EMB500 praetor 600 - manually entered Flashcards
1
Q
What is the length, width and height of the aircraft?
A
20,74, 21,5, 6,41 [m]
2
Q
What is the minimum runway width required?
A
56ft/17,07m
3
Q
How should the cockpit seats be adjusted?
A
vertically, then forward/aft using spheres
4
Q
Is the internal stowage compartment pressurized?
A
Yes
5
Q
Where is the internal stowage compartment accessed?
A
Through lavatory
6
Q
What is the normal configuration for the cockpit?
A
Dark and quiet
7
Q
What does an illuminated white striped bar on a button mean?
A
Abnormal possition
8
Q
How many identical Display Units (DUs) are there?
A
4
9
Q
List the three different types of windows that can be displayed on the DUs:
A
PFD, EICAS, MFW
10
Q
What are the three pilot selectable format window sizes for the MFWs?
A
1/4, 1/3 and full window
11
Q
Which Display Unit(s )DU will be available in the event of an electrical emergency?
A
CTR DU
12
Q
Where is the emergency door located?
A
Lavatory, over the right wing.
13
Q
What is the limitation for the pocket doors?
A
Open and lock for taxi, TO and landing
14
Q
What is the limitation for the pilot’s foldable table?
A
Stowed for taxi, TO and landing
15
Q
List the 5 doors that are depicted on the STATUS synoptic page:
A
Main door, cargo compartment, electronic bay, emergency, fueling
16
Q
List at least 5 emergency equipment items on- board the aircraft:
A
Flashlight, axe, life vest, life raft, PBE, ELT, smoke goggles, portable fire extinguishers, crew and passengers oxygen masks, first aid kit
17
Q
What does a continuously flashing red
LED light in the ELT cockpit control panel indicate?
A
ELT is active
18
Q
What lights are included in the courtesy lights?
A
Entrance dome light and lights on each step of stairs
19
Q
How can the courtesy lights be turned on?
A
By pressing switch near main door
20
Q
Once the main door switch is pressed, how long will the courtesy lights remain illuminated?
A
5min
21
Q
What bus are the courtesy lights powered by?
A
HOT BUS
22
Q
Which light is used as a visual indication of en- gine operation?
A
BCN
23
Q
What part of the aircraft does the wing inspection light illuminate?
A
Leading edge of the left wing
24
Q
How are the cargo compartment lights turned on and for how long?
A
Manually by the switch by the cargo door - for 5min
25
Which cockpit light is available during an electrical emergency condition?
Dome light - powered by EMERGENCY BUS 2 if required
26
What are the emergency lights powered by?
Two exclusive Ni-Cad batteries
27
When will the emergency lights automatically turn on with the EMER LT knob in the ARMED position?
If main DC buses lose power or if the plane is subjected to an impact.
28
How are the emergency lights controlled?
By the pilot through the EMER LT knob
29
How is the FDR recording accomplished?
Automaticaly from engine start to stop(powered by Emergency Bus 1). Last 25h
30
Does the CVR record both written communication exchanged via datalink and cockpit audio communication?
Yes
31
How are CVR operations accomplished?
Automaticaly from power up to 10min after engines shutdown(Emergency bus 2). 120min
32
How much water is each potable water system capable of carrying?
15l each
33
How are the potable water tanks filled?
Manually with a funnel through panel in each cabinet
34
What temperature of water is recommended to fill the galley and lavatory potable water tanks?
Max 35*C
35
How can the potable water system be drained?
By pressing WATER DRAIN button
36
How long can the potable water tanks take to drain if the tanks are full of water?
10min
37
At what waste tank capacity does the Cabin Management System indicate the necessity of servicing?
85%
38
When servicing the waste system, how long should rinse water be supplied through the servicing cart to clean the waste tank?
3min
39
When should the waste and potable water system be drained to avoid damages to their components caused by water freezing?
During operation in cold weather below 0*C
40
What buttons will illuminate red when a warning CAS message appears in the EICAS window?
WARN
41
What buttons will illuminate amber when a caution CAS message appears in the EICAS window?
CAUT
42
How is it indicated on the EICAS that there is a checklist to complete with an associated CAS message?
Box with indication will be displayed next to CAS
43
What symbol is displayed to indicate that an EICAS checklist has been completed?
Check mark
44
List the four EICAS priority levels:
WARNING - red
CAUTION - amber
ADVISORY - cyan
STATUS - white
45
How should all warning and caution CAS messages be acknowledged by the pilots?
By pressing WARN or CAUT button
46
Can CAS messages be cancelled so long as the activation condition still exists?
No
47
Can a warning or caution CAS message be acknowledged without being in view?
No
48
Give the standard definition for OFF that is used for all systems:
System available but turned off
49
Give the standard definition for FAIL that is used for all systems:
System unavailable - total loss of funcionality
50
Give the standard definition for FAULT that is used for all systems:
System available but performance degraded or partial functionality loss
51
What is an EICAS message that generates more than one CAS message called?
„golden CAS messages”
52
How is a “golden” CAS message indicated?
chevron „ > ”
53
Are some CAS messages inhibited on takeoff or approach and landing to prevent them from becoming a nuisance?
Yes
54
Where are time-critical warnings annunciated?
At PFD1 and PFD2 with specific associated voice
55
Which button allows the aural alerts on the respective side to be inhibited?
AURAL MUTE button
56
What voice message is generated when the airplane configuration is suitable for takeoff after the TO CONFIG button is pressed?
TAKEOFF OK
57
List the items that will activate the takeoff aural warning whenever the airplane is on the ground and thrust is applied:
Flaps, spoilers, parking brakes, trim
58
Will a terrain overlay pop up on the HSI whenever a TAWS alert becomes active?
Yes
59
Will a traffic overlay pop up on the HSI whenever a TCAS TA or RA becomes active?
Yes
60
How long can the In-Flight Entertainment (IFE) take to be fully operational after its power up?
15min
61
When TCAS is sues an RA, what kind of an indication will the pilot have indicating a “fly to” zone?
Green box
62
What type of an electrical system is the airplane equipped with?
28V DC Electrical Power Generation Distribution System
63
If both generators are available, do they operate in a split bus mode or parallel mode?
Split bus mode
64
What does the white AVAIL light indicate?
That plane can be powered by GPU
65
Which light will illuminate when the GPU button is pushed in and providing power to the airplane?
IN USE - green
66
If the APU is started while the airplane is being powered by the GPU, which one will be the source of electrical power for the airplane?
APU
67
What color does the battery voltage indication show if the battery is discharging?
Amber
68
What will the indication be on the electrical synoptic page if the GPU is connected but is not providing power to the airplane?
White GPU status
69
Will the Ram Air Turbine (RAT) be continuously displayed on the electrical synoptic page? If not, when will it be displayed?
No. Only when running
70
How can a pilot manually command the RAT to deploy?
Pulling the handle RH side of cockpit
71
What are the main engine generators and the APU generators rated at?
28V DC, 600A max continuous output
72
What is the minimum GPU voltage required to start charging the batteries?
To start 28V but it will charge as long
a voltage is above 27V DC
73
What buses is the APU capable of supplying power to on the ground if the APU is the only source of electrical power?
On the ground to all, including SHED BUSES
74
What buses are the APU capable of supplying power to in flight?
All except SHED BUSES
75
What buses does the RAT generator power?
