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EMB550 Praetor 600 > EMB500 praetor 600 - manually entered > Flashcards

EMB500 praetor 600 - manually entered Flashcards

1
Q

What is the length, width and height of the aircraft?

A

20,74, 21,5, 6,41 [m]

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2
Q

What is the minimum runway width required?

A

56ft/17,07m

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3
Q

How should the cockpit seats be adjusted?

A

vertically, then forward/aft using spheres

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4
Q

Is the internal stowage compartment pressurized?

A

Yes

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5
Q

Where is the internal stowage compartment accessed?

A

Through lavatory

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6
Q

What is the normal configuration for the cockpit?

A

Dark and quiet

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7
Q

What does an illuminated white striped bar on a button mean?

A

Abnormal possition

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8
Q

How many identical Display Units (DUs) are there?

A

4

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9
Q

List the three different types of windows that can be displayed on the DUs:

A

PFD, EICAS, MFW

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10
Q

What are the three pilot selectable format window sizes for the MFWs?

A

1/4, 1/3 and full window

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11
Q

Which Display Unit(s )DU will be available in the event of an electrical emergency?

A

CTR DU

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12
Q

Where is the emergency door located?

A

Lavatory, over the right wing.

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13
Q

What is the limitation for the pocket doors?

A

Open and lock for taxi, TO and landing

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14
Q

What is the limitation for the pilot’s foldable table?

A

Stowed for taxi, TO and landing

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15
Q

List the 5 doors that are depicted on the STATUS synoptic page:

A

Main door, cargo compartment, electronic bay, emergency, fueling

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16
Q

List at least 5 emergency equipment items on- board the aircraft:

A

Flashlight, axe, life vest, life raft, PBE, ELT, smoke goggles, portable fire extinguishers, crew and passengers oxygen masks, first aid kit

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17
Q

What does a continuously flashing red
LED light in the ELT cockpit control panel indicate?

A

ELT is active

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18
Q

What lights are included in the courtesy lights?

A

Entrance dome light and lights on each step of stairs

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19
Q

How can the courtesy lights be turned on?

A

By pressing switch near main door

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20
Q

Once the main door switch is pressed, how long will the courtesy lights remain illuminated?

A

5min

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21
Q

What bus are the courtesy lights powered by?

A

HOT BUS

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22
Q

Which light is used as a visual indication of en- gine operation?

A

BCN

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23
Q

What part of the aircraft does the wing inspection light illuminate?

A

Leading edge of the left wing

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24
Q

How are the cargo compartment lights turned on and for how long?

A

Manually by the switch by the cargo door - for 5min

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25
Q

Which cockpit light is available during an electrical emergency condition?

A

Dome light - powered by EMERGENCY BUS 2 if required

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26
Q

What are the emergency lights powered by?

A

Two exclusive Ni-Cad batteries

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27
Q

When will the emergency lights automatically turn on with the EMER LT knob in the ARMED position?

A

If main DC buses lose power or if the plane is subjected to an impact.

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28
Q

How are the emergency lights controlled?

A

By the pilot through the EMER LT knob

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29
Q

How is the FDR recording accomplished?

A

Automaticaly from engine start to stop(powered by Emergency Bus 1). Last 25h

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30
Q

Does the CVR record both written communication exchanged via datalink and cockpit audio communication?

A

Yes

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31
Q

How are CVR operations accomplished?

A

Automaticaly from power up to 10min after engines shutdown(Emergency bus 2). 120min

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32
Q

How much water is each potable water system capable of carrying?

A

15l each

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33
Q

How are the potable water tanks filled?

A

Manually with a funnel through panel in each cabinet

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34
Q

What temperature of water is recommended to fill the galley and lavatory potable water tanks?

A

Max 35*C

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35
Q

How can the potable water system be drained?

A

By pressing WATER DRAIN button

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36
Q

How long can the potable water tanks take to drain if the tanks are full of water?

A

10min

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37
Q

At what waste tank capacity does the Cabin Management System indicate the necessity of servicing?

A

85%

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38
Q

When servicing the waste system, how long should rinse water be supplied through the servicing cart to clean the waste tank?

A

3min

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39
Q

When should the waste and potable water system be drained to avoid damages to their components caused by water freezing?

A

During operation in cold weather below 0*C

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40
Q

What buttons will illuminate red when a warning CAS message appears in the EICAS window?

A

WARN

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41
Q

What buttons will illuminate amber when a caution CAS message appears in the EICAS window?

A

CAUT

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42
Q

How is it indicated on the EICAS that there is a checklist to complete with an associated CAS message?

A

Box with indication will be displayed next to CAS

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43
Q

What symbol is displayed to indicate that an EICAS checklist has been completed?

A

Check mark

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44
Q

List the four EICAS priority levels:

A

WARNING - red
CAUTION - amber
ADVISORY - cyan
STATUS - white

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45
Q

How should all warning and caution CAS messages be acknowledged by the pilots?

A

By pressing WARN or CAUT button

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46
Q

Can CAS messages be cancelled so long as the activation condition still exists?

A

No

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47
Q

Can a warning or caution CAS message be acknowledged without being in view?

A

No

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48
Q

Give the standard definition for OFF that is used for all systems:

A

System available but turned off

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49
Q

Give the standard definition for FAIL that is used for all systems:

A

System unavailable - total loss of funcionality

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50
Q

Give the standard definition for FAULT that is used for all systems:

A

System available but performance degraded or partial functionality loss

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51
Q

What is an EICAS message that generates more than one CAS message called?

A

„golden CAS messages”

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52
Q

How is a “golden” CAS message indicated?

A

chevron „ > ”

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53
Q

Are some CAS messages inhibited on takeoff or approach and landing to prevent them from becoming a nuisance?

A

Yes

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54
Q

Where are time-critical warnings annunciated?

A

At PFD1 and PFD2 with specific associated voice

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55
Q

Which button allows the aural alerts on the respective side to be inhibited?

A

AURAL MUTE button

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56
Q

What voice message is generated when the airplane configuration is suitable for takeoff after the TO CONFIG button is pressed?

A

TAKEOFF OK

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57
Q

List the items that will activate the takeoff aural warning whenever the airplane is on the ground and thrust is applied:

A

Flaps, spoilers, parking brakes, trim

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58
Q

Will a terrain overlay pop up on the HSI whenever a TAWS alert becomes active?

A

Yes

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59
Q

Will a traffic overlay pop up on the HSI whenever a TCAS TA or RA becomes active?

A

Yes

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60
Q

How long can the In-Flight Entertainment (IFE) take to be fully operational after its power up?

A

15min

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61
Q

When TCAS is sues an RA, what kind of an indication will the pilot have indicating a “fly to” zone?

A

Green box

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62
Q

What type of an electrical system is the airplane equipped with?

A

28V DC Electrical Power Generation Distribution System

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63
Q

If both generators are available, do they operate in a split bus mode or parallel mode?

A

Split bus mode

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64
Q

What does the white AVAIL light indicate?

A

That plane can be powered by GPU

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65
Q

Which light will illuminate when the GPU button is pushed in and providing power to the airplane?

A

IN USE - green

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66
Q

If the APU is started while the airplane is being powered by the GPU, which one will be the source of electrical power for the airplane?

A

APU

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67
Q

What color does the battery voltage indication show if the battery is discharging?

A

Amber

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68
Q

What will the indication be on the electrical synoptic page if the GPU is connected but is not providing power to the airplane?

A

White GPU status

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69
Q

Will the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) be continuously displayed on the electrical synoptic page? If not, when will it be displayed?

A

No. Only when running

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70
Q

How can a pilot manually command the RAT to deploy?

A

Pulling the handle RH side of cockpit

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71
Q

What are the main engine generators and the APU generators rated at?

A

28V DC, 600A max continuous output

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72
Q

What is the minimum GPU voltage required to start charging the batteries?

A

To start 28V but it will charge as long
a voltage is above 27V DC

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73
Q

What buses is the APU capable of supplying power to on the ground if the APU is the only source of electrical power?

A

On the ground to all, including SHED BUSES

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74
Q

What buses are the APU capable of supplying power to in flight?

A

All except SHED BUSES

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75
Q

What buses does the RAT generator power?

A

EMER BUS1, EMER BUS2, EMER BUS3

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76
Q

When will the RAT automatically deploy?

A

During electrical emergency

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77
Q

In flight, when will an electrical emergency occur?

