expect radar vectors to your destination. (B/2/1) a. Trueb. False
A

b. False

128
Q
  1. If you do not have flight following and must change your VFR flight plan to IFR, you should first contact ______. (B/2/2)a. FSS and file your route b. A TC and file your route c. the nearest tower to file your flight plan d. only ATC or FSS to file your flight plan
A

a. FSS and file your route

129
Q
  1. If you change your VFR flight plan to an IFR flight plan with ATC, you need to contact FSS because ______. (B/2/3)a. you need to advise them that you changed frequencies b. you are no longer providing position reports c. you need to cancel your VFR flight plan. d. you may be changing your ETA by 30 minutes
A

c. you need to cancel your VFR flight plan.

130
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of DR navigation? (C/1/1) a. Timeb. GPS c. Airspeed d. Heading
A

b. GPS

131
Q
  1. If you do not see your checkpoint at the time you planned, you would turn to your next checkpoint based on time. (C/1/2)a. True b. False
A

a. True

132
Q
  1. When navigating on a VFR route you want to look for points ______ and have them identified by ______. (C/2/2)a. 1-3 minutes out; 1 minute out b. 2-5 minutes out; 1 minute out c. 3-6 minutes out; 2 minutes out d. 4-7 minutes out; 3 minutes out
A

b. 2-5 minutes out; 1 minute out

133
Q
  1. One method to use in measuring distance is using cockpit view angles. Another method discussed was ______. (C/2/3)a. measuring the distance between two objects for comparison method b. measuring the distance base on the wingtip method c. measuring the distance base on angle rate change method d. measuring the distance based on the wingtip to canopy bow method
A

a. measuring the distance between two objects for comparison method

134
Q
  1. The Standard Closing Angle used for 210 knots groundspeed is 2°. (C/2/4) a. Trueb. False
A

b. False

135
Q
  1. How long do you hold your correction using SCA if you are 1 mile left of your course? (C/2/5) a. 1 minuteb. 2 minutes c. 3 minutes d. 4 minutes
A

a. 1 minute

136
Q
  1. Using the proportional method to correct for time, you add/reduce ______ knot(s) for every ______ second(s) late or early and hold this new airspeed for the number of minutes equal to your groundspeed in miles per minute. (C/2/6)a. 1;1 b. 1;2 c. 2;1 d. 2;4
A

a. 1;1

137
Q
  1. You are going 3NM per minute and are 15 seconds early. How would you correct? (C/2/7) a. Add 15 knots for 3 minutes. b. Add 3 knots for 15 minutes. c. Subtract 15 knots for 3 minutes.d. Subtract 3 knots for 3 minutes.
A

c. Subtract 15 knots for 3 minutes.

138
Q
  1. You are doing 4 NM per minute and are 30 seconds late. How would you correct? (C/2/8) a. Subtract 30 knots for 4 minutes. b. Subtract 4 knots for 30 minutes. c. Add 4 knots for 30 seconds.d. Add 30 knots for 4 minutes.
A

d. Add 30 knots for 4 minutes.

139
Q
  1. Your ground speed is 210 knots and you are 15 seconds early. What is your correction (use 10 percent method to calculate? (C/2/9)a. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute b. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 45 seconds. c. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 2 minutes and 30 seconds. d. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 3 minutes and 15 seconds.
A

c. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 2 minutes and 30 seconds.

140
Q
  1. Your groundspeed is 210 knots and you are 7 seconds late. What is your correction? (C/2/10) a. Increase your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute. b. Increase your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 10 seconds. c. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute.d. Decrease your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 10 seconds.
A

b. Increase your airspeed by 21 knots for 1 minute and 10 seconds.

141
Q
  1. You are doing 3 miles per minute. What is your correction if you are 30 seconds early (use Incremental Method to calculate? (C/2/11)a. Add 30 knots for 3 minutes. b. Add 3 knots for 30 minutes. c. Subtract 30 knots for 2 minutes. d. Subtract 30 knots for 3 minutes.
A

d. Subtract 30 knots for 3 minutes.

142
Q
  1. Your groundspeed is 4 miles per minute and you are 10 seconds late. What is your correction? (C/2/12)a. Add 40 knots for 1 minute. b. Add 10 knots for 3 minutes. c. Subtract 40 knots for 1 minute. d. Subtract 10 knots for 3 minutes.
A

a. Add 40 knots for 1 minute.