EMER BUS1, EMER BUS2, EMER BUS3
76
When will the RAT automatically deploy?
During electrical emergency
77
In flight, when will an electrical emergency occur?
When two main and APU generator are unavailable
78
How many main batteries are there?
Two
79
What is the rating of the main batteries?
24V, 40Ah Nicad
80
If the batteries are the only source of electrical power in flight, what buses will be powered and what CAS message will be displayed?
The EMER buses. BATT DISCHARGING warning CAS message
81
In an electrical emergency, what buses are powered/isolated from the aircraft electrical system?
EMER BUS 1,2,3
82
In an electrical emergency, what sources of power can provide electrical power to EMER BUS 1, EMER BUS 2 and EMER BUS 3?
BATT 1, 2 or RAT
83
What buses will be energized when the airplane is de-energized and there is no electrical power source available?
HOT BATT BUS 1 and 2
84
For ground servicing, when a GPU is connected and providing power to the airplane, with the GPU button pushed out and the BATT 1 and BATT 2 switches in the OFF position, which bus is energized by the GPU?
SHED BUS 1
85
Which battery is connected to the APU START BUS to assist with an APU start?
BATT 2
86
How many generators need to be operating in order for the SHED BUSES to be energized in flight?
2
87
When must the FUEL XFEED knob be set to OFF?
TO, GA and LAND
88
Which MFW page provides a visual representation of the fuel system operation and parameters?
FUEL synoptic page
89
What color does the total and individual tank quantities and fuel temperature indications indicate when in the normal operating range?
Green
90
When the total fuel quantity is displayed in red, which aural warning is played twice?
"FUEL"
91
Can fuel be transferred from one wing to another?
No
92
How does the crossfeed valve allow corrections in the event of a fuel load imbalance?
Allows both engines and/or APU to be fed by one tank
93
Which CAS message is displayed on the EICAS when the difference between the current and expected fuel quantities is higher than 880 lb (400 kg) for 5 minutes?
FUEL LEAK SUSPECTED
94
How many fuel pumps does each fuel tank have?
2
95
What controls the main (A) pump when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position?
Fadec
96
What controls the backup (B) pump when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position?
FCU
97
List the four times when the backup (B) pump will be automatically commanded on when the fuel pump is in the AUTO position:
Engine start,
APU start or run,
fuel low pressure
detection main pump (A) fails
98
When will the amber FUEL WING IMBALANCE CAS message be displayed
on the EICAS?
510lbs (231kg)
99
Where is the pressure refueling point and REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel located at?
RH wing near leading edge on the fuselage
100
How long does the system pre-check on the REFUELING/DEFUELING panel take to verify fuel system operation?
10 sec
101
Which switch located on the REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel enables pressurized refueling to be performed with the airplane energized by either the APU/GPU or batteries power?
POWER SELECTION switch
102
What should happen if the STOP REFUEL is displayed on the REFUELING/DEFUELING control panel during the refueling process?
Refueling should be halted manually by the operator
by moving REFUELING switch to OFF
103
May the tanks be refueled using the gravity refuel port on the top of each wing?
Yes
104
What are the two different methods that the airplane can be defueled?
Suction and/or pressure
105
What is the total fuel capacity?
7376kg / 9184l
106
What is the total usable fuel capacity?
7320kg / 9116l
107
What is the maximum fuel tank temperature for takeoff?
52*C
108
What does the TEST button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel test?
Smoke detection system and it checks cockpit and aural indications
109
If the APU is running, two consecutive fire TESTS within what time period may cause the APU to shut down?
15 sec
110
Is the engine fire detection system continuously monitored?
Yes
111
How many fire bottles does the engine fire extinguishing system have?
Two
112
Which systems are Bottle A and Bottle B used for?
A for engines B for engines and APU
113
List the 4 things that happen when the SHUTOFF 1 (2) button is pushed on the ENGINE FIRE panel:
Closes associated fuel,
hydraulic and bleed shutoff,
BOTTLE A and B illuminate that they are armed
114
Will the APU automatically shut down if a fire or overheat condition is detected on the ground?
Yes
114
What happens when the APU SHUTOFF button is pushed in?
APU fuel and bleed shutoff, bottle B armed
115
What happens when the CARGO button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel is pressed on the ground?
Immediately discharges the high-rate fire extinguisher into cargo compartment
116
On the ground, how can the low rate (metered) bottle be discharged?
By second push of the CARGO button
117
What happens when the CARGO button on the FIRE PROTECTION panel is pressed in flight?
Immediately discharges the high-rate fire extinguisher into cargo compartment,
after two minutes discharge the meter bottle
118
What are the two different sizes for the low rate (metered) extinguisher bottle?
78min and 110 min
119
How can a pilot identify which size of a low rate (metered) extinguisher bottle is on their aircraft?
By a placard in the cargo compartment
120
Does the internal stowage compartment have any fire detection/protection? If so, what?
Yes, smoke detector
121
What services does the APU provide and what are they used for?
Electrical generator supplies 28V DC to electrical system.Pneumatic power is used for
engine starting and to supply
bleed air to the air conditioning pack of ECS
122
How is the APU controlled and monitored?
Trough dedicated FADEC
123
What does pressing the APU ON/OFF button do?
It starts ECU power up sequence and initiates APU Built-in test
124
When does the START button on the APU CONTROL panel flash green?
During APU BIT
125
What does the START button on the APU control panel illuminating steady green indicate?
APU ready to start
126
If the START button on the APU control panel illuminates amber, what does that indicate?
Inhibited APU start
127
What are the APU starter limitations?
3 times, 30sec between attempts
128
What MFW page can APU information be seen on?
STATUS synoptic page
129
Which tank normally supplies fuel to the APU?
Right
130
Is it possible to feed the APU from the left wing tank? If so, how?
Yes, via the cross-feed system.
131
Can the APU supply bleed air on the ground or in flight?
Yes
132
On the ground, what is the primary source of pneumatic air?
APU
133
If the APU is the only source of electrical power on the ground, what buses can the APU power?
All and charges batteries
134
If the APU is the only source of electrical power in flight, what buses can the APU power?
All except SHED BUSES, but it also charging batteries
135
What is the APU operating envelope for starting, operation and to supply electrical power?
Up to 31000ft
136
Up to what altitude is the APU able to supply bleed air for engine starting?
Up to 23000ft
137
Where does the APU get it’s power for starting?
Battery 2
138
Up to what altitude is the APU able to supply bleed air for ECS?
Up to 20000ft
139
What should be displayed on the STATUS synoptic page if the APU oil quantity is sufficient?
Green „OK”
140
List the 4 conditions that will cause the APU to automatically shut down either in flight or on the ground:
Overspeed, Underspeed,
ECU Internal failure, APU Bleed leak
141
List the conditions that will cause the APU to automatically shut down on the ground only:
APU Fire, APU fuel SOV failure APU EGT over temperature, APU high oil pressure,
APU low oil pressure,
APU starter not disengaged
142
How many Full Authority Digital Electronic Controls (FADEC) does each engine have?
Two single channel FADECs
143
Where are the engine indications and alerts displayed?
On EICAS
144
Which position of the ignition selector knob allows the FADEC to control the ignition system depending on engine requirements?
AUTO
145
Which thrust lever position provides the maximum thrust rating available for dual or single engine operation?
MAX
145
Which thrust lever position selects the takeoff and go-around thrust and mode settings?