A

When two main and APU generator are unavailable

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78
Q

How many main batteries are there?

A

Two

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79
Q

What is the rating of the main batteries?

A

24V, 40Ah Nicad

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80
Q

If the batteries are the only source of electrical power in flight, what buses will be powered and what CAS message will be displayed?

A

The EMER buses. BATT DISCHARGING warning CAS message

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81
Q

In an electrical emergency, what buses are powered/isolated from the aircraft electrical system?

A

EMER BUS 1,2,3

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82
Q

In an electrical emergency, what sources of power can provide electrical power to EMER BUS 1, EMER BUS 2 and EMER BUS 3?

A

BATT 1, 2 or RAT

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83
Q

What buses will be energized when the airplane is de-energized and there is no electrical power source available?

A

HOT BATT BUS 1 and 2

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84
Q

For ground servicing, when a GPU is connected and providing power to the airplane, with the GPU button pushed out and the BATT 1 and BATT 2 switches in the OFF position, which bus is energized by the GPU?

A

SHED BUS 1

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85
Q

Which battery is connected to the APU START BUS to assist with an APU start?

A

BATT 2

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86
Q

How many generators need to be operating in order for the SHED BUSES to be energized in flight?

A

2

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87
Q

When must the FUEL XFEED knob be set to OFF?

A

TO, GA and LAND

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88
Q

Which MFW page provides a visual representation of the fuel system operation and parameters?

A

FUEL synoptic page

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89
Q

What color does the total and individual tank quantities and fuel temperature indications indicate when in the normal operating range?

A

Green

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90
Q

When the total fuel quantity is displayed in red, which aural warning is played twice?

A

“FUEL”

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91
Q

Can fuel be transferred from one wing to another?

A

No

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92
Q

How does the crossfeed valve allow corrections in the event of a fuel load imbalance?

A

Allows both engines and/or APU to be fed by one tank

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93
Q

Which CAS message is displayed on the EICAS when the difference between the current and expected fuel quantities is higher than 880 lb (400 kg) for 5 minutes?

A

FUEL LEAK SUSPECTED

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94
Q

How many fuel pumps does each fuel tank have?

A

2

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95
Q

What controls the main (A) pump when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position?

A

Fadec

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96
Q

What controls the backup (B) pump when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position?

A

FCU

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97
Q

List the four times when the backup (B) pump will be automatically commanded on when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position:

A

Engine start,
APU start or run,
fuel low pressure
detection main pump (A) fails

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98
Q

When will the amber FUEL WING IMBALANCE CAS message be displayed
on the EICAS?

A

510lbs (231kg)

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99
Q

Where is the pressure refueling point and REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel located at?

A

RH wing near leading edge on the fuselage

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100
Q

How long does the system pre-check on the REFUELING/DEFUELING panel take to verify fuel system operation?

A

10 sec

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101
Q

Which switch located on the REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel enables pressurized refueling to be performed with the airplane energized by either the APU/GPU or batteries power?

A

POWER SELECTION switch

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102
Q

What should happen if the STOP REFUEL is displayed on the REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel during the refueling process?

A

Refueling should be halted manually by the operator
by moving REFUELING switch to OFF

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103
Q

May the tanks be refueled using the gravity refuel port on the top of each wing?

A

Yes

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104
Q

What are the two different methods that the airplane can be defueled?

A

Suction and/or pressure

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105
Q

What is the total fuel capacity?

A

7376kg / 9184l

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106
Q

What is the total usable fuel capacity?

A

7320kg / 9116l

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107
Q

What is the maximum fuel tank temperature for takeoff?

A

52*C

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108
Q

What does the TEST button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel test?

A

Smoke detection system and it checks cockpit and aural indications

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109
Q

If the APU is running, two consecutive fire TESTS within what time period may cause the APU to shut down?

A

15 sec

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110
Q

Is the engine fire detection system continuously monitored?

A

Yes

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111
Q

How many fire bottles does the engine fire extinguishing system have?

A

Two

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112
Q

Which systems are Bottle A and Bottle B used for?

A

A for engines B for engines and APU

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113
Q

List the 4 things that happen when the SHUTOFF 1 (2) button is pushed on the ENGINE FIRE panel:

A

Closes associated fuel,
hydraulic and bleed shutoff,
BOTTLE A and B illuminate that they are armed

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114
Q

Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire or overheat condition is detected on the ground?

A

Yes

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114
Q

What happens when the APU SHUTOFF button is pushed in?

A

APU fuel and bleed shutoff, bottle B armed

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115
Q

What happens when the CARGO button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel is pressed on the ground?

A

Immediately discharges the high-rate fire extinguisher into cargo compartment

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116
Q

On the ground, how can the low rate (metered) bottle be discharged?

A

By second push of the CARGO button

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117
Q

What happens when the CARGO button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel is pressed in flight?

A

Immediately discharges the high-rate fire extinguisher into cargo compartment,
after two minutes discharge the meter bottle

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118
Q

What are the two different sizes for the low rate (metered) extinguisher bottle?

A

78min and 110 min

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119
Q

How can a pilot identify which size of a low rate (metered) extinguisher bottle is on their aircraft?

A

By a placard in the cargo compartment

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120
Q

Does the internal stowage compartment have any fire detection/protection? If so, what?

A

Yes, smoke detector

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121
Q

What services does the APU provide and what are they used for?

A

Electrical generator supplies 28V DC to electrical system.Pneumatic power is used for
engine starting and to supply
bleed air to the air conditioning pack of ECS

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122
Q

How is the APU controlled and monitored?

A

Trough dedicated FADEC

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123
Q

What does pressing the APU ON/OFF button do?

A

It starts ECU power up sequence and initiates APU Built-in test

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124
Q

When does the START button on the APU CONTROL panel flash green?

A

During APU BIT

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125
Q

What does the START button on the APU control panel illuminating steady green indicate?

A

APU ready to start

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126
Q

If the START button on the APU control panel illuminates amber, what does that indicate?

A

Inhibited APU start

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127
Q

What are the APU starter limitations?

A

3 times, 30sec between attempts

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128
Q

What MFW page can APU information be seen on?

A

STATUS synoptic page

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129
Q

Which tank normally supplies fuel to the APU?

A

Right

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130
Q

Is it possible to feed the APU from the left wing tank? If so, how?

A

Yes, via the cross-feed system.

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131
Q

Can the APU supply bleed air on the ground or in flight?

A

Yes

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132
Q

On the ground, what is the primary source of pneumatic air?

A

APU

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133
Q

If the APU is the only source of electrical power on the ground, what buses can the APU power?

A

All and charges batteries

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134
Q

If the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight, what buses can the APU power?

A

All except SHED BUSES, but it also charging batteries

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135
Q

What is the APU operating envelope for starting, operation and to supply electrical power?

A

Up to 31000ft

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136
Q

Up to what altitude is the APU able to supply bleed air for engine starting?

A

Up to 23000ft

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137
Q

Where does the APU get it’s power for starting?

A

Battery 2

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138
Q

Up to what altitude is the APU able to supply bleed air for ECS?

A

Up to 20000ft

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139
Q

What should be displayed on the STATUS synoptic page if the APU oil quantity is sufficient?

A

Green „OK”

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140
Q

List the 4 conditions that will cause the APU to automatically shut down either in flight or on the ground:

A

Overspeed, Underspeed,
ECU Internal failure, APU Bleed leak

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141
Q

List the conditions that will cause the APU to automatically shut down on the ground only:

A

APU Fire, APU fuel SOV failure APU EGT over temperature, APU high oil pressure,
APU low oil pressure,
APU starter not disengaged

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142
Q

How many Full Authority Digital Electronic Controls (FADEC) does each engine have?

A

Two single channel FADECs

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143
Q

Where are the engine indications and alerts displayed?

A

On EICAS

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144
Q

Which position of the ignition selector knob allows the FADEC to control the ignition system depending on engine requirements?

A

AUTO

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145
Q

Which thrust lever position provides the maximum thrust rating available for dual or single engine operation?

A

MAX

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145
Q

Which thrust lever position selects the takeoff and go-around thrust and mode settings?

A

TO/GA

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146
Q

What does pressing the EVENT MARKER button cause the ECU (FADEC) to do?

A

Records 2min before and 1 min after pressing the button

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147
Q

When is the OAT on the EICAS indication dis- played?

A

Up until the takeoff run

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148
Q

What are the thrust reversers used for and during what phase of flight?