143
Q
  1. What items would you record on the in-flight log? (C/3/1) a. Time; heading b. Heading; fuel c. Fuel; timed. Airspeed; fuel
A

c. Fuel; time

144
Q
  1. Using your electronic calculator, how long would it take to travel 35 miles at a ground speed of 210 knots? (C/3/2)a. Eight minutes b. Nine minutes c. Ten minutes d. Eleven minutes
A

c. Ten minutes

145
Q
  1. When departing VFR you should tell tower your ______. a. initial altitude and direction of flight b. initial altitude and squawk c. direction of flight and squawkd. squawk and departure frequency
A

a. initial altitude and direction of flight

146
Q
  1. When departing VFR in Class D airspace, you are expected to ______. a. remain on tower frequency until clear of their airspace b. switch to Departure Control on your own c. switch to FSS frequencyd. switch to Center frequency for flight following
A

a. remain on tower frequency until clear of their airspace

147
Q
  1. When are you required to change your ETA on a VFR flight plan? a. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 15 minutes. b. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 30 minutes c. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 45 minutes d. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 60 minutes
A

b. If your arrival time is going to change by more than 30 minutes

148
Q
  1. You are navigating at night using DR nav and approaching a checkpoint that you can’t see. When would you turn to the next checkpoint?a. Turn when you think you passed this point. b. Turn on time. c. Lead the turn by 15 seconds. d. Lag the turn by 15 seconds.
A

b. Turn on time.

149
Q
  1. What are the primary scan positions on a VFR/low-level nav route? a. 3-9 positionb. 1-11 position c. 10-2 position d. 7-5 position
A

c. 10-2 position

150
Q
  1. You are level at 3000 feet AGL and see your checkpoint 45° below the level horizon. How far are you from the checkpoint?a. 3000 feet b. 6000 feet c. 9000 feet d. 12,000 feet
A

a. 3000 feet

151
Q
  1. Which one of the following course correction methods involves timing with a heading change? a. Funneling method b. Standard Closing Angle method c. Aiming methodd. Incremental method
A

b. Standard Closing Angle method

152
Q
  1. What are the five Cs? (B/1/1) a. Climb, conserve, confess, compass, communicate b. Confess, climb, conserve, chart, compass c. Chart, compass, continue, course, correction d. Confess, climb, conserve, communicate, comply
A

d. Confess, climb, conserve, communicate, comply

153
Q
  1. What is the first thing you should do when you realize you are lost? (B/1/2) a. Check your airspeed and altitude. b. Transmit a distress call on guard frequency. c. Check your clock, fuel, and heading.d. Check GPS position.
A

c. Check your clock, fuel, and heading.

154
Q
  1. When lost in-flight in overcast conditions, it is best to ______. (B/1/3)a. climb to increase radio reception, but maintain VMC conditions b. climb up on top of the clouds so you will be able to see better c. climb up on top of the clouds for better radio reception d. climb to 15,000 feet regardless of cloud condition
A

a. climb to increase radio reception, but maintain VMC conditions

155
Q
  1. You are flying along in your training area at 13,000 feet and you become disoriented. Your instruments are not functioning properly, and there is a cloud deck at 17,000 feet, what should you do?a. Climb to 21,000 feet to get on top of the clouds to increase visibility and radio reception.b. Climb in your area to increase visibility and radio reception, but stay below clouds and maintain VMC (17,000 feet).c. Remain at current altitude in order to maintain maximum radio reception. d. Descend to bottom of your training area for optimal visibility and radio reception.
A

b. Climb in your area to increase visibility and radio reception, but stay below clouds and maintain VMC (17,000 feet).

156
Q
  1. One way an FSS could help you when lost is by ______.a. picking you up on their radar equipment b. providing heading information c. determining your distance to the nearest FSS d. providing weather information
A

d. providing weather information

157
Q
  1. If lost in-flight, set your transponder to ______.a. 7500b. 7600 c. 7700 d. 7800
A

c. 7700

158
Q
  1. When lost in-flight, you should ______. a. climb up above the clouds so you can see what is around you b. stay put, other aircraft will pass eventually, and you can follow them c. look for landmarks to help identify you position d. descend to the lowest possible altitude to increase radio reception
A

c. look for landmarks to help identify you position

159
Q
  1. A distress call should contain ______. a. Help, help, help, call sign, and type of emergency b. PAN,PAN, PAN, call sign, and type of emergency c. Lost, lost, lost, call sign, and type of emergency d. PAN,PAN, PAN, call sign, and location
A

b. PAN,PAN, PAN, call sign, and type of emergency

160
Q
  1. If Forrest Sherman Field Tower was closed for some reason, then the airspace around the airfieldwould become Class D. (B/1/1) a. True b. False
A

b. False

161
Q
  1. Other than on the Sectional chart, where can you find information on a TRSA? (B/1/2) a. On the published approach plan view b. In the A/FD c. Enroute High Altitude chartd. TPC
A