TO/GA
146
What does pressing the EVENT MARKER button cause the ECU (FADEC) to do?
Records 2min before and 1 min after pressing the button
147
When is the OAT on the EICAS indication dis- played?
Up until the takeoff run
148
What are the thrust reversers used for and during what phase of flight?
Braking at landing and RTO only.
149
Is backing up the airplane with reverse thrust allowed?
No
150
Upon landing, when should the thrust reversers be stowed?
At 40kts
151
When are the thrust reversers available?
With WOW signal indicating that the plane is on ground and a wheel speed.
152
What icon on the EICAS indicates the current status of the thrust reverser?
REV icon
153
What color icon indicates that the thrust reversers are commanded and deployed?
Green REV
154
What color icon indicates that the thrust reversers are commanded and in transition?
Amber REV
155
Where is the IGNITION status displayed?
On EICAS
156
What does a green IGN indicate?
Igniters are commanded on
157
What icon on the EICAS indicates that the igniters are commanded to OFF?
IGN OFF- cyan
158
Where can the oil level be accurately read?
In the sight glass or Remote Oil Level Sensor
159
When can the oil level be accurately read?
5 to 30min after shutdown
160
Is the engine oil quantity indication visible with an engine running or in flight?
No
161
What is the maximum oil consumption rate of the
engine per hour?
0,04 quarts - 1 per 25h
162
List the three sources of air pressure that the Air Turbine Starter can use for an engine start.
APU, opposite engine or a ground air supply
163
What is the purpose of the Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System (ATTCS)?
To provide automatic thrust increase if ATTCS is armed and any of the following is true on takeoff or GA
-OEI detected (N2 difference greater than 15%)
Loss of engine cross-communication,
Windshear is detected,
Thrust lever is moved to MAX
164
When is the ATTCS function available?
When WAI is ON „ICE PROT mode knob in ALL”
165
Which takeoff ratings may be selected by the flight crew prior to takeoff?
Full rated mode (TO-1), one de-rated mode (TO-2)
166
List the engine power settings that may be selected by the flight crew.
MAX, TO/GA, CON, CLB, CRZ, Maximum reverse IDLE? MIN REV?
167
What are the starting and motoring limits?
5min or 3cycle - whichever occurs first. Later 15min of cool down prior next start or motoring
168
What are the starting duty cycle limits?
max 80 sec
169
How many consecutive starts are allowed before a cooling time of 15 minutes is required prior to additional starts or motoring?
3
170
Can the engine be started with an ITT above 450°C? If so, what must be accomplished prior to start?
Yes, dry motor for 30sec prior to start
171
When can HP thermal bow occur?If an engine restart is desired within that time period, what is the recommended procedure?
When eng start is initiated between 15 to 180min after shutdown. Dry motor prior to start for 15sec or until N2 reaches 23% (whichever first) After that procedure a normal start sequence
can be initiated any time after 3 and before 40min have elapsed.
172
How many hydraulic systems are there?
3
173
What nominal pressure do all three hydraulic systems operate at?
3000 PSI
174
What MFW page provides a visual representation of the hydraulic system operation and parameters?
HYDRAULIC synoptic page
175
What pressure is an amber tick mark placed at on the pressure indication for all three systems on the hydraulic synoptic page?
1800PSI
176
What color is the symbol for shutoff valves that are open, engine driven pumps that
are on and hydraulic flow lines that are pressurized?
Green
177
Will a failure of two hydraulic systems result in a complete loss of flight-critical functions?
No
178
What is hydraulic system 1 compromised of?
1 reservoir, 1 engine driven pump EDP1, 1 electrical DC motor pump DCMP1,
1 shutoff valve SOV1,
1 accumulator
179
When will the DCMP 1 be automatically commanded on with the HYD 1 ELEC PUMP knob in the AUTO position?
During TO and LAND phases
180
What is hydraulic system 2 compromised of?
1 reservoir, 1 EDP2,
1 SOV2, 1 accumulator
181
What is hydraulic system 3 compromised of?
1 reservoir, 1 DCMP3, 1 accumulator
182
Hydraulic system 3 is designed to operate in conjunction with what electrical system(s)?
Battery and RAT
183
What is the only source of hydraulic power for hydraulic system 3?
DCMP3
184
What is the source of electrical power for the electric DCMP3 (hydraulic system 3)?
EMER BUS 3
185
If the airplane loses HYD 1 and HYD 2, will the overheat protection system of HYD 3 still be functional?
No
186
What is the backup for hydraulic systems 1and 2?
The PTU
187
What is the primary function of the PTU?
To transfer power from hydraulic system 1 to system 2 or vice versa
188
When the PTU knob is in the AUTO position, when will the LGHCUs automatically activate the PTU?
At engine failure or EDP failure
189
What type of flight control system does the aircraft have?
Functionally distributed FBW
190
What are the two basic modes of operation for the flight control system?
Normal Mode NM and Direct Mode DM
191
When will the flight control system revert automatically to Direct Mode (DM) operation?
When can’t keep NM due to multiple system failures
192
Is flight under Direct Mode (DM) recommended? Why or why not?
No. Some protection functions are only available in NM
193
What happens when the AP/PTY button is momentarily pressed?
AP disengaged
194
What happens when the AP/PTY button is pressed for more than 1 second?
Exclusive control is given to the sidestick while pressed and priority annunciation is activated.
195
What happens when the AP/PTY button is pressed and held for more than 20 seconds?
The respective sidestick will have exclusive control latched
196
If one sidestick has been latched out, how can exclusive control be removed?
By pressing either side’s priority button
197
What happens if dual sidestick input occurs and
priority has not been requested by either pilot?
Tactile warning in both sidesticks is activated and an aural warning and PFD flag are triggered. The sidestick inputs are summed.
198
Is sidestick controller priority logic available in Direct Mode (DM)?
No
199
With the autopilot engaged, what does pressing the Touch Control Steering (TCS) button do?
Allows the pilot to manually control plane with autopilot engaged
200
During manual flight with flaps 3 or full, landing gear down, and the AP disengaged, what does pressing the Touch Control Steering (TCS) button do?
Reset the TCS trim speed bug
201
How can the multifunction spoilers be deployed for use as speed brakes?
By the SPEED BRAKE LEVER
202
What are the angles of multifunction spoilers that correspond with the speed brake positions?
0*- STOW TO 30* - FULL
203
When can the Pitch Trim Switch be manually commanded?
Only on the ground or in DM
204
Which button is used to recover Normal Mode (NM) or to revert to Direct Mode (DM) in the case of a Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior?
FLTCTRL NORMAL MODE button
205
When is a manual reversion to Direct Mode (DM) inhibited?
When following protection are engaged:
Low speed protection
AOA limiter
High speed protection
206
On the FLIGHT CONTROL synoptic page, what color actuator status indicates that the respective flight control surface is in the normal mode and at least one actuator is engaged?
Green
207
On the FLIGHT CONTROL synoptic page, what does a yellow actuator status indicate?
DM and at least one actuator is operational
208
When is the side slip target presented by a blue side slip-skid indicator?
During OEI at TO, climb and GA
209
Where is the Low Speed Awareness (LSA) band located? The Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs)?