A

Braking at landing and RTO only.

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149
Q

Is backing up the airplane with reverse thrust allowed?

A

No

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150
Q

Upon landing, when should the thrust reversers be stowed?

A

At 40kts

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151
Q

When are the thrust reversers available?

A

With WOW signal indicating that the plane is on ground and a wheel speed.

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152
Q

What icon on the EICAS indicates the current status of the thrust reverser?

A

REV icon

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153
Q

What color icon indicates that the thrust reversers are commanded and deployed?

A

Green REV

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154
Q

What color icon indicates that the thrust reversers are commanded and in transition?

A

Amber REV

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155
Q

Where is the IGNITION status displayed?

A

On EICAS

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156
Q

What does a green IGN indicate?

A

Igniters are commanded on

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157
Q

What icon on the EICAS indicates that the igniters are commanded to OFF?

A

IGN OFF- cyan

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158
Q

Where can the oil level be accurately read?

A

In the sight glass or Remote Oil Level Sensor

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159
Q

When can the oil level be accurately read?

A

5 to 30min after shutdown

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160
Q

Is the engine oil quantity indication visible with an engine running or in flight?

A

No

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161
Q

What is the maximum oil consumption rate of the
engine per hour?

A

0,04 quarts - 1 per 25h

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162
Q

List the three sources of air pressure that the Air Turbine Starter can use for an engine start.

A

APU, opposite engine or a ground air supply

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163
Q

What is the purpose of the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS)?

A

To provide automatic thrust increase if ATTCS is armed and any of the following is true on takeoff or GA
-OEI detected (N2 difference greater than 15%)
Loss of engine cross-communication,
Windshear is detected,
Thrust lever is moved to MAX

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164
Q

When is the ATTCS function available?

A

When WAI is ON „ICE PROT mode knob in ALL”

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165
Q

Which takeoff ratings may be selected by the flight crew prior to takeoff?

A

Full rated mode (TO-1), one de-rated mode (TO-2)

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166
Q

List the engine power settings that may be selected by the flight crew.

A

MAX, TO/GA, CON, CLB, CRZ, Maximum reverse IDLE? MIN REV?

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167
Q

What are the starting and motoring limits?

A

5min or 3cycle - whichever occurs first. Later 15min of cool down prior next start or motoring

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168
Q

What are the starting duty cycle limits?

A

max 80 sec

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169
Q

How many consecutive starts are allowed before a cooling time of 15 minutes is required prior to additional starts or motoring?

A

3

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170
Q

Can the engine be started with an ITT above 450°C? If so, what must be accomplished prior to start?

A

Yes, dry motor for 30sec prior to start

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171
Q

When can HP thermal bow occur?If an engine restart is desired within that time period, what is the recommended procedure?

A

When eng start is initiated between 15 to 180min after shutdown. Dry motor prior to start for 15sec or until N2 reaches 23% (whichever first) After that procedure a normal start sequence
can be initiated any time after 3 and before 40min have elapsed.

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172
Q

How many hydraulic systems are there?

A

3

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173
Q

What nominal pressure do all three hydraulic systems operate at?

A

3000 PSI

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174
Q

What MFW page provides a visual representation of the hydraulic system operation and parameters?

A

HYDRAULIC synoptic page

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175
Q

What pressure is an amber tick mark placed at on the pressure indication for all three systems on the hydraulic synoptic page?

A

1800PSI

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176
Q

What color is the symbol for shutoff valves that are open, engine driven pumps that
are on and hydraulic flow lines that are pressurized?

A

Green

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177
Q

Will a failure of two hydraulic systems result in a complete loss of flight-critical functions?

A

No

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178
Q

What is hydraulic system 1 compromised of?

A

1 reservoir, 1 engine driven pump EDP1, 1 electrical DC motor pump DCMP1,
1 shutoff valve SOV1,
1 accumulator

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179
Q

When will the DCMP 1 be automatically commanded on with the HYD 1 ELEC PUMP knob in the AUTO position?

A

During TO and LAND phases

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180
Q

What is hydraulic system 2 compromised of?

A

1 reservoir, 1 EDP2,
1 SOV2, 1 accumulator

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181
Q

What is hydraulic system 3 compromised of?

A

1 reservoir, 1 DCMP3, 1 accumulator

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182
Q

Hydraulic system 3 is designed to operate in conjunction with what electrical system(s)?

A

Battery and RAT

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183
Q

What is the only source of hydraulic power for hydraulic system 3?

A

DCMP3

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184
Q

What is the source of electrical power for the electric DCMP3 (hydraulic system 3)?

A

EMER BUS 3

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185
Q

If the airplane loses HYD 1 and HYD 2, will the overheat protection system of HYD 3 still be functional?

A

No

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186
Q

What is the backup for hydraulic systems 1and 2?

A

The PTU

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187
Q

What is the primary function of the PTU?

A

To transfer power from hydraulic system 1 to system 2 or vice versa

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188
Q

When the PTU knob is in the AUTO position, when will the LGHCUs automatically activate the PTU?

A

At engine failure or EDP failure

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189
Q

What type of flight control system does the aircraft have?

A

Functionally distributed FBW

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190
Q

What are the two basic modes of operation for the flight control system?

A

Normal Mode NM and Direct Mode DM

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191
Q

When will the flight control system revert automatically to Direct Mode (DM) operation?

A

When can’t keep NM due to multiple system failures

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192
Q

Is flight under Direct Mode (DM) recommended? Why or why not?

A

No. Some protection functions are only available in NM

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193
Q

What happens when the AP/PTY button is momentarily pressed?

A

AP disengaged

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194
Q

What happens when the AP/PTY button is pressed for more than 1 second?

A

Exclusive control is given to the sidestick while pressed and priority annunciation is activated.

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195
Q

What happens when the AP/PTY button is pressed and held for more than 20 seconds?

A

The respective sidestick will have exclusive control latched

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196
Q

If one sidestick has been latched out, how can exclusive control be removed?

A

By pressing either side’s priority button

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197
Q

What happens if dual sidestick input occurs and
priority has not been requested by either pilot?

A

Tactile warning in both sidesticks is activated and an aural warning and PFD flag are triggered. The sidestick inputs are summed.

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198
Q

Is sidestick controller priority logic available in Direct Mode (DM)?

A

No

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199
Q

With the autopilot engaged, what does pressing the Touch Control Steering (TCS) button do?

A

Allows the pilot to manually control plane with autopilot engaged

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200
Q

During manual flight with flaps 3 or full, landing gear down, and the AP disengaged, what does pressing the Touch Control Steering (TCS) button do?

A

Reset the TCS trim speed bug

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201
Q

How can the multifunction spoilers be deployed for use as speed brakes?

A

By the SPEED BRAKE LEVER

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202
Q

What are the angles of multifunction spoilers that correspond with the speed brake positions?

A

0- STOW TO 30 - FULL

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203
Q

When can the Pitch Trim Switch be manually commanded?

A

Only on the ground or in DM

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204
Q

Which button is used to recover Normal Mode (NM) or to revert to Direct Mode (DM) in the case of a Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior?

A

FLTCTRL NORMAL MODE button

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205
Q

When is a manual reversion to Direct Mode (DM) inhibited?

A

When following protection are engaged:
Low speed protection
AOA limiter
High speed protection

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206
Q

On the FLIGHT CONTROL synoptic page, what color actuator status indicates that the respective flight control surface is in the normal mode and at least one actuator is engaged?

A

Green

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207
Q

On the FLIGHT CONTROL synoptic page, what does a yellow actuator status indicate?

A

DM and at least one actuator is operational

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208
Q

When is the side slip target presented by a blue side slip-skid indicator?

A

During OEI at TO, climb and GA

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209
Q

Where is the Low Speed Awareness (LSA) band located? The Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs)?

A

LSA- Adjacent to the speed tape,
PLIs - on ADI

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210
Q

List the three LSA bands in Normal Mode (NM) and what they indicate:

A

Vss- top of the white tape- low speed protection
Vaoa- top of amber - AOA limiter function avtivation
Vlim- top of red- speed with max allowable AOA airspeed

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211
Q

Do the VSS and VAOA/VLIM indications behave the same in turns and other maneuvers? Why or why not?

A

No. Vss is in term of speed and Vaoa/Vlim are defined by AOA

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212
Q

Do VAOA and VLIM increase with load factor?

A

Yes

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213
Q

Is the AOA limiter function operational in Direct Mode (DM)?