b. In the A/FD

162
Q
  1. Before you cancel your IFR flight plan and begin your VFR arrival you must first be ______. (B/1/3) a. below 18,000 feet MSL and outside Class D airspace b. at or below 18,000 feet MSL and outside Class A airspace c. in VFR conditions and outside Class D airspaced. in VFR conditions and outside Class A airspace
A

d. in VFR conditions and outside Class A airspace

163
Q
  1. When arriving VFR at a military airfield in Class C airspace, you should contact ______. (B/1/4) a. the tower immediately prior to contacting the ATIS b. approach control when directed by the tower c. the A TIS and then towerd. approach control
A

d. approach control

164
Q
  1. Why is Pensacola categorized as Class C airspace? (B/1/5) a. It has an operating tower and has a radar approach control. b. It has an operating tower and VFR procedures. c. It has an operating ground control and instrument procedures. d. It has an operating departure control and VFR airspace.
A

a. It has an operating tower and has a radar approach control.

165
Q
  1. At a minimum, what information should you provide at initial radio check-in when entering Class C airspace VFR? (B/1/6)a. Callsign, altitude, speed, transponder, and heading b. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder, and intentions c. Callsign, altitude, speed, fuel state, and heading d. Callsign, altitude, transponder, and heading
A

b. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder, and intentions

166
Q
  1. Even though you might not use the OLS for your arrival, you should be aware of its presence on the field because ______. (B/2/1)a. the VASI might be inoperative b. the OLS can be relocated c. it could present an obstruction hazard d. it could be substituted for the PAPI
A

c. it could present an obstruction hazard

167
Q
  1. While maintaining aircraft control and continuing to clear, what is the first thing you should do after realizing you might have radio failure? (B/3/1)a. Set 7600 in your transponder. b. Review the Flight Information Handbook. c. Troubleshoot your radio connection and settings. d. Advise ATC with “in the blind” calls.
A

c. Troubleshoot your radio connection and settings.

168
Q
  1. In a lost comm situation, how should you acknowledge the tower’s instructions? (B/3/2)a. Respond with your radio. b. Enter the traffic pattern and lower your flaps. c. Remain outside the airspace until signaled by the tower. d. Rock your wings.
A

d. Rock your wings.

169
Q
  1. How is Class D airspace identified on VFR Sectional Charts? (C/1/1)a. A dashed blue line b. A dashed magenta line c. A shaded blue line d. A shaded magenta line
A

a. A dashed blue line

170
Q
  1. If you learn there is a turbine-powered aircraft in the pattern, it is at ______ feet AGL. (C/1/2)a. 800b. 1000 c. 1500 d. 1700
A

c. 1500

171
Q
  1. What are two methods for communicating at an uncontrolled airfield? (C/1/3) a. Regional radar service facility and FSS b. FSS and self-announce c. Tower and self-announced. Regional A TC service and FSS
A

b. FSS and self-announce

172
Q
  1. What is true about the segmented circle? (C/2/1) a. They are not found at airfields with published instrument approach procedures. b. They are located on the airfield to afford maximum visibility to pilots. c. They are always placed adjacent to the approach end of the active runway. d. They are found only at airfields with published instrument approach procedures.
A

b. They are located on the airfield to afford maximum visibility to pilots.

173
Q
  1. The landing strip indicators portray the ______. (C/2/2) a. active runway and wind direction b. runway in use and wind direction c. runway in use and traffic patternd. runway alignment
A

d. runway alignment

174
Q
  1. The ______ is used to display the direction for landings and takeoffs. (C/2/3) a. wind direction indicator b. landing direction indicator (cone) c. landing strip indicator (tetrahedron)d. landing direction indicator (tetrahedron)
A

d. landing direction indicator (tetrahedron)

175
Q
  1. If you are landing at a civilian uncontrolled airfield in Class E airspace, you should exercise extra caution because ______. (C/3/1)a. of the busy nature of this class of airspace b. there are no two-way communications requirements c. the tower will have limited operating hours d. VFR visibility minimums are more restricted
A

b. there are no two-way communications requirements

176
Q
  1. When landing at an uncontrolled airfield in a comm out situation you should ______. (C/3/2) a. enter the pattern as you would at your home training field b. enter the pattern in a standard right hand pattern c. enter downwind at a 45° angled. determine the wind and enter a standard right hand pattern
A

c. enter downwind at a 45° angle

177
Q
  1. When operating under VFR during an arrival at a strange airfield, the ______ is responsible for separation from other aircraft.a. pilot b. controlling FSS c. UNICOM d. the pilot and FSS
A

a. pilot

178
Q
  1. For VFR arrivals it is important to note that Class C airspace normally has a radius of ______ NM.a. 5b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
A