LSA- Adjacent to the speed tape,
PLIs - on ADI
210
List the three LSA bands in Normal Mode (NM) and what they indicate:
Vss- top of the white tape- low speed protection
Vaoa- top of amber - AOA limiter function avtivation
Vlim- top of red- speed with max allowable AOA airspeed
211
Do the VSS and VAOA/VLIM indications behave the same in turns and other maneuvers? Why or why not?
No. Vss is in term of speed and Vaoa/Vlim are defined by AOA
212
Do VAOA and VLIM increase with load factor?
Yes
213
Is the AOA limiter function operational in Direct Mode (DM)?
No
214
List the two LSA bands in Direct Mode (DM) and what they represent:
Vms - top of amber -minimum speed in stall
Vsa- top of red tape -STALL aural alert is triggered
215
Are the Pitch Limit Indicators (PLIs) displayed in Direct Mode (DM)?
No
216
What color does the Pitch Limit Indicator become if the airspeed drops below VAOA in Normal Mode (NM)? How about VLIM?
Amber then red
217
How many Flight Control Computers (FCCs) are sufficient to provide Normal Mode (NM) functionality?
1
218
What is the purpose of the Black Airplane Battery?
To withstand operation of min 15minutes in order for crew to recover a proper plane electrical system
219
How long does each PBIT test of the FCS take?
Less than 1min
220
If the PBIT conditions are not satisfied, up to how many PBIT operation attempts can the FCS automatically perform?
Up to 3
221
During a PBIT operation, which CAS message is displayed?
FLTCTRL TEST IN PROG
222
When is the de-rotation control law active?
When the plane touches down
223
What does the de-rotation control law provide?
Smooths nose down movement by commanding the elevator to pitch nose down 2*/s
224
What does the neutral spiral stability control law provide?
Automatically trims the elevator when sidestick is set back to neutral position to maintain flight
level during turn up to 33*
225
If the pilot commands a turn with a bank angle of greater than 33°, what do they need to do in order to maintain level flight in that turn?
Maintain the desired sidestick lateral deflection and move the sidestick controller aft
226
List the 4 conditions that will cause the speed brakes to automatically stow:
Airspeed below 160KTS
TLA position is greater than 55*
Flap lever set to 3 or FULL
AOA limiter function engaged
227
If the speed brakes are automatically stowed, what indication will the pilots have and how can the speed brakes be reactivated?
SPDBRK LEVER DISAG - CAS message and SPEED BRAKE LEVER must be set back to STOW
228
Define a Flight Control Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior:
Any airplane behavior that the flight crew realize it is unexpected, not responding or presenting a lack or response
229
How is a manual reversion to Direct Mode (DM) available if the flight crew detects a Flight Control Normal Mode (NM) misbehavior?
Pressing the FLTCTRL N-MODE button
230
How is a reversion to Direct Mode (DM) indicated?
FLTCTRL N-MODE FAIL CAS message
231
What do the Flight Control Laws (CLAWS) provide?
Flight envelope protections to prevent the airplane from exceeding the flight limit envelope limitations.
232
What are the two flight envelopes for the airplane?
The normal flight envelope and the limit flight envelope
233
What are the limits of the normal flight envelope?
33* bank angle protection,
high speed (Vmo) protection
low energy avoidance (1.13 Vs) and pitch attitude protection
234
What are the limits of the high speed protection envelope?
Vmo+22kts
235
When does the pitch attitude protection activate?
At angle of 30* pitch up and
15* pitch down
236
What does the limit flight envelope require?
More pilot effort to maintain the plane in this configuration
237
What are the boundaries/hard limits of the limit flight envelope?
Limits are reached at full control application. The hard limits: max AOA, plane structural limits (load factor protection) max sideslip protection, dive speed protection.
No hard limits for pitch and bank angle
238
Is the AP operational in Direct Mode (DM)?
No
239
In Direct Mode (DM), how does the airplane behave?
Like convention airplane.
Sidestick and pedal deflection are directly related to the surface position
240
What systems make up the Automatic Flight Control System (AFCS)?
FD, AP and AT
241
Which panel hosts the controls for the AP, AT and FD, plus lateral and vertical reference/mode selection and course selection?
AFCS panel
242
What does pushing the FD button on the AFCS panel do?
Engages or disengages FD on both PDFs
243
What does pushing the AT button on the AFCS panel do?
Engage or disengage AT
244
What does the outer ring of the SPD knob allow the pilot to select?
Speed reference - MAN or FMS
245
What does pushing the HDG button on the AFCS panel do?
1 click- HDG mode , second time - ROLL mode
246
How can the heading bug be synchronized with the current airplane heading?
Pushing heading button (knob)
247
Pushing the BANK button on the AFCS will toggle between what bank angles?
+- 30* and +-15*
248
What is the up and down range of the FPA mode?
9,9*
249
How can the flight path angle / reference line be selected?
By rotating FPA knob
250
What does the outer knob on the ALT knob select? The inner knob?
Outer 1000ft(or100m).
Inner 100ft or 10m
251
What does pushing the SRC button do?
Alternates between PFD1 and PFD2 FMA modes as the source of AP
252
When the autopilot is engaged, what does pushing the TCS button on the sidestick do?
Activates TCS (AP override) as long as neither TO nor GA mode is active
253
Where are the AT/DISC buttons located? The TO/ GA buttons?
On the thrust lever
254
With the AP engaged, will the AP disengage if force is applied on the sidestick, either in the pitch or roll direction?
Yes
255
What are the two FD cues presented?
FD cue - magenta circle or TO crossbar
256
What does the green Flight Path Vector cue indicate?
Current flightpath in refence to horizon
257
Where is the Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) located, and what does it display?
Upper part of both PFDs. It shows annunciatons fot AT, AP, APPR, lateral and vertical modes
258
List the FMA color codes for normal operation.
FMS active/engaged - magenta nonFMS active/engaged - green
Armed - white,
Alert - amber
Abnormal - red
259
What does an amber LIM on the FMA indicate?
AT-speed, selected target cannot be achieved N1 limited
260
What are the two precision approach capabilities of the airplane?
APPR1 and APPR2
261
How can the autopilot aural alert be cancelled?
By pressing AP/PTY button on either sidestick
261
When is the autopilot aural alert triggered?
When AP is disengaged by pilot or by failure
262
When will the airplane automatically transition to the half bank mode?
When alt is grater than 25000ft
263
Prior to selecting the TO/GA button, what must be set in order to display the takeoff crossbar on the PFD?
Flaps 1 or 2, plane weight must be set and TO speeds must be sent in the FMS
264
What computed takeoff speed reference is set in TO mode?
V2+15kts - AEO.
If OEI below V2 speed reference will be set to V2
265
What altitudes are associated with the ILS approach check points to try to engage the highest system capability available?
1500ft RA and 800ft RA
266
What is Emergency Descent Mode (EDM)?
Function that automaticlly bring plane to safe alt in scenario of decompression and pilot incapacitation
267
When is EDM enabled?
AP ON and above 25000ft
268
When is EDM activated?
EDM - enabled and depressurization occurs red - CABIN ALTITUDE CAS message
269
If the Autopilot (AP) is engaged, what happens to the autothrottle (AT) when the airspeed is below the top of the LSA white bar?
AT will automatically be engaged
270
What happens to the Autopilot (AP) when the AOA limit function is activated?
It is disengage
271
What phases of flight is the autothrottle system approved to operate in?
All. TO, climb, cruise, descent, approach landing and during OEI
272
What is the purpose of the HOLD mode of the autothrottle?