A

No

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214
Q

List the two LSA bands in Direct Mode (DM) and what they represent:

A

Vms - top of amber -minimum speed in stall
Vsa- top of red tape -STALL aural alert is triggered

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215
Q

Are the Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs) displayed in Direct Mode (DM)?

A

No

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216
Q

What color does the Pitch Limit Indicator become if the airspeed drops below VAOA in Normal Mode (NM)? How about VLIM?

A

Amber then red

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217
Q

How many Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are sufficient to provide Normal Mode (NM) functionality?

A

1

218
Q

What is the purpose of the Black Airplane Battery?

A

To withstand operation of min 15minutes in order for crew to recover a proper plane electrical system

219
Q

How long does each PBIT test of the FCS take?

A

Less than 1min

220
Q

If the PBIT conditions are not satisfied, up to how many PBIT operation attempts can the FCS automatically perform?

A

Up to 3

221
Q

During a PBIT operation, which CAS message is displayed?

A

FLTCTRL TEST IN PROG

222
Q

When is the de-rotation control law active?

A

When the plane touches down

223
Q

What does the de-rotation control law provide?

A

Smooths nose down movement by commanding the elevator to pitch nose down 2*/s

224
Q

What does the neutral spiral stability control law provide?

A

Automatically trims the elevator when sidestick is set back to neutral position to maintain flight
level during turn up to 33*

225
Q

If the pilot commands a turn with a bank angle of greater than 33°, what do they need to do in order to maintain level flight in that turn?

A

Maintain the desired sidestick lateral deflection and move the sidestick controller aft

226
Q

List the 4 conditions that will cause the speed brakes to automatically stow:

A

Airspeed below 160KTS
TLA position is greater than 55*
Flap lever set to 3 or FULL
AOA limiter function engaged

227
Q

If the speed brakes are automatically stowed, what indication will the pilots have and how can the speed brakes be reactivated?

A

SPDBRK LEVER DISAG - CAS message and SPEED BRAKE LEVER must be set back to STOW

228
Q

Define a Flight Control Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior:

A

Any airplane behavior that the flight crew realize it is unexpected, not responding or presenting a lack or response

229
Q

How is a manual reversion to Direct Mode (DM) available if the flight crew detects a Flight Control Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior?

A

Pressing the FLTCTRL N-MODE button

230
Q

How is a reversion to Direct Mode (DM) indicated?

A

FLTCTRL N-MODE FAIL CAS message

231
Q

What do the Flight Control Laws (CLAWS) provide?

A

Flight envelope protections to prevent the airplane from exceeding the flight limit envelope limitations.

232
Q

What are the two flight envelopes for the airplane?

A

The normal flight envelope and the limit flight envelope

233
Q

What are the limits of the normal flight envelope?

A

33* bank angle protection,
high speed (Vmo) protection
low energy avoidance (1.13 Vs) and pitch attitude protection

234
Q

What are the limits of the high speed protection envelope?

A

Vmo+22kts

235
Q

When does the pitch attitude protection activate?

A

At angle of 30* pitch up and
15* pitch down

236
Q

What does the limit flight envelope require?

A

More pilot effort to maintain the plane in this configuration

237
Q

What are the boundaries/hard limits of the limit flight envelope?

A

Limits are reached at full control application. The hard limits: max AOA, plane structural limits (load factor protection) max sideslip protection, dive speed protection.
No hard limits for pitch and bank angle

238
Q

Is the AP operational in Direct Mode (DM)?

A

No

239
Q

In Direct Mode (DM), how does the airplane behave?

A

Like convention airplane.
Sidestick and pedal deflection are directly related to the surface position

240
Q

What systems make up the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?

A

FD, AP and AT

241
Q

Which panel hosts the controls for the AP, AT and FD, plus lateral and vertical reference/mode selection and course selection?

A

AFCS panel

242
Q

What does pushing the FD button on the AFCS panel do?

A

Engages or disengages FD on both PDFs

243
Q

What does pushing the AT button on the AFCS panel do?

A

Engage or disengage AT

244
Q

What does the outer ring of the SPD knob allow the pilot to select?

A

Speed reference - MAN or FMS

245
Q

What does pushing the HDG button on the AFCS panel do?

A

1 click- HDG mode , second time - ROLL mode

246
Q

How can the heading bug be synchronized with the current airplane heading?

A

Pushing heading button (knob)

247
Q

Pushing the BANK button on the AFCS will toggle between what bank angles?

A

+- 30* and +-15*

248
Q

What is the up and down range of the FPA mode?

A

9,9*

249
Q

How can the flight path angle / reference line be selected?

A

By rotating FPA knob

250
Q

What does the outer knob on the ALT knob select? The inner knob?

A

Outer 1000ft(or100m).
Inner 100ft or 10m

251
Q

What does pushing the SRC button do?

A

Alternates between PFD1 and PFD2 FMA modes as the source of AP

252
Q

When the autopilot is engaged, what does pushing the TCS button on the sidestick do?

A

Activates TCS (AP override) as long as neither TO nor GA mode is active

253
Q

Where are the AT/DISC buttons located? The TO/ GA buttons?

A

On the thrust lever

254
Q

With the AP engaged, will the AP disengage if force is applied on the sidestick, either in the pitch or roll direction?

A

Yes

255
Q

What are the two FD cues presented?

A

FD cue - magenta circle or TO crossbar

256
Q

What does the green Flight Path Vector cue indicate?

A

Current flightpath in refence to horizon

257
Q

Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) located, and what does it display?

A

Upper part of both PFDs. It shows annunciatons fot AT, AP, APPR, lateral and vertical modes

258
Q

List the FMA color codes for normal operation.

A

FMS active/engaged - magenta nonFMS active/engaged - green
Armed - white,
Alert - amber
Abnormal - red

259
Q

What does an amber LIM on the FMA indicate?

A

AT-speed, selected target cannot be achieved N1 limited

260
Q

What are the two precision approach capabilities of the airplane?

A

APPR1 and APPR2

261
Q

How can the autopilot aural alert be cancelled?

A

By pressing AP/PTY button on either sidestick

261
Q

When is the autopilot aural alert triggered?

A

When AP is disengaged by pilot or by failure

262
Q

When will the airplane automatically transition to the half bank mode?

A

When alt is grater than 25000ft

263
Q

Prior to selecting the TO/GA button, what must be set in order to display the takeoff crossbar on the PFD?

A

Flaps 1 or 2, plane weight must be set and TO speeds must be sent in the FMS

264
Q

What computed takeoff speed reference is set in TO mode?

A

V2+15kts - AEO.
If OEI below V2 speed reference will be set to V2

265
Q

What altitudes are associated with the ILS approach check points to try to engage the highest system capability available?

A

1500ft RA and 800ft RA

266
Q

What is Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)?

A

Function that automaticlly bring plane to safe alt in scenario of decompression and pilot incapacitation

267
Q

When is EDM enabled?

A

AP ON and above 25000ft

268
Q

When is EDM activated?

A

EDM - enabled and depressurization occurs red - CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message

269
Q

If the Autopilot (AP) is engaged, what happens to the autothrottle (AT) when the airspeed is below the top of the LSA white bar?

A

AT will automatically be engaged

270
Q

What happens to the Autopilot (AP) when the AOA limit function is activated?

A

It is disengage

271
Q

What phases of flight is the autothrottle system approved to operate in?

A

All. TO, climb, cruise, descent, approach landing and during OEI

272
Q

What is the purpose of the HOLD mode of the autothrottle?

A

To ensure that no undesirable thrust reduction are experienced during TO

273
Q

When will the autothrottle (AT) HOLD mode be activated?

A

From 60kts during roll until 400ft AGL

274
Q

What is the minimum autopilot engagement height?

A

400ft

275
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height with Vertical Path Reference?

A

80ft

276
Q

What is the minimum autopilot use height without Vertical Path Reference?

A

180ft

277
Q

When planning to land with the autothrottle engaged, what is the VREF additive and how much is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by?

A

5kts, 1.1

278
Q

How many oxygen cylinders supply oxygen to both crew and passengers?

A

1

279
Q

When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy with the OXYGEN knob in PAX AUTO?

A

At cabin alt 14500 +- 300ft

280
Q

What are the two capacities of oxygen bottles available?

A

77ft3 or 115ft3

281
Q

Where are the oxygen system parameters and indications displayed?