b. 10

179
Q
  1. When approaching a military airfield for a VFR arrival, it is a good practice to monitor the ______ frequency prior to making initial radio contact.a. guard b. departure c. approach d. ATIS
A

d. ATIS

180
Q
  1. What information should you provide during initial radio contact when arriving VFR at a military airfield?a. Callsign, speed, altitude, intentions, and ETA b. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder code, and ETA c. Callsign, position, speed, altitude, intentions, and transponder code d. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder code, and intentions
A

d. Callsign, position, altitude, transponder code, and intentions

181
Q
  1. The _______ is a Navy-unique visual landing system providing glideslope information. a. Optical Landing System (OLS) b. Fresnel Slope Indicator (FSI) c. Visual Approach Slope Indicator (VASI)d. Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI)
A

a. Optical Landing System (OLS)

182
Q
  1. The lateral dimensions of Class D airspace are normally ______. a. 10 nautical miles from the airport b. 10 nautical miles from the active runway c. determined by the instrument procedure at the airfieldd. determined by the surrounding Class C airspace
A

c. determined by the instrument procedure at the airfield

183
Q
  1. What happens if the tower at an airport in Class D airspace closes? a. It reverts to Class E controlled airfield. b. It remains Class D but is an uncontrolled airfield. c. It reverts to Class G and is controlled.d. It reverts to Class E and is an uncontrolled airfield.
A

d. It reverts to Class E and is an uncontrolled airfield.

184
Q
  1. What must occur prior to entering any Class D airspace to conduct a VFR arrival? a. Squawk the appropriate VFR code. b. Establish two-way radio contact. c. Determine the traffic pattern flow.d. Monitor the A TIS.
A

b. Establish two-way radio contact.

185
Q
  1. Two-way radio contact is not required when entering Class ______ airspace described with a shaded magenta line.a. C b. D c. E d. G
A

c. E

186
Q
  1. When should you use self-announce procedures during a VFR arrival to a strange field? a. The tower is closed, operating part time, and there is an FSS. b. The tower is open, radar service is not available, and there is no FSS. c. The tower is closed or operating part time, and there is no FSS.d. If there is no tower, UNICOM, but FSS is available.
A

c. The tower is closed or operating part time, and there is no FSS.

187
Q
  1. The national terminal radar program provides which of the following services? a. Basic, TRSA, Class A, and Class B b. Basic, TRSA, Class B, and Class C c. Mandatory, TRSA, Class A, and Class Bd. Mandatory, TRSA, Class B, and Class C
A

b. Basic, TRSA, Class B, and Class C

188
Q
  1. When approaching an uncontrolled strange field VFR, who has the right of way for landing? a. The aircraft closest to the traffic pattern b. The aircraft with the lower altitude c. The aircraft with the higher altituded. The aircraft established on final approach
A

b. The aircraft with the lower altitude

189
Q
  1. What is the first thing you do after lost comm has been determined and you have checked your equipment?a. Observe the traffic pattern flow. b. Set the transponder to 7600. c. Determine the wind direction. d. Broadcast “in the blind” at appropriate locations in the pattern.
A

b. Set the transponder to 7600.

190
Q
  1. What are the USAF in-flight VFR required cloud clearances and visibility below 10,000 feet? (B/1/1)
A

3 SM500 feet below 1000 feet above 2000 feet horizontal

191
Q
  1. What are the USN in-flight VFR required cloud clearances and visibilities below 10,000 feet? (B/1/2)
A

a. 500 feet below b. 1000 feet above c. 2000 feet horizontal d. 3 SM controlled e. 1 SM uncontrolled

192
Q
  1. 8500 feet MSL is a correct VFR cruising altitude when heading _____. (B/1/3)
A

180-359° magnetic above 3000 feet AGL, but below 18,000 feet MSL.

193
Q
  1. How do you maintain orientation and position awareness while DR navigating? (B/2/1)
A

Use “clock to chart to ground”

194
Q
  1. One method of estimating distance uses angles of ______, ______, and ______ below the level horizon. (B/2/2)
A

30° 45° 60°

195
Q
  1. When operating a T-6A in airport Class D airspace, enter the traffic pattern at an altitude of at least ________ above the airport elevation, unless otherwise required by applicable directives. (B/4/1)
A

1500 feet AGL

196
Q
  1. What type of separation is provided by Terminal Radar Service Area (TRSA)? (B/4/2)
A

Separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft within the boundaries of the TRSA.

197
Q
  1. What information should you provide when contacting Approach Control on a VFR arrival at a strange field? (B/4/3)
A

a. Callsign b. Position c. Altitude d. Destination or intentions

198
Q
  1. How do you enter the traffic pattern at a strange field? (B/4/4)
A

You enter through the initial, straight-in, or downwind.