To ensure that no undesirable thrust reduction are experienced during TO
273
When will the autothrottle (AT) HOLD mode be activated?
From 60kts during roll until 400ft AGL
274
What is the minimum autopilot engagement height?
400ft
275
What is the minimum autopilot use height with Vertical Path Reference?
80ft
276
What is the minimum autopilot use height without Vertical Path Reference?
180ft
277
When planning to land with the autothrottle engaged, what is the VREF additive and how much is the unfactored landing distance multiplied by?
5kts, 1.1
278
How many oxygen cylinders supply oxygen to both crew and passengers?
1
279
When will the passenger oxygen masks automatically deploy with the OXYGEN knob in PAX AUTO?
At cabin alt 14500 +- 300ft
280
What are the two capacities of oxygen bottles available?
77ft3 or 115ft3
281
Where are the oxygen system parameters and indications displayed?
STATUS synoptic page
282
What are the selections that can be toggled between on the MODE SELECTOR on the oxygen mask?
N, 100% and EMGCY
283
What position must the MODE SELECTOR be set to in order to stow the oxygen mask?
100%
284
What is the purpose of the OXYGEN SAVER PUSH-PULL BUTTON on the oxygen mask?
To allow the crew to breath cabin air when oxygen supply is not required
285
When must the OXYGEN SAVER PUSH-PULL BUTTON be manually pulled?
In case of fire or smoke
286
What does the oxygen pressure in green indicate?
Normal range of operation
287
What does the oxygen pressure in white indicate?
It is an advisory operating range and the Oxygen Dispatch Pressure charts must be references for the minimum to dispatch
288
How many smoke goggles are provided?
1 for each flight crew member
289
Can smoke or toxic fumes be purged from the smoke goggles? How?
Yes by the vent valve
290
The oxygen mask is designed to be donned within how many seconds?
5sec
291
Does the oxygen mask need to be removed from the stowage box to be tested?
No
292
How is the oxygen mask tested?
Knob to 100%, PRESS TO TEST AND RESET button on the LH door and PRESS TO TEST button on the regulator need to be simultaneously pressed for 1 sec
293
When must the Oxygen Cylinder Toggle switch not be set to ON?
below -15*C
294
What does pulling the LANDING GEAR FREE FALL LEVER do?
Relieves HYD pressure in the landing gear lines and mechanically releases the uplock hooks for all the landing gear
295
What does it mean when the LANDING GEAR POSITION INDICATIONS turn to red icons?
That more than 20sec passed since a discrepancy has been detected between landing gear leaver and actual landing gear possition
296
If the parking brake is not fully released on the ground, what CAS message will be displayed?
Either a white PARKING BRAKE ON CAS or cyan CHECK PARKING BRAKE CAS
297
If the parking brake is not fully released in flight, what CAS message will be displayed?
An amber PARK BRAKE NOT REL CAS message
298
Where can the emergency/park brake accumulator pressure and the brake temperature indications be seen?
STATUS synoptic page
299
How long can the light on the STEERING button and the STEERING DISC CAS message take to go off after the first engagement of the nose wheel steering?
Up to 2sec
300
Which steering switch has priority for safe operation on the ground?
The external STEERING DISENGAGE switch
301
When will the green TOWING ALLOWED light in the external steering panel illuminate?
When external STEERING DISENGAGE switch is in the DISENGAGE position and the parking brake is not applied
302
How far should the airplane be towed slowly in a straight line before turning?
3m
303
When should the DN LCK REL (down lock release) button be used?
Only when landing gear control lever failure or when necessary to clear obstacles
304
What type of brake system is on the aircraft?
Brake-by-wire
305
During normal operations, what does the Brake Control Unit (BCU) provide?
Locked wheel protection, anti-skid protection, gear retract braking, touch down protection, gear extension test, brake temperature monitor, autobrake
306
Where can the Brake Temperature Monitoring System (BTMS) information be found and what does it provide?
STATUS synoptic page, brake temperature, and brake overheat warning on EICAS
307
Where must the brake temperature indication be prior to takeoff?
Green range
308
What are the two different modes of AUTOBRAKE control?
Land mode (LO,MED, HI) and RTO
309
What kind of pressure will autobrake in the RTO mode apply?
Equivalent to max manual braking
310
When will autobrake applications begin on landing?
1sec after WOW indicates ground and thust lever signal at idle
311
Is antiskid protection available while braking with the emergency/parking brake?
No
312
What handle position is used when using the emergency/parking brake as a parking brake?
Pulled to full up possition and lock
313
Where can the emergency/parking brake handle be set to as a reference for emergency braking?
To the intermediate position (first detent)
314
How can the emergency / parking brake be modulated?
By keeping the release button pressed
315
How many full applications/how many hours of parking do the emergency/parking brake accumulators provide?
6 or 16
316
When the airplane is airborne, is the steering system engaged?
No
317
What is the maximum range that the nose wheel can turn in free wheel steering mode?
+-170*
318
List the steering angles and associated speed
with nose wheel steering engaged:
+-62* up to 10kts, decreases linearly to +-8* at 25kts and then
+-3* at 68kts
319
What airspeed is Vlo?
250kts - max langing gear operating speed
320
What airspeed is Vle?
250kts - max landing gear extention speed
321
When must AUTOBRAKE be set to OFF?
For emergency or abnormal procedures
322
List the items that use bleed air.
ECS,
engine start,
eng wing and horizontal stabilizer antiicing,
cargo heating system,
cabin door pressurized seal,
cabin pressure control system CPCS
323
When is the cabin temperature control transferred to the VIP seat panel?
When the detent C is selected on the
PAX CABIN TEMPERATURE CONTROL KNOB
324
In the event of a bleed leak detection, what light will illuminate in addition to an associated CAS message?
PACK, BLEED 1, BLEED2 or
BLEED APU amber light
325
When is the Outflow Valve (OFV) indication on the Environmental Control System (ECS) synoptic page displayed?
Only on the ground
326
What are the potential sources of bleed air that the Pneumatic System Controller (PSC) can automatically select from?
Engines, APU and external connection
327
Is it possible to have bleed from the APU and the engines simultaneously?
No
328
During normal operation on the ground and for taxiing, what is the primary source of bleed air?
APU
329
What is the primary source of bleed air in flight?
Engines
330
When will the bleed air source be automatically transitioned to the engines?
At TO run - TLAs higher than 50*
331
The XBSOV (cross bleed shut off valve) is automatically commanded to close for what conditions?
Bleed leakage,
overpressure,
engine fire,
or if failure condition is identified
332
Can an external ground connection be used to supply pressurized air for an engine start?
Yes
333
If an external pneumatic power source is being used and is not adjustable, what range should the pressure supply be in?
Between 31 and 60 PSI
334
When is fast cooling enabled on hot days?
When differences between cabin/cockpit set temp and cabin/cockpit zone temp is equal or
higher than 6*C
335
When is fast warming enabled on cold days?
When differences between cabin/cockpit set temp and cabin/cockpit zone temp is equal or
higher than 6*C
336
What happens to the recirculation fan during fast cooling and fast warming operations?
Automatically sets a higher speed
337
If the air conditioning pack fails what does the PSC automatically do?
It engages the pack backup operational mode and controls cabin and cockpit temp
338
What is ram air ventilation used for?
Non-pressurized flight or for smoke evacuation
339
When will the PSC command the emergency RAM air door to open?