A

STATUS synoptic page

282
Q

What are the selections that can be toggled between on the MODE SELECTOR on the oxygen mask?

A

N, 100% and EMGCY

283
Q

What position must the MODE SELECTOR be set to in order to stow the oxygen mask?

A

100%

284
Q

What is the purpose of the OXYGEN SAVER PUSH-PULL BUTTON on the oxygen mask?

A

To allow the crew to breath cabin air when oxygen supply is not required

285
Q

When must the OXYGEN SAVER PUSH-PULL BUTTON be manually pulled?

A

In case of fire or smoke

286
Q

What does the oxygen pressure in green indicate?

A

Normal range of operation

287
Q

What does the oxygen pressure in white indicate?

A

It is an advisory operating range and the Oxygen Dispatch Pressure charts must be references for the minimum to dispatch

288
Q

How many smoke goggles are provided?

A

1 for each flight crew member

289
Q

Can smoke or toxic fumes be purged from the smoke goggles? How?

A

Yes by the vent valve

290
Q

The oxygen mask is designed to be donned within how many seconds?

A

5sec

291
Q

Does the oxygen mask need to be removed from the stowage box to be tested?

A

No

292
Q

How is the oxygen mask tested?

A

Knob to 100%, PRESS TO TEST AND RESET button on the LH door and PRESS TO TEST button on the regulator need to be simultaneously pressed for 1 sec

293
Q

When must the Oxygen Cylinder Toggle switch not be set to ON?

A

below -15*C

294
Q

What does pulling the LANDING GEAR FREE FALL LEVER do?

A

Relieves HYD pressure in the landing gear lines and mechanically releases the uplock hooks for all the landing gear

295
Q

What does it mean when the LANDING GEAR POSITION INDICATIONS turn to red icons?

A

That more than 20sec passed since a discrepancy has been detected between landing gear leaver and actual landing gear possition

296
Q

If the parking brake is not fully released on the ground, what CAS message will be displayed?

A

Either a white PARKING BRAKE ON CAS or cyan CHECK PARKING BRAKE CAS

297
Q

If the parking brake is not fully released in flight, what CAS message will be displayed?

A

An amber PARK BRAKE NOT REL CAS message

298
Q

Where can the emergency/park brake accumulator pressure and the brake temperature indications be seen?

A

STATUS synoptic page

299
Q

How long can the light on the STEERING button and the STEERING DISC CAS message take to go off after the first engagement of the nose wheel steering?

A

Up to 2sec

300
Q

Which steering switch has priority for safe operation on the ground?

A

The external STEERING DISENGAGE switch

301
Q

When will the green TOWING ALLOWED light in the external steering panel illuminate?

A

When external STEERING DISENGAGE switch is in the DISENGAGE position and the parking brake is not applied

302
Q

How far should the airplane be towed slowly in a straight line before turning?

A

3m

303
Q

When should the DN LCK REL (down lock release) button be used?

A

Only when landing gear control lever failure or when necessary to clear obstacles

304
Q

What type of brake system is on the aircraft?

A

Brake-by-wire

305
Q

During normal operations, what does the Brake Control Unit (BCU) provide?

A

Locked wheel protection, anti-skid protection, gear retract braking, touch down protection, gear extension test, brake temperature monitor, autobrake

306
Q

Where can the Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS) information be found and what does it provide?

A

STATUS synoptic page, brake temperature, and brake overheat warning on EICAS

307
Q

Where must the brake temperature indication be prior to takeoff?

A

Green range

308
Q

What are the two different modes of AUTOBRAKE control?

A

Land mode (LO,MED, HI) and RTO

309
Q

What kind of pressure will autobrake in the RTO mode apply?

A

Equivalent to max manual braking

310
Q

When will autobrake applications begin on landing?

A

1sec after WOW indicates ground and thust lever signal at idle

311
Q

Is antiskid protection available while braking with the emergency/parking brake?

A

No

312
Q

What handle position is used when using the emergency/parking brake as a parking brake?

A

Pulled to full up possition and lock

313
Q

Where can the emergency/parking brake handle be set to as a reference for emergency braking?

A

To the intermediate position (first detent)

314
Q

How can the emergency / parking brake be modulated?

A

By keeping the release button pressed

315
Q

How many full applications/how many hours of parking do the emergency/parking brake accumulators provide?

A

6 or 16

316
Q

When the airplane is airborne, is the steering system engaged?

A

No

317
Q

What is the maximum range that the nose wheel can turn in free wheel steering mode?

A

+-170*

318
Q

List the steering angles and associated speed
with nose wheel steering engaged:

A

+-62* up to 10kts, decreases linearly to +-8* at 25kts and then
+-3* at 68kts

319
Q

What airspeed is Vlo?

A

250kts - max langing gear operating speed

320
Q

What airspeed is Vle?

A

250kts - max landing gear extention speed

321
Q

When must AUTOBRAKE be set to OFF?

A

For emergency or abnormal procedures

322
Q

List the items that use bleed air.

A

ECS,
engine start,
eng wing and horizontal stabilizer antiicing,
cargo heating system,
cabin door pressurized seal,
cabin pressure control system CPCS

323
Q

When is the cabin temperature control transferred to the VIP seat panel?

A

When the detent C is selected on the
PAX CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROL KNOB

324
Q

In the event of a bleed leak detection, what light will illuminate in addition to an associated CAS message?

A

PACK, BLEED 1, BLEED2 or
BLEED APU amber light

325
Q

When is the Outflow Valve (OFV) indication on the Environmental Control System (ECS) synoptic page displayed?

A

Only on the ground

326
Q

What are the potential sources of bleed air that the Pneumatic System Controller (PSC) can automatically select from?

A

Engines, APU and external connection

327
Q

Is it possible to have bleed from the APU and the engines simultaneously?

A

No

328
Q

During normal operation on the ground and for taxiing, what is the primary source of bleed air?

A

APU

329
Q

What is the primary source of bleed air in flight?

A

Engines

330
Q

When will the bleed air source be automatically transitioned to the engines?

A

At TO run - TLAs higher than 50*

331
Q

The XBSOV (cross bleed shut off valve) is automatically commanded to close for what conditions?

A

Bleed leakage,
overpressure,
engine fire,
or if failure condition is identified

332
Q

Can an external ground connection be used to supply pressurized air for an engine start?

A

Yes

333
Q

If an external pneumatic power source is being used and is not adjustable, what range should the pressure supply be in?

A

Between 31 and 60 PSI

334
Q

When is fast cooling enabled on hot days?

A

When differences between cabin/cockpit set temp and cabin/cockpit zone temp is equal or
higher than 6*C

335
Q

When is fast warming enabled on cold days?

A

When differences between cabin/cockpit set temp and cabin/cockpit zone temp is equal or
higher than 6*C

336
Q

What happens to the recirculation fan during fast cooling and fast warming operations?

A

Automatically sets a higher speed

337
Q

If the air conditioning pack fails what does the PSC automatically do?

A

It engages the pack backup operational mode and controls cabin and cockpit temp

338
Q

What is ram air ventilation used for?

A

Non-pressurized flight or for smoke evacuation

339
Q

When will the PSC command the emergency RAM air door to open?

A

In case of loss conditioning PAC and PACK backup system

340
Q

How can the emergency RAM air door be manually commanded to open?

A

DUMP button on the PRESSURIZATION control panel

341
Q

How is the Cargo Heating System operated?

A

Automatically by PSC

342
Q

When is the main cabin door pressurized seal inflated?

A

After TO

343
Q

How can the outflow valve be modulated?

A

Automatically or manually

344
Q

What position are the Negative and Positive Pressure Relief Valves (NPRV and PRV) normally in?

A

Closed

345
Q

What does pushing in the MODE selector button on the PRESSURIZATION panel allow for?

A

Manually control of the pressurization system through the CABIN ALT knob

346
Q

What is the cabin altitude rate of change when moving the CABIN ALT knob UP or DN?

A

50ft/min steps

347
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed in the automatic mode of operation?

A

Cabin is depressured at constant rate of change 2000ft/min up to 12000ft and the emergency RAM air door opened

348
Q

What happens when the DUMP button is pressed in the manual mode of operation?

A

The cabin rate of change will increase with the duration of the dump command, until either the coomand
is removed or the altitude limit function disables it when the cabin reach 14800 +-200ft. RAIM air door open.

349
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for a 6,000 ft cabin altitude? For a 5,800 ft cabin altitude?