199
Q
  1. Generally, what type of glideslope indicator would you expect to find at an Air Force base? (B/4/5)
A

Expect to find a PAPI glideslope indicator

200
Q
  1. What type of visual glideslope indicator would you expect to see at a Navy base? (B/4/6)
A

Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System (OLS). You are on glidepath when the ball is in the center between the green datum lights.

201
Q
  1. What are the primary communication methods at an uncontrolled airfield? (B/4/7)
A

Contact FSS on CTAF; self-announced on CTAF if no tower or FSS available; use UNICOM.

202
Q
  1. At uncontrolled airfields, initiate radio contact by 10 miles and provide what information? (B/4/8)
A

a. Callsign b. Altitude c. Aircraft type (optional) d. Location from field e. Intentions f. Request airport advisory

203
Q
  1. How do you determine a destination is suitable?
A

The field must meet command requirements: Runway length, NAVAIDs available, compatible instrument approach. At civilian fields, services contracted at government rate, security requirements.

204
Q
  1. What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for VFR flight below 10,00 feet MSL in controlled airspace?
A

Cloud clearance: 500 feet below, 1000 feet above, 2000 feet horizontal, visibility 3 statute miles.

205
Q
  1. What are the cloud clearance and visibility requirements for VFR flight above 10,000 feet MSL?
A

Cloud clearance: 1000 feet below, 1000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontal, visibility 5 statute miles.

206
Q
  1. What is your VFR cruising altitude heading west above 3000 feet AGL but below 18,000 MSL?
A

Even thousand plus 500 feet

207
Q
  1. What is the basic procedure for dead reckoning navigation?
A

The basic procedure is clock, to chart, to ground.

208
Q
  1. What are the VFR arrival communication methods at an uncontrolled airfield?
A

Contact FSS on CTAF, self-announcement on CTAF if no tower or FSS available, use UNICOM.

209
Q
  1. You are on final at Corpus, the OLS (ball) is below the green datum lights. Are you on glidepath?
A

No. You are below glidepath. You are on glidepath when the ball is between the green datum lights.

210
Q
  1. What are the basic lost procedures?
A

Confess, Climb, Conserve, Communicate, and Comply

211
Q
  1. When employing lost procedures, how do you conserve fuel?
A

Conserve fuel by flying maximum endurance AOA.

212
Q
  1. When would you execute lost procedures?
A

Execute this procedure when your position is unknown, NAVAIDs are inoperable or unreliable

213
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best definition of a strange field? (B/1/1) a. Any civilian airfield b. Any airfield other than your home field c. Any military airfield other than your home fieldd. Any airfield out of your home state
A

b. Any airfield other than your home field

214
Q
  1. Who is responsible for making sure all postflight inspections are complete when at a strange field? (B/1/2)a. Maintenance personnel b. Ground control c. Postflight inspections are not required when at a strange field d. Pilot-in-command
A

d. Pilot-in-command

215
Q
  1. Engine oil should be checked within ______ minutes of shutdown. (B/1/3)a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 45
A

c. 30

216
Q
  1. A strange field preflight inspection should be completed ______. (B/2/1) a. between each flight b. after the last flight of the day c. prior to the first flight of the dayd. upon arrival at each strange field
A

c. prior to the first flight of the day

217
Q
  1. The fuel filter bypass indicator is located in the ______. (B/2/2) a. front cockpit b. single point refuel bay c. fuel sump assemblyd. hydraulic access panel
A

b. single point refuel bay

218
Q
  1. After pulling the hydraulic manual pressure relief handle you observe a fluid level indication of FULL AD. You should ______. (B/2/3)a. notify maintenance b. add hydraulic fluid c. consider the system properly serviced d. consider the system over serviced
A

c. consider the system properly serviced

219
Q
  1. A fuel sample test tool can be found ______. (B/2/4)a. in the fuel panel b. in the baggage compartment c. secured in the wheel well d. at any hardware store
A

b. in the baggage compartment

220
Q
  1. Zero Fuel Weight (ZFW) of the aircraft includes the weight of the crew and baggage. (B/3/1) a. Trueb. False
A

a. True

221
Q
  1. The nude weights of a student and instructor are 175 lbs and 210 lbs respectively. If they are equipped with summer gear, what is the total crew weight of this flight? (B/3/2)a. 193 lbs b. 385 lbs c. 386 lbs d. 421 lbs
A

d. 421 lbs

222
Q
  1. After being serviced at a strange field, you discover that your aircraft has been refueled with JP-8 by over-the-wing gravity refueling. What fuel moment would you use to compute aircraft CG? (B/3/3)a. 1100 b. 1200 c. 1867 d. 2036
A