In case of loss conditioning PAC and PACK backup system
340
How can the emergency RAM air door be manually commanded to open?
DUMP button on the PRESSURIZATION control panel
341
How is the Cargo Heating System operated?
Automatically by PSC
342
When is the main cabin door pressurized seal inflated?
After TO
343
How can the outflow valve be modulated?
Automatically or manually
344
What position are the Negative and Positive Pressure Relief Valves (NPRV and PRV) normally in?
Closed
345
What does pushing in the MODE selector button on the PRESSURIZATION panel allow for?
Manually control of the pressurization system through the CABIN ALT knob
346
What is the cabin altitude rate of change when moving the CABIN ALT knob UP or DN?
50ft/min steps
347
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed in the automatic mode of operation?
Cabin is depressured at constant rate of change 2000ft/min up to 12000ft and the emergency RAM air door opened
348
What happens when the DUMP button is pressed in the manual mode of operation?
The cabin rate of change will increase with the duration of the dump command, until either the coomand
is removed or the altitude limit function disables it when the cabin reach 14800 +-200ft. RAIM air door open.
349
What is the maximum differential pressure for a 6,000 ft cabin altitude? For a 5,800 ft cabin altitude?
9.64 psid.
9.73 psid
350
What is the maximum differential overpressure?
10,4psid
351
What is the maximum differential negative pressure?
-0,5psid
352
What is the maximum differential pressure for takeoff and landing?
0,2psid
353
What sub-systems does ice and rain protection include?
wing,stabilizer anti-ice, engine ice protection, ADSP/TAT heating system, windshield heating
and windshiel rain protection system
354
When may icing conditions exist?
When OAT on ground or TAT in flight in 10*C or below and visible moisture in any form is present
355
Where can performance data/limits for operations in icing conditions be found?
In performance section and/or OPERA
356
When may the ICE SPEED RESET position on the ICE PROTECTION MODE knob shall be selected?
Only if crew is certain that there is no ice on plane
357
What does the ICE SPEED RESET position on the ICE PROTECTION MODE do?
Resets stall protection (LSA bands) to non-icing condition setting and removes the STALL PROT ICE SPEED CAS message
358
When is the APU icon and associated flow line on the ICE PROTECTION synoptic page displayed?
Only on the ground
359
Can the APU bleed be used as a bleed source for ice protection?
No, except for gound tests.
360
How does the Engine Ice Protection System protect the engine air inlets from ice formation?
By entering hot air from the engines
361
How does the Wing and Stabilizer Anti-Ice System protect the wing and stabilizer leading edges from icing formation?
It uses hot air from the pneumatic system
362
How can the Wing and Horizontal Stabilizer Ice Protection Systems test be initiated?
By pressing the ice protection TEST button on the ICE PROT panel
363
How many ice detectors are on the airplane and where are they located?
Two on LH and RH side of the nose
364
How does the Windshield Heating System (WHS) protect the windshield from ice and fog formation?
Uses electrical power to heat the windshield
365
When may the WHS operate in a power savings mode?
If engine system is fed by single generator
366
Does WHS operate if the system is fed by battery power?
No
367
How are the ADSP/ TAT probes heated?
Electrically
368
Will the Anti-Ice system monitor icing conditions and automatically activate in all flight phases?
Yes
369
Whenever the XBLEED is closed and the right bleed is the only source available, the anti-ice system is?
Innoperative
370
What is the maximum operating altitude for anti- ice single bleed operation?
20000ft
371
List the 3 ICE PROTECTION MODE knob settings / temperatures for takeoff:
ENG - temp between 5 and 10*C
ALL - temp is lower than 5*C with visible moisture AUTO - for all other conditions
372
If the MODE knob is in ALL for takeoff, when will the white A-I WINGSTAB ARMBED (AMBER czy ARMED?) CAS message go to white A-I WINGSTAB ON?
When wheel speed is greater than 30kts
373
When the ICE PROT MODE knob is in the AUTO position and the ice detector recognizes the icing condition, at what point will the ice protection system be activated in flight?
When plane is above 1700AGL or 2 minutes is in the air whichever occurs first.
374
When will the wing and stabilizer anti-ice system automatically be turned off after the airplane leaves icing conditions?
After 2 minutes
375
Where are the antennas for VHF 1, VHF 2, and VHF 3 located respectively on the fuselage?
Top
bottom
top
376
What provides the flight crew with the interface to control the audio functions of all radio communication and navigation systems?
Audio Control Panel
377
What services can the optional VHF 3 provide?
Voice and data link capability like ACARS and CPDLC
378
If the TUNE knob on the RSP is in the NORM position, list some of the ways frequencies can be tuned:
Via the CCP, MKP or MFW TUNING window
379
What does the HF communication system provide?
Long range air-to-air, air-to-ground and ground-to-air communication
380
What is SELCAL used for?
It is ground-to-air calling system that relieves flight crew from heaving to continously monitor the VHF na HF communication
381
Where is the ramp audio jack located?
On the lower LH portion of the forward fuselage. It is part of STEERING DESENGAGE/RAMP INTERPHONE panel
382
Where does left MKP tuning enter frequencies into?
#1 radios (NAV and COM)
383
Where does right MKP tuning enter frequencies into?
#2 radios (NAV and COM)
384
What does pushing the microphone select button on the Audio Control Panel (ACP) do?
Selects the microphone audio and makes the slection the active transmitter
385
What does the HDPH knob on the ACP do? The SPKR knob?
Controls headphone volume.
Controls the selection of the speaker on/off and the volume for the flight deck
386
Can the volume of the aural voice and tone warnings to the speaker be adjusted by the SPKR knob on the ACP?
No
387
What does the BOOM/AUTO/MASK knob on the ACP in the AUTO position allow for?
The oxygen mask microphone to be automatically selected when the oxygen mask is donned and switches back to boom when the oxygen mask is properly stowed
388
What does the VOX knob on the ACP do?
Provides on/off and sensitivity control for the voice-activated interphone
389
What does the ST knob on the ACP do?
Controls the sidetone volume in the selected radio
390
What does pushing the AUDIO BACKUP button on the AUDIO JACK PANEL do?
It recovers the use of the onside radio when full ACP funcionality is not available.
391
What does pushing the AURAL MUTE button on the AUDIO JACK PANEL do?
It inhibits the aural alerts on the respective side
and display the cyan AVNX AURAL WARN 1(2) OFF CAS message
392
Where are the PTT buttons located at for each pilot?
One on the CCP,
One on the sidestick
One 3-way position slide switch on the glareshiedl panel
393
What are the switch positions for the TUNE knob on the RSP?
COM1(2) 121,5 , NORM, L(R) MKP ONLY
394
If MKP ONLY is selected without a display tuning (RTSA) failure, what message will be displayed over the tuning window?
LEFT/RIGHT SIDE DISPLAY TUNING INHIBITED
395
If the crew receives a new ACARS message, how will they be alerted?
By cyan ACARS MESSAGE CAS
396
Can you rely on ADF indications on the PFD while transmitting in HF?
No
397
How many CPDLC message may be stored?
Up to 75 messages until the end of the flight
398
What selection needs to be activated on the COM 3 control page prior to using CPDLC?
DATA mode selection
399
How will a pilot be notified that an uplink (CPDLC) message has arrived?