A

9.64 psid.
9.73 psid

350
Q

What is the maximum differential overpressure?

A

10,4psid

351
Q

What is the maximum differential negative pressure?

A

-0,5psid

352
Q

What is the maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing?

A

0,2psid

353
Q

What sub-systems does ice and rain protection include?

A

wing,stabilizer anti-ice, engine ice protection, ADSP/TAT heating system, windshield heating
and windshiel rain protection system

354
Q

When may icing conditions exist?

A

When OAT on ground or TAT in flight in 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present

355
Q

Where can performance data/limits for operations in icing conditions be found?

A

In performance section and/or OPERA

356
Q

When may the ICE SPEED RESET position on the ICE PROTECTION MODE knob shall be selected?

A

Only if crew is certain that there is no ice on plane

357
Q

What does the ICE SPEED RESET position on the ICE PROTECTION MODE do?

A

Resets stall protection (LSA bands) to non-icing condition setting and removes the STALL PROT ICE SPEED CAS message

358
Q

When is the APU icon and associated flow line on the ICE PROTECTION synoptic page displayed?

A

Only on the ground

359
Q

Can the APU bleed be used as a bleed source for ice protection?

A

No, except for gound tests.

360
Q

How does the Engine Ice Protection System protect the engine air inlets from ice formation?

A

By entering hot air from the engines

361
Q

How does the Wing and Stabilizer Anti-Ice System protect the wing and stabilizer leading edges from icing formation?

A

It uses hot air from the pneumatic system

362
Q

How can the Wing and Horizontal Stabilizer Ice Protection Systems test be initiated?

A

By pressing the ice protection TEST button on the ICE PROT panel

363
Q

How many ice detectors are on the airplane and where are they located?

A

Two on LH and RH side of the nose

364
Q

How does the Windshield Heating System (WHS) protect the windshield from ice and fog formation?

A

Uses electrical power to heat the windshield

365
Q

When may the WHS operate in a power savings mode?

A

If engine system is fed by single generator

366
Q

Does WHS operate if the system is fed by battery power?

A

No

367
Q

How are the ADSP/ TAT probes heated?

A

Electrically

368
Q

Will the Anti-Ice system monitor icing conditions and automatically activate in all flight phases?

A

Yes

369
Q

Whenever the XBLEED is closed and the right bleed is the only source available, the anti-ice system is?

A

Innoperative

370
Q

What is the maximum operating altitude for anti- ice single bleed operation?

A

20000ft

371
Q

List the 3 ICE PROTECTION MODE knob settings / temperatures for takeoff:

A

ENG - temp between 5 and 10C
ALL - temp is lower than 5C with visible moisture AUTO - for all other conditions

372
Q

If the MODE knob is in ALL for takeoff, when will the white A-I WINGSTAB ARMBED (AMBER czy ARMED?) CAS message go to white A-I WINGSTAB ON?

A

When wheel speed is greater than 30kts

373
Q

When the ICE PROT MODE knob is in the AUTO position and the ice detector recognizes the icing condition, at what point will the ice protection system be activated in flight?

A

When plane is above 1700AGL or 2 minutes is in the air whichever occurs first.

374
Q

When will the wing and stabilizer anti-ice system automatically be turned off after the airplane leaves icing conditions?

A

After 2 minutes

375
Q

Where are the antennas for VHF 1, VHF 2, and VHF 3 located respectively on the fuselage?

A

Top
bottom
top

376
Q

What provides the flight crew with the interface to control the audio functions of all radio communication and navigation systems?

A

Audio Control Panel

377
Q

What services can the optional VHF 3 provide?

A

Voice and data link capability like ACARS and CPDLC

378
Q

If the TUNE knob on the RSP is in the NORM position, list some of the ways frequencies can be tuned:

A

Via the CCP, MKP or MFW TUNING window

379
Q

What does the HF communication system provide?

A

Long range air-to-air, air-to-ground and ground-to-air communication

380
Q

What is SELCAL used for?

A

It is ground-to-air calling system that relieves flight crew from heaving to continously monitor the VHF na HF communication

381
Q

Where is the ramp audio jack located?

A

On the lower LH portion of the forward fuselage. It is part of STEERING DESENGAGE/RAMP INTERPHONE panel

382
Q

Where does left MKP tuning enter frequencies into?

A

1 radios (NAV and COM)

383
Q

Where does right MKP tuning enter frequencies into?

A

2 radios (NAV and COM)

384
Q

What does pushing the microphone select button on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) do?

A

Selects the microphone audio and makes the slection the active transmitter

385
Q

What does the HDPH knob on the ACP do? The SPKR knob?

A

Controls headphone volume.
Controls the selection of the speaker on/off and the volume for the flight deck

386
Q

Can the volume of the aural voice and tone warnings to the speaker be adjusted by the SPKR knob on the ACP?

A

No

387
Q

What does the BOOM/AUTO/MASK knob on the ACP in the AUTO position allow for?

A

The oxygen mask microphone to be automatically selected when the oxygen mask is donned and switches back to boom when the oxygen mask is properly stowed

388
Q

What does the VOX knob on the ACP do?

A

Provides on/off and sensitivity control for the voice-activated interphone

389
Q

What does the ST knob on the ACP do?

A

Controls the sidetone volume in the selected radio

390
Q

What does pushing the AUDIO BACKUP button on the AUDIO JACK PANEL do?

A

It recovers the use of the onside radio when full ACP funcionality is not available.

391
Q

What does pushing the AURAL MUTE button on the AUDIO JACK PANEL do?

A

It inhibits the aural alerts on the respective side
and display the cyan AVNX AURAL WARN 1(2) OFF CAS message

392
Q

Where are the PTT buttons located at for each pilot?

A

One on the CCP,
One on the sidestick
One 3-way position slide switch on the glareshiedl panel

393
Q

What are the switch positions for the TUNE knob on the RSP?

A

COM1(2) 121,5 , NORM, L(R) MKP ONLY

394
Q

If MKP ONLY is selected without a display tuning (RTSA) failure, what message will be displayed over the tuning window?

A

LEFT/RIGHT SIDE DISPLAY TUNING INHIBITED

395
Q

If the crew receives a new ACARS message, how will they be alerted?

A

By cyan ACARS MESSAGE CAS

396
Q

Can you rely on ADF indications on the PFD while transmitting in HF?

A

No

397
Q

How many CPDLC message may be stored?

A

Up to 75 messages until the end of the flight

398
Q

What selection needs to be activated on the COM 3 control page prior to using CPDLC?

A

DATA mode selection

399
Q

How will a pilot be notified that an uplink (CPDLC) message has arrived?

A

CPDLC MESSAGE CAS message will be displayed and MESSAGE ATC aural annunciation will sound

400
Q

Does an ATC message received have priority over an ACARS message received?

A

Yes

401
Q

What is the usage of ATN- CPDLC restricted to?

A

Supplementary means of communications for non-time critical messages

402
Q

What phase of flight is the usage of ATN – CPDLC restricted to?

A

Cruise above FL200 and for non-critical messaging

403
Q

What color is the active target speed bug and the active target speed indication when MAN is set on the SPD knob on the AFCS panel? When FMS is set on the SPD knob?

A

Cyan/magenta

404
Q

The Vmax is computed as the lesser of what speeds?

A

Vmo, Mmo, Vle, Vfe

405
Q

What symbol/bug indicates the speed in which the flaps can be retracted with a safe margin?

A

Magenta F bug

406
Q

The tip of the airspeed trend vector points to the projected airspeed/Mach in approximately what timeframe at the present rate of acceleration/ deceleration?

A

10 sec

407
Q

What symbol/bug indicates the speed in which the airplane is trimmed for when in the landing phase?

A

TCS trim bug - a green triangle

408
Q

Which speeds are displayed for takeoff?

A

V1, Vr, V2(safety speed), Vfs(final takeoff)

409
Q

When are the takeoff speeds automatically deselected?

A

When plane is above 1500ft AGL and the current airspeed is greater than the highest Vspeed +40kts

410
Q

Which speeds are displayed for approach and landing?

A

Vfs(final takeoff),
Vac(app climb),
Vapp(app speed),
Vref (app with land config)

411
Q

What does the flap selection speed bug (green dot) indicate?

A

The speed in which the flaps can be extended

412
Q

In Normal Mode (NM) what colors are the LSA bands and what do they indicate?