d. 2036

223
Q
  1. If you need assistance taxiing at a strange field, you could use any of the following, EXCEPT ______.a. a follow-me truck b. progressive taxi instructions c. airfield diagrams in your approach plates d. another aircraft
A

d. another aircraft

224
Q
  1. A full postflight inspection should be completed after ______ when at a strange field. a. the first flight of the day b. each flight c. the last flight of the day d. the second flight of the day
A

c. the last flight of the day

225
Q
  1. When refueling the T-6A, make sure ______ is contained in the fuel or added to it. a. a high octane additive b. an engine cleaner c. an oil additived. an icing inhibitor
A

d. an icing inhibitor

226
Q
  1. What should you do if you find a maintenance discrepancy while at a strange field? a. Try to fix it yourself. b. Find a mechanic at the airfield who can fix the problem. c. Return the aircraft to home field.d. Call your home field SOF or FDO/ODO for guidance.
A

d. Call your home field SOF or FDO/ODO for guidance.

227
Q
  1. Who is responsible to make sure your flight plan is closed properly? a. Towerb. FSS c. ATC d. Pilot-in-command
A

d. Pilot-in-command

228
Q
  1. What is the phone number for FSS? a. 1-800-WX-BRIEF b. 1-800-FSS-WXBR c. 1-800-WX-12345d. 1-800-FSS-1234
A

a. 1-800-WX-BRIEF

229
Q
  1. At a military airfield you will file your flight plan through ______, and at a civilian airfield you will file your flight plan through ______.a. FSS; base ops b. ground control; clearance delivery c. ATC; FSS d. base ops; FSS
A

d. base ops; FSS

230
Q
  1. During the preflight inspection, if the hydraulic reservoir fluid level indicator shows in the green area labeled ______ or ______, the system is fully serviced.a. FULL AC; FULL AD b. FILL AC; FILL AD c. LOW; FULL d. EMPTY; FULL
A

a. FULL AC; FULL AD

231
Q
  1. While performing the preflight inspection you should drain a sample of fuel from each ______. a. wing tankb. fuel sump c. collector tank d. fuel filter
A

b. fuel sump

232
Q
  1. When departing from a civilian field on an IFR flight plan, why should you call FSS after takeoff? a. To get a weather brief b. To clear your flight plan c. To pass along your departure timed. To close your last flight plan
A

c. To pass along your departure time

233
Q
  1. Where do you find the aircraft’s Basic Empty Weight (BEW) for CG computations? a. In the aircraft flight manual b. In the T-6A pocket checklist c. At the squadron operations desk or as locally designatedd. In the in-flight guide
A

c. At the squadron operations desk or as locally designated

234
Q
  1. Which of the following is the best method to manage aircraft weight in order to keep the aircraft center of gravity within limits?a. Reduce fuel and/or baggage weight b. Increase fuel and/or baggage weight c. Increase baggage weight and place the heavier pilot in the rear seat d. Reduce fuel weight and increase baggage weight
A

a. Reduce fuel and/or baggage weight

235
Q
  1. After arriving at a strange airfield, what type of assistance can you request to help facilitate your taxito parking? (B/1/1)
A

You can request either progressive taxi or a follow-me truck from ground control.

236
Q
  1. If your flight is not the last flight of the day, how would you perform the postflight inspection? (B/1/2)
A

Complete those items that are applicable to between flights such as servicing the oil and refueling.

237
Q
  1. During postflight inspection, what procedure should you follow to check the oil level? (B/1/3)
A

Check oil level within 30 minutes of shutdown. If oil level is at or below ADD, service oil level to MAX HOT.

238
Q
  1. What should you do if you find a maintenance discrepancy during a postflight inspection? (B/1/4)
A

Contact your home field. The SOF or FDO/ODO will provide you with direction.

239
Q
  1. When arriving at a strange civilian airfield, how should you close your flight plan? (B/1/5)
A

Contact the FSS via radio or telephone (1-800-WX BRIEF). The contact information is found on your chart, A/FD, or in the IFR Supplement.

240
Q
  1. If you are unable to receive a military weather briefing, where can you still get a weather forecast? (B/2/1)
A

You can call 1-800-WX-BRIEF

241
Q
  1. Typically, where will your file your flight plan at military and civilian airfields? (B/2/2)
A

a. Military: Base Operations b. Civilian: FSS

242
Q
  1. How many fuel sumps must be drained during a strange field preflight? (B/2/3)
A

There are five sumps to drain and check for possible contaminants.

243
Q
  1. What is the purpose of pulling the manual pressure relief handle during preflight inspection? (B/2/4)
A

It relieves pressure on the system so you can get an accurate reading of the hydraulic fluid level.