CPDLC MESSAGE CAS message will be displayed and MESSAGE ATC aural annunciation will sound
400
Does an ATC message received have priority over an ACARS message received?
Yes
401
What is the usage of ATN- CPDLC restricted to?
Supplementary means of communications for non-time critical messages
402
What phase of flight is the usage of ATN – CPDLC restricted to?
Cruise above FL200 and for non-critical messaging
403
What color is the active target speed bug and the active target speed indication when MAN is set on the SPD knob on the AFCS panel? When FMS is set on the SPD knob?
Cyan/magenta
404
The Vmax is computed as the lesser of what speeds?
Vmo, Mmo, Vle, Vfe
405
What symbol/bug indicates the speed in which the flaps can be retracted with a safe margin?
Magenta F bug
406
The tip of the airspeed trend vector points to the projected airspeed/Mach in approximately what timeframe at the present rate of acceleration/ deceleration?
10 sec
407
What symbol/bug indicates the speed in which the airplane is trimmed for when in the landing phase?
TCS trim bug - a green triangle
408
Which speeds are displayed for takeoff?
V1, Vr, V2(safety speed), Vfs(final takeoff)
409
When are the takeoff speeds automatically deselected?
When plane is above 1500ft AGL and the current airspeed is greater than the highest Vspeed +40kts
410
Which speeds are displayed for approach and landing?
Vfs(final takeoff),
Vac(app climb),
Vapp(app speed),
Vref (app with land config)
411
What does the flap selection speed bug (green dot) indicate?
The speed in which the flaps can be extended
412
In Normal Mode (NM) what colors are the LSA bands and what do they indicate?
White - Vss - stability speed
amber - airspeed when AOA limiter activates
Red - speed for max allowable AOA
413
In Direct Mode (DM), what colors are the LSA bands and what do they indicate?
Yellow and red - STALL aural alert
is triggered. For DM AOA limiter is INOP
414
The altitude trend vector is computed to predict the altitude the airplane will achieve in how many seconds (assuming a constant vertical speed)?
10 sec
415
Where are ADS messages (i.e. BOTH ON ADS 1/2/3) presented to the pilot and in what color?
Upper right corner of the PFD AMBER
416
When an ADS reversion occurs in the SFIS(STBY), how will the pilot know that an alternate source has been selected?
An ADSREV flag is present
417
What type of guidance will be provided to the pilots to aid in the recovery of an unusual attitude?
Red unusual attitide chevrons are displeyed and they always point towards the horizon line
418
Where are AHRS messages (i.e.BOTH ON AHRS 1/2) presented to the pilot and in what color?
AMBER on the upper right PFD corner
419
What is the Display Control Panel (DCP) used for?
To select PFD formats, overlays, navigation source, and range on the display
420
What does pushing the CVS button on the DCP do?
Allows the synthetic vision to be put on or taken off the PFD instead of the traditional blue and brown background
421
What does pushing the FPV CAGE button on the DCP do?
Centers FPV on the PFD when selected. It is only enabled when CVS is active
422
What does pushing the ET button do?
Starts (first push) stop(second push)
removes (third push) a timer that is visible on the upper right side of the HSI
423
What does pushing the TCAS button on the DCP do?
Places trafiic overlays info on the HSI map
424
What does the WX button do?
Places weather overlays info on the HSI map
425
What does the RANGE/TILT knob allow the crew to do?
Outer - adjusts the range
Inner - adjusts the tilt of weather radar
426
What does pushing the HSI format button do?
Toggles between: clean (no background),
compass (a range ring with TCAS nad WX overlays possible), map (FMS flight plan info shown)
427
What does pushing the FMS button do?
Selects FMS as the primary NAV source
428
What does pushing the V/L button do?
Changes the primary NAV source to VOR or LOC - based on freq tuned
429
What is the Reversionary Switch Panel used for?
A manual reversion of display and sensors (ADS and AHRS) in the event of malfunction and alternative
means of tuning
430
How can the display brightness of the DUs be adjusted?
By OFF/BRT control knobs on RSP
431
If the pilot turns off the CTR DU, what will happen to the EICAS?
EICAS will be reverted to the both window LH and RH DUs
432
What does pushing the EICAS button on the RSP do?
It reverts the EICAS window to the LH and RH DUs
433
What does the ATT HDG button on the RSP do?
Manually changes the AHRS source of the PFD
434
What does pushing the ADS button on the RSP do?
Manually changes the ADS source of the PFD
435
How can the pilots interface with the avionics systems?
Via Multifunction Keyboard Panel (MKP) and Cursor Control Panel (CCP)
436
What is the CNCL button on the MKP used for?
To cancel an in-process flight plan edit
437
What does pushing the FMS button on the MKP do?
Displays FMS format on the on-side MFW of the LWR DU
438
What does pushing the ROUTE button on the MKP do?
Displayes the route window on the on-side MFW of the LWR DU
439
What does pushing the MSG button on the MKP do?
It shows or remove the FMS message dialog box on the MFW
440
What does pushing the DEP/ARR button do?
On the ground it shows departure dialog box in the flight the arrival dialog box
441
What does pushing the DIRECT TO button on the MKP do?
It brings up a direct-to dialog box which is used to edit the flight plan
442
What is the SCRATCHPAD?
It is 24 character display used to temporarily hold keystrokes before being entered into a display entry field
443
What does pushing the EXEC button on the MKP do?
It executes a modified flight plan making in the active flight plan
444
When does the green light bar above the EXEC button illuminate?
When there is modified flight plan
445
What does the MEM button on the MKP provide?
The ability to memorize formats and to recall memorized DU formats
446
What function does the CLR/DEL button perform?
When there is data in the scratchpad it backspaces or clears the entire scratchpad and when there is no data in the scratchpad it enters the word DELETE into the scratchpad
447
How can the scratchpad text be entered into the selected display entry field?
By pressing ENTER button
448
What does pushing the NAV button on the MKP do?
It takes the number entered into scratchpad and places it into the NAV if it fits the range of freq
449
What does pushing the COM button on the MKP do?
It takes the number entered into scratchpad and places it into the COM if it fits the range of freq
450
What do the arrows on the CCP do?
Provide an alternate to the CCP trackball for positioning the cursor on the DUs
451
What does the CKLST button on the MKP display?
List of available checklists
452
What does the SYS button on the MKP display?
The synoptic page
453
What synoptic pages are available to select?
STATUS, FLIGHT CONTROLS, ECS, FUEL, ELECTRICAL, HYDRAULICS, ANTI-ICE, MISC
454
What does the CHART button do?
Displays the chart format on the on-side MFW of the lower DU during normal operation
455
How can the cursor be maneuvered?
Via trackball on the CCP
456
What can the PAGE/DATA/PUSH ENTER double stack knob on the CCP be used for?
To scroll list contents, position the data entry cursor
or change the value of varius display item or selection boxes
457
What does pushing the MENU button on the CCP do?
It brings the display menu into view on the display window where the cursor is currently
located and position it on the first menu item
458
How many ADSPs and TATs probes are mounted on the forward fuselage?
4 and 2
459
For normal operations, which ADS provides information for the left seat pilot PFD? The right seat pilot PFD? The SFIS?
ADS1, ADS2, ADS4
460
In the event of an electrical emergency, what will provide electrical power? Which DU is available? And which ADS is available?
RAT, CTR DU, ADS3
461
What does the SFIS provide?