A

White - Vss - stability speed
amber - airspeed when AOA limiter activates
Red - speed for max allowable AOA

413
Q

In Direct Mode (DM), what colors are the LSA bands and what do they indicate?

A

Yellow and red - STALL aural alert
is triggered. For DM AOA limiter is INOP

414
Q

The altitude trend vector is computed to predict the altitude the airplane will achieve in how many seconds (assuming a constant vertical speed)?

A

10 sec

415
Q

Where are ADS messages (i.e. BOTH ON ADS 1/2/3) presented to the pilot and in what color?

A

Upper right corner of the PFD AMBER

416
Q

When an ADS reversion occurs in the SFIS(STBY), how will the pilot know that an alternate source has been selected?

A

An ADSREV flag is present

417
Q

What type of guidance will be provided to the pilots to aid in the recovery of an unusual attitude?

A

Red unusual attitide chevrons are displeyed and they always point towards the horizon line

418
Q

Where are AHRS messages (i.e.BOTH ON AHRS 1/2) presented to the pilot and in what color?

A

AMBER on the upper right PFD corner

419
Q

What is the Display Control Panel (DCP) used for?

A

To select PFD formats, overlays, navigation source, and range on the display

420
Q

What does pushing the CVS button on the DCP do?

A

Allows the synthetic vision to be put on or taken off the PFD instead of the traditional blue and brown background

421
Q

What does pushing the FPV CAGE button on the DCP do?

A

Centers FPV on the PFD when selected. It is only enabled when CVS is active

422
Q

What does pushing the ET button do?

A

Starts (first push) stop(second push)
removes (third push) a timer that is visible on the upper right side of the HSI

423
Q

What does pushing the TCAS button on the DCP do?

A

Places trafiic overlays info on the HSI map

424
Q

What does the WX button do?

A

Places weather overlays info on the HSI map

425
Q

What does the RANGE/TILT knob allow the crew to do?

A

Outer - adjusts the range
Inner - adjusts the tilt of weather radar

426
Q

What does pushing the HSI format button do?

A

Toggles between: clean (no background),
compass (a range ring with TCAS nad WX overlays possible), map (FMS flight plan info shown)

427
Q

What does pushing the FMS button do?

A

Selects FMS as the primary NAV source

428
Q

What does pushing the V/L button do?

A

Changes the primary NAV source to VOR or LOC - based on freq tuned

429
Q

What is the Reversionary Switch Panel used for?

A

A manual reversion of display and sensors (ADS and AHRS) in the event of malfunction and alternative
means of tuning

430
Q

How can the display brightness of the DUs be adjusted?

A

By OFF/BRT control knobs on RSP

431
Q

If the pilot turns off the CTR DU, what will happen to the EICAS?

A

EICAS will be reverted to the both window LH and RH DUs

432
Q

What does pushing the EICAS button on the RSP do?

A

It reverts the EICAS window to the LH and RH DUs

433
Q

What does the ATT HDG button on the RSP do?

A

Manually changes the AHRS source of the PFD

434
Q

What does pushing the ADS button on the RSP do?

A

Manually changes the ADS source of the PFD

435
Q

How can the pilots interface with the avionics systems?

A

Via Multifunction Keyboard Panel (MKP) and Cursor Control Panel (CCP)

436
Q

What is the CNCL button on the MKP used for?

A

To cancel an in-process flight plan edit

437
Q

What does pushing the FMS button on the MKP do?

A

Displays FMS format on the on-side MFW of the LWR DU

438
Q

What does pushing the ROUTE button on the MKP do?

A

Displayes the route window on the on-side MFW of the LWR DU

439
Q

What does pushing the MSG button on the MKP do?

A

It shows or remove the FMS message dialog box on the MFW

440
Q

What does pushing the DEP/ARR button do?

A

On the ground it shows departure dialog box in the flight the arrival dialog box

441
Q

What does pushing the DIRECT TO button on the MKP do?

A

It brings up a direct-to dialog box which is used to edit the flight plan

442
Q

What is the SCRATCHPAD?

A

It is 24 character display used to temporarily hold keystrokes before being entered into a display entry field

443
Q

What does pushing the EXEC button on the MKP do?

A

It executes a modified flight plan making in the active flight plan

444
Q

When does the green light bar above the EXEC button illuminate?

A

When there is modified flight plan

445
Q

What does the MEM button on the MKP provide?

A

The ability to memorize formats and to recall memorized DU formats

446
Q

What function does the CLR/DEL button perform?

A

When there is data in the scratchpad it backspaces or clears the entire scratchpad and when there is no data in the scratchpad it enters the word DELETE into the scratchpad

447
Q

How can the scratchpad text be entered into the selected display entry field?

A

By pressing ENTER button

448
Q

What does pushing the NAV button on the MKP do?

A

It takes the number entered into scratchpad and places it into the NAV if it fits the range of freq

449
Q

What does pushing the COM button on the MKP do?

A

It takes the number entered into scratchpad and places it into the COM if it fits the range of freq

450
Q

What do the arrows on the CCP do?

A

Provide an alternate to the CCP trackball for positioning the cursor on the DUs

451
Q

What does the CKLST button on the MKP display?

A

List of available checklists

452
Q

What does the SYS button on the MKP display?

A

The synoptic page

453
Q

What synoptic pages are available to select?

A

STATUS, FLIGHT CONTROLS, ECS, FUEL, ELECTRICAL, HYDRAULICS, ANTI-ICE, MISC

454
Q

What does the CHART button do?

A

Displays the chart format on the on-side MFW of the lower DU during normal operation

455
Q

How can the cursor be maneuvered?

A

Via trackball on the CCP

456
Q

What can the PAGE/DATA/PUSH ENTER double stack knob on the CCP be used for?

A

To scroll list contents, position the data entry cursor
or change the value of varius display item or selection boxes

457
Q

What does pushing the MENU button on the CCP do?

A

It brings the display menu into view on the display window where the cursor is currently
located and position it on the first menu item

458
Q

How many ADSPs and TATs probes are mounted on the forward fuselage?

A

4 and 2

459
Q

For normal operations, which ADS provides information for the left seat pilot PFD? The right seat pilot PFD? The SFIS?

A

ADS1, ADS2, ADS4

460
Q

In the event of an electrical emergency, what will provide electrical power? Which DU is available? And which ADS is available?

A

RAT, CTR DU, ADS3

461
Q

What does the SFIS provide?

A

A third independent source of attitude angles, attitudes rates, accelerations, heading, and vertical speed for flight guidance and navigation when primary information isn’t available

462
Q

How can the menu on the SFIS be accessed?

A

By M labeled menu button on the SFIS bezel

463
Q

What are the buttons to the left and right of the M button on the SFIS bezel used for?

A

To skip over options - they are labeled UP and DOWN in the entry menu context

464
Q

When is the SFIS full screen menu available?

A

Only on the ground

465
Q

What is the ECL?

A

Electronic Checklist which permits automation of the checklist’s item and cen be used at any phase of flight

466
Q

What selections are available in the dropdown menu of the CHECKLIST window (ECL)?

A

INDEX, QUEUE, FCN

467
Q

How many AHRS units are there and what are they used for?

A

3: AHRS1 is for the left seat pilot PFD AHRS2 for right pilot
AHRS3 is used exclusively by the flight controls system

468
Q

When will the ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI flag be displayed? For how long?

A

During AHRS attitude and heading alignment. Up to 10min

469
Q

Which FMS pages may GPS control and indications be seen?

A

FMS INIT and FMS sensors pages

470
Q

How can the expanded menus for NAV or ADF be selected on the TUNING page?

A

By selecting the NAV1, NAV2, ADF1, ADF2 gray button

471
Q

Where can an advanced menu of ATC/TCAS selections be found?

A

By selecting the grey XPNDR/TCAS button on the TUNING page

472
Q

Where is the weather radar control window accessed?

A

Via the WX button on the DCP

473
Q

When is the weather radar tilt and gain automatically adjusted to provide an optimum weather picture?

A

When multiscan or AUTO mode is selected

474
Q

What is the coverage range of the radar and what does it provide?

A

Up to 320NM for precipitation-related weather and up to 40NM for precipitation-related turbulance. It provides ground mapping coverage enabling the detection of major geographical features such as cities, lakes, and coastlines.

475
Q

What does the Lightning Detection System provide and up to what range?

A

Alerts the crew to the presence of thunderstorm activity by mapping the lightning surrounding the plane 200NM

476
Q

What type of navigation does the FMS provide?