244
Q
  1. After taking off, how is your flight plan activated? (B/2/5)
A

At military airfields, the tower will activate your flight plan. At civilian airfields, you must contact FSS as soon as able after takeoff to advise them you are airborne.

245
Q
  1. What weight configurations may result in center of gravity problems in the T-6A? (B/3/1)
A

-Use of over the wing gravity refueling -Baggage in the baggage compartment -Heavy pilot in rear seat in conjunction with either of the above

246
Q
  1. A comprehensive listing of common FLIP, FAA and ICAO terms and explanations can be found in FLIP ______. (C/1/1)
A

GP

247
Q
  1. To find information on a restricted area located in the US, you need to look in FLIP ______. (C/1/2)
A

AP/1A

248
Q
  1. Where can you obtain FAA Class “D” NOTAMs for a particular airfield? (C/1/3)
A

From any FSS or the DoD primary or alternate NOTAMs web pages

249
Q
  1. What is the recommended technique for determining the proper IFR filing altitude? (C/1/4)
A

a. The 10% method. Use 10% of the direct distance to your destination to approximate your enroute altitude in thousands of feet.b. 150 miles x .10 = 15 or 15,000 feet

250
Q
  1. When filing an IFR flight plan, when is an alternate airfield required? (C/1/5)
A

USAF:a. Forecast weather conditions (ceiling < 2000 feet, visibility < 3 SM)b. Destination lowest compatible published instrument procedure WX minima e 1500 feet or 3 SM)c. If radar is required to fly the approach d. When approaches are based on unmonitored NAVAID e. When destination airfield lacks weather reporting capability USN: a. Forecast weather conditions (ceiling < 3000 feet, visibility < 3 SM)

251
Q
  1. When completing the flight log and computing climb fuel, what should you do if the departure field elevation is 5000 feet MSL or less? (C/1/6)
A

Base your calculations on sea level because the impact will be negligible.

252
Q
  1. Generally, to calculate fuel remaining for the T-6A, you will use ______ for beginning fuel on board when completing the flight log. (C/1/7)
A

1100 pounds

253
Q
  1. What is the initial entry made in the ROUTE OF FLIGHT section of the DD175 Military Flight Plan? (C/1/8)
A

Either the standard departure procedure (DP) or the first planned NAVAID or fix used to enter the enroute structure (VOR, VOR/DME fix, GPS waypoint, named intersection).

254
Q
  1. What is the significance of the flag symbol with a R in it? (C/2/1)
A

It identifies the Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA). It is common in mountainous terrain along with the Minimum Crossing Altitude (MCA).

255
Q
  1. What three procedures for changing your flight plan are listed in the IFR Supplement? (C/2/2)
A

-Change of route or destination -Change from VFR to IFR only -Change of ETA by more than 30 minutes

256
Q
  1. Once you determine you are experiencing lost communications, how do you select the proper altitude to continue your flight? (C/2/3)
A

Use the AME technique, flying the highest of:A – assigned altitude M – minimum altitude for IFR (MEA) E – expected altitude

257
Q
  1. Which in-flight publication contains the turbulence reporting tables that would be used when giving a PIREP? (C/2/4)
A

The Flight Information Handbook

258
Q
  1. When planning a VFR mission, how will you decide which type of chart to use? (D/1/1)
A

As a general rule, the greater the altitude, speed and distance of a flight, the smaller the scale of the chart you will want to use. (Remember – large area, small scale; small area, large scale).

259
Q
  1. Navigational charts are oriented to ______ north and south, while aircraft navigation systems are oriented to ______ north and south. (D/1/2)
A

true; magnetic

260
Q
  1. How do you determine the proper hemispheric altitudes for a VFR flight above 3000 feet AGL? (D/1/3)
A

a. Heading 000 – 179: Odd thousands plus 500 feet b. Heading 180 – 359: Even thousands plus 500 feet

261
Q
  1. As a general rule of thumb, select checkpoints no closer than ______ minutes apart and no further than ______ minutes apart when planning a VFR mission. (D/1/4)
A

525

262
Q
  1. In planning a Route Abort Altitude, what do you do after determining the obstacle altitude? (D/1/5)
A

Round up to the next 100 feet and add 1000 feet (2000 feet in mountainous terrain) to your obstacle altitude.

263
Q
  1. You must notify FSS if your estimated arrival time changes by more than ______ minutes. (D/2/1)
A

Thirty. Use the report format in the inside back cover of the IFR or VFR Supplements.

264
Q
  1. Flying a specific heading at a specific airspeed for a specified time to arrive at your destination is referred to as ______. (D/2/2)
A

Dead reckoning (DR)

265
Q
  1. To correct your planned ETA along the route, how is the proportional method used? (D/2/3)
A

For every second you are off of your planned ETA, change your airspeed by one knot and hold this airspeed for the number of minutes equal to your groundspeed in miles per minute.

266
Q
  1. When should you implement lost procedures? (D/3/1)
A

Whenever you are not able to determine your position

267
Q
  1. If lost, when using the 5 Cs, how will you conserve fuel? (D/3/2)
A

Fly at max endurance airspeed which is 8.8 units AOA

268
Q
  1. If you are under IFR, and elect to conduct the remainder of your arrival under VFR, what must you do? (D/4/1)
A

-You must cancel IFR and be outside Class A airspace (less than 18,000 MSL)-You must change to an appropriate frequency and set the VFR code in the transponder (and comply with VFR altitude procedures)-Expect to lose radar services

269
Q
  1. What happens to Class D airspace when the tower closes? (D/4/2)
A

It reverts to class E airspace.

270
Q
  1. If you are entering a strange field under VFR with lost communications, what radio calls, if any, should you make? (D/4/3)
A

Make all radio calls as if you have a working radio. You might have a transmit-only capability. Watch the tower for light signals.

271
Q
  1. What is an uncontrolled airfield? (D/4/4)
A

Any airfield without an operating tower

272
Q
  1. When arriving at an uncontrolled airfield, you communicate your intentions with the FSS through CTAF, and by self-announcement on the CTAF (usually 123.0). What is the third means to announce your arrival at an uncontrolled airfield? (D/4/5)
A

UNICOM (if available)

273
Q
  1. When planning for an IFR mission, and selecting your route and destination, what four factors should you consider when receiving your weather briefing?
A

Winds, turbulence, icing, and thunderstorms. You would also consider origin, destination and alternate weather conditions and forecasts.

274
Q
  1. What are your options if your intended destination lacks a published instrument procedure?
A

a. You can file IFR to a point enroute that is VMC and proceed VFR to the destinationb. File to another field served by a suitable published instrument procedure. Fly that procedure until reaching VMC then proceed to your destination.

275
Q
  1. What three criteria must you meet in order to operate under IFR in any controlled airspace?
A

-File a flight plan -Receive appropriate clearance -Have operable communication, navigation, and identification equipment

276
Q
  1. When are position reports required?
A

When flying under IFR and not in radar contact, position reports are required when reaching a compulsory reporting point. Position reports may also be requested at any time by ATC.

277
Q
  1. You are flying in instrument conditions and lose communications. When would you plan to commence an approach?
A

At your EFC or ETA

278
Q
  1. The rules and specifications for completing the Route of Flight Section on military, ICAO and civilian flight plans can be found in ______.
A

GP

279
Q
  1. What level of METRO services requires the weather observer to refer you to another service facility if you need an up-to-the-minute forecast?
A

Limited Services METRO. Full Service METROs have a forecaster.

280
Q
  1. You are operating VFR at 1800 feet AGL in uncontrolled airspace. What is the daytime visibility requirement?
A

a. USAF: 3 statute miles b. USN: 1 statute mile

281
Q
  1. When planning a VFR mission, what types of airspace should you try to avoid?
A

a. Restricted areas b. Warning areas c. Prohibited areas d. MOAse. Victor airways f. Military training routes g. Class B, C and D airspace

282
Q
  1. Appropriate cruising altitudes for IFR or VFR flights can be found in the ______ legend(s).
A

High and low altitude enroute chart

283
Q
  1. On the VFR flight plan, how does the route of flight section differ from an IFR flight plan?
A

For VFR flights, the section simply states a general course you plan to follow. For IFR, it represents a specific route of flight.

284
Q
  1. You are flying at 3.5 NM per minute, and are 20 seconds early to a checkpoint. Using the proportional technique, how would you correct this situation?
A

Decrease your planned airspeed by 20 knots for 3.5 minutes

285
Q
  1. With respect to lost communications, what does the acronym AVE F stand for?
A

This lists the route you would fly in order of preference.A – assigned route V – vectored roue E – expected route F – filed route

286
Q
  1. What is the advantage of climbing to a higher altitude during lost procedures?
A

When done safely in VMC conditions, it can increase radio reception, increase visibility, and increase fuel efficiency

287
Q
  1. What is the purpose of the TRSA?
A

An optional service, it provides separation between all participating VFR aircraft and all IFR aircraft within the specific confines of the TRSA

288
Q
  1. What can you do if the calculated CG is out of limits on the Weight and CG Diagram?
A

Manage weight-Limit fuel weight to 1100 -Reduce baggage weight -Rearrange crew configuration – heavier pilot in front seat

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