A

Lateral and vertical for en-route terminal, non-precision approaches, LNAV/VNAV
and LPV approaches, and coupled lateral and vertical navigation capability with an automatic transition to ILS approaches

477
Q

Who is responsible for keeping the FMS database updated and for the accuracy of the waypoints used in the FMS?

A

Operator

478
Q

Where can the navigation and airplane database validation check be accomplished in the FMS?

A

On the FMS INIT of the FMS DB format page

479
Q

What do the colors of the FMS navigation database symbolize?

A

Curent selected nav database is displayed in GREEN Second nav database effective date shows in WHITE expired database is shown in YELLOW

480
Q

Which DUs can the FMS be displayed on and under which screen format size?

A

FMS format page can be accessed on any DUs under half screen format

481
Q

What are the various FMS format pages that can be selected?

A

INIT,
FPLN SETUP,
WT & BAL,
TAKEOFF(TOLD) LANDING (TOLD), FLT LOG,
FUEL MGMT,
SENSORS,
FMS DB,
DEFAULTS

482
Q

How can the various FMS format pages be accessed?

A

Through the CCP MENU button or the M on the top left corner ro the MFW and use the dropdown menu to select the FMS under a half screen format

483
Q

On the TAKEOFF page, what needs to be set to enable the SEND button for FMS takeoff speeds?

A

OAT, P ALT and RWY LENGHT

484
Q

If the crew loads inoperative NAVAID identifiers to inhibit them from FMS navigation, when will that list be reset?

A

Upon an FMS cold start

485
Q

The FMS can hold multiple flight plans. What are they called?

A

ACT FPLN- active
SEC FPLN - secondary
MOD FPLN - modified

486
Q

What is the difference between an ACT FPLN and a MOD FPLN?

A

Active flight plans that are being edited are called modified flight plans and can be executed to become an active flight plan

487
Q

What does the ROUTE format allow for?

A

It enables creation, control and viewing of the FMS legs according to the flight plan

488
Q

The FMS sets the lateral deviation sensitivity based on what?

A

the RNP value from the navigation database

489
Q

What does synthetic vision provide?

A

A perspective view of the outside world displayed on the PFD and it creates a computerized synthetic image of the external scene topography from the perspective of the flight deck

490
Q

May synthetic vision be used as a primary navigation source?

A

No

491
Q

Does the FMS provide OEI speeds and driftdown altitude?

A

No

492
Q

The SPD knob must be set to what prior to take-off?

A

MAN

493
Q

May the Required Time of Arrival (RTA) information be used to ensure compliance with ATC clearances or restrictions?

A

No, the pilots must use other means to ensure compliance

494
Q

What needs to be set in order to check the brake wear indicator pins on the landing gear?

A

PARK BRAKE lever

495
Q

List the 5 pins with “remove before flight flags.”

A

Nose gear Ground Locking Pin
Right and left gear ground locking pic, Emergency door locking pin,
RAT safety lock pin

496
Q

How many vortex generators are located on each wing?

A

21

497
Q

How many static wicks are on the aircraft?

A

17 total

498
Q

What publication can be referred to for dispatch with missing static wicks?

A

The configuration Deviation List - AFM supplemnt

499
Q

Where is the green Oxygen Discharge Indicator disc located?

A

RH aft fuselage near ground service panel

500
Q

What is the Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)?

A

19500kg

501
Q

What is the Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?

A

19440kg

502
Q

What is the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)?

A

17000kg

503
Q

What is the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)?

A

13000kg

504
Q

How are the airplane forward and aft CG limits referred to?

A

In terms of % MAC

505
Q

What FMS page provides a means to load and dispatch the airplane within CG limits?

A

WT & BAL page

506
Q

What two sections is the FMS WT & BAL page divided into?

A

Aircraft Loading and Operating Empty Weight

507
Q

If any field on the FMS WT & BAL page is out of limits for the calculations, what color will it display?

A

YELLOW font

508
Q

What items do the entry data on the AIRCRAFT LOADING page include?

A

Average passenger weight, number of passengers in zone, baggage weight and taxi fuel

509
Q

When is the AVG PAX WT used?

A

Only if number of passengers is entered into each zone

510
Q

What shows the current weight of the aircraft?

A

GWT - Gross Weight

511
Q

When is the ENROUTE FUEL entry displayed?

A

After the flight plan is entered

512
Q

When does the CONFIRM button on the AIRCRAFT LOADING page become available?

A

Every time the ZFW is change due to loading changes or fuel quantity changes of more than 500lb(227kg) from the previously confirmed

513
Q

What is Vfs?

A

Final segment climb speed

514
Q

What is the Approved Performance Software that is certified to provide takeoff, landing and enroute approved performance data?

A

OPERA

515
Q

What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing?

A

35kt crosswind limitation for takeoff
25 - demonstrated crosswind
20 - contaminated / compacted snow
15- wet ice

516
Q

What technique should be used for crosswind landings?

A

The de-crab technique

517
Q

What is the initial pitch angle for takeoff with the flap 1 position?

A

12*

518
Q

What load factors are published im the Maneuver Capability Altitude charts?

A

Various From 1.2G up to 1.5G

519
Q

Describe the descent schedule that is used for planning:

A

A descent at M0.78 then 300KIAS to FL100 then deceleration to 250KIAS DOWN TO SEA LEVEL

520
Q

What speeds are holding tables presented for?

A

Minimum drag speed and 200KIAS

521
Q

An aircraft climbing with a constant speed:

A

Can exceed the Maximum Operating Mach number and experience high speed buffeting.

522
Q

An accelerated stall occurs because:

A

The high rate of change in the AOA increases the g-load stall speed.

523
Q

If a multi-engined aircraft experiences as engine failure, the most effective flight control is:

A

The rudder with deflection toward the operative engine.

524
Q

The aircraft suddenly pitches to a nose low attitude. Your first action as PF should be to:

A

Disconnect the AP/ AT, pitch down to recover from stall If required and roll wings level

525
Q

Physiological clues that may exist within an UPSET include:

A

Startle Factor, adrenaline and fear.

526
Q

You are PM and have noticed that the aircraft is nose high with speed falling. You should:

A

Announce „Nose high” monitor recovery actions and announce any continued divergences.

527
Q

The three main categories of factors that can contribute to an UPSET are:

A

Mechanical, Environment and Pilot Induced.

528
Q

What should you do if your aircraft is approaching the stall and no additional power is available?

A

Reduce AOA

529
Q

Which of the following is considered an UPSET?

A

Windshear encounter with stick shake and speed loss.

530
Q

You are PM and in the terminal area when a change in runway is declared. To repoprogram the FMS you would:

A

Reprogram according to the highest priority whilst monitoring the aircraft flight-path.

531
Q

The speed range between the low speed stall and high speed buffet:

A

Decreases during a climb.

532
Q

An aircraft will always stall:

A

When the Critical AOA is exceeded.

533
Q

A constant gradient of climb:

A

Requires increasing pitch that may exceed the Critical AOA and lead to stall.

534
Q

An UPSET is defined as flight at an inappropriate airspeed, or the unintentional exceedance of:

A

25pitch up, 10 pitch down or 45* bank

535
Q

If your aircraft appears to be low and fast you should:

A

Pitch up and adjust thrust as needed to menage total energy.

536
Q

Which of the following is an example of how good Human Factors/CRM can help prevent an UPSET?

A

Prioritizing task to reduce the workload during a system malfunction.

537
Q

The loss of an ice warning system in icing conditions will:

A

Require more vigilance to observe ice buildup.

538
Q

Applying rudder in one direction and then suddenly reversing it could:

A

Crate side-loads that could cause structural damage.

539
Q

The loss of flaps on approach will lead to an increased Pitch Attitude and:

A

Move you closer to the Critical AOA.

540
Q

What human factor may have led to the UPSET:

A

Dismissing aural stall warnings, Focusing on individual tasks, Unsatisfactory crew communications.

541
Q

A wing experiencing 0g’s will stall based on which of the following?

A

It won’t stall at any speed.

542
Q

How could your attempt to prevent a situation like this from occurring?

A

Comply with SOPs using standard call-outs.

543
Q

You are flying at FL350. The indicated airspeed decays rapidly and the stick shaker activates. As the PF what should you do first:

A

Disconnect AP and AT, apply nose down and pitch trim if needed.

EMB550 Praetor 600 (3 decks)

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