A third independent source of attitude angles, attitudes rates, accelerations, heading, and vertical speed for flight guidance and navigation when primary information isn’t available
462
How can the menu on the SFIS be accessed?
By M labeled menu button on the SFIS bezel
463
What are the buttons to the left and right of the M button on the SFIS bezel used for?
To skip over options - they are labeled UP and DOWN in the entry menu context
464
When is the SFIS full screen menu available?
Only on the ground
465
What is the ECL?
Electronic Checklist which permits automation of the checklist’s item and cen be used at any phase of flight
466
What selections are available in the dropdown menu of the CHECKLIST window (ECL)?
INDEX, QUEUE, FCN
467
How many AHRS units are there and what are they used for?
3: AHRS1 is for the left seat pilot PFD AHRS2 for right pilot
AHRS3 is used exclusively by the flight controls system
468
When will the ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI flag be displayed? For how long?
During AHRS attitude and heading alignment. Up to 10min
469
Which FMS pages may GPS control and indications be seen?
FMS INIT and FMS sensors pages
470
How can the expanded menus for NAV or ADF be selected on the TUNING page?
By selecting the NAV1, NAV2, ADF1, ADF2 gray button
471
Where can an advanced menu of ATC/TCAS selections be found?
By selecting the grey XPNDR/TCAS button on the TUNING page
472
Where is the weather radar control window accessed?
Via the WX button on the DCP
473
When is the weather radar tilt and gain automatically adjusted to provide an optimum weather picture?
When multiscan or AUTO mode is selected
474
What is the coverage range of the radar and what does it provide?
Up to 320NM for precipitation-related weather and up to 40NM for precipitation-related turbulance. It provides ground mapping coverage enabling the detection of major geographical features such as cities, lakes, and coastlines.
475
What does the Lightning Detection System provide and up to what range?
Alerts the crew to the presence of thunderstorm activity by mapping the lightning surrounding the plane 200NM
476
What type of navigation does the FMS provide?
Lateral and vertical for en-route terminal, non-precision approaches, LNAV/VNAV
and LPV approaches, and coupled lateral and vertical navigation capability with an automatic transition to ILS approaches
477
Who is responsible for keeping the FMS database updated and for the accuracy of the waypoints used in the FMS?
Operator
478
Where can the navigation and airplane database validation check be accomplished in the FMS?
On the FMS INIT of the FMS DB format page
479
What do the colors of the FMS navigation database symbolize?
Curent selected nav database is displayed in GREEN Second nav database effective date shows in WHITE expired database is shown in YELLOW
480
Which DUs can the FMS be displayed on and under which screen format size?
FMS format page can be accessed on any DUs under half screen format
481
What are the various FMS format pages that can be selected?
INIT,
FPLN SETUP,
WT & BAL,
TAKEOFF(TOLD) LANDING (TOLD), FLT LOG,
FUEL MGMT,
SENSORS,
FMS DB,
DEFAULTS
482
How can the various FMS format pages be accessed?
Through the CCP MENU button or the M on the top left corner ro the MFW and use the dropdown menu to select the FMS under a half screen format
483
On the TAKEOFF page, what needs to be set to enable the SEND button for FMS takeoff speeds?
OAT, P ALT and RWY LENGHT
484
If the crew loads inoperative NAVAID identifiers to inhibit them from FMS navigation, when will that list be reset?
Upon an FMS cold start
485
The FMS can hold multiple flight plans. What are they called?
ACT FPLN- active
SEC FPLN - secondary
MOD FPLN - modified
486
What is the difference between an ACT FPLN and a MOD FPLN?
Active flight plans that are being edited are called modified flight plans and can be executed to become an active flight plan
487
What does the ROUTE format allow for?
It enables creation, control and viewing of the FMS legs according to the flight plan
488
The FMS sets the lateral deviation sensitivity based on what?
the RNP value from the navigation database
489
What does synthetic vision provide?
A perspective view of the outside world displayed on the PFD and it creates a computerized synthetic image of the external scene topography from the perspective of the flight deck
490
May synthetic vision be used as a primary navigation source?
No
491
Does the FMS provide OEI speeds and driftdown altitude?
No
492
The SPD knob must be set to what prior to take-off?
MAN
493
May the Required Time of Arrival (RTA) information be used to ensure compliance with ATC clearances or restrictions?
No, the pilots must use other means to ensure compliance
494
What needs to be set in order to check the brake wear indicator pins on the landing gear?
PARK BRAKE lever
495
List the 5 pins with “remove before flight flags.”
Nose gear Ground Locking Pin
Right and left gear ground locking pic, Emergency door locking pin,
RAT safety lock pin
496
How many vortex generators are located on each wing?
21
497
How many static wicks are on the aircraft?
17 total
498
What publication can be referred to for dispatch with missing static wicks?
The configuration Deviation List - AFM supplemnt
499
Where is the green Oxygen Discharge Indicator disc located?
RH aft fuselage near ground service panel
500
What is the Maximum Ramp Weight (MRW)?
19500kg
501
What is the Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW)?
19440kg
502
What is the Maximum Landing Weight (MLW)?
17000kg
503
What is the Maximum Zero Fuel Weight (MZFW)?
13000kg
504
How are the airplane forward and aft CG limits referred to?
In terms of % MAC
505
What FMS page provides a means to load and dispatch the airplane within CG limits?
WT & BAL page
506
What two sections is the FMS WT & BAL page divided into?
Aircraft Loading and Operating Empty Weight
507
If any field on the FMS WT & BAL page is out of limits for the calculations, what color will it display?
YELLOW font
508
What items do the entry data on the AIRCRAFT LOADING page include?
Average passenger weight, number of passengers in zone, baggage weight and taxi fuel
509
When is the AVG PAX WT used?
Only if number of passengers is entered into each zone
510
What shows the current weight of the aircraft?
GWT - Gross Weight
511
When is the ENROUTE FUEL entry displayed?
After the flight plan is entered
512
When does the CONFIRM button on the AIRCRAFT LOADING page become available?
Every time the ZFW is change due to loading changes or fuel quantity changes of more than 500lb(227kg) from the previously confirmed
513
What is Vfs?
Final segment climb speed
514
What is the Approved Performance Software that is certified to provide takeoff, landing and enroute approved performance data?
OPERA
515
What is the maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing?
35kt crosswind limitation for takeoff
25 - demonstrated crosswind
20 - contaminated / compacted snow
15- wet ice
516
What technique should be used for crosswind landings?
The de-crab technique
517
What is the initial pitch angle for takeoff with the flap 1 position?
12*
518
What load factors are published im the Maneuver Capability Altitude charts?
Various From 1.2G up to 1.5G
519
Describe the descent schedule that is used for planning:
A descent at M0.78 then 300KIAS to FL100 then deceleration to 250KIAS DOWN TO SEA LEVEL
520
What speeds are holding tables presented for?
Minimum drag speed and 200KIAS
521
An aircraft climbing with a constant speed:
Can exceed the Maximum Operating Mach number and experience high speed buffeting.
522
An accelerated stall occurs because:
The high rate of change in the AOA increases the g-load stall speed.
523
If a multi-engined aircraft experiences as engine failure, the most effective flight control is:
The rudder with deflection toward the operative engine.
524
The aircraft suddenly pitches to a nose low attitude. Your first action as PF should be to:
Disconnect the AP/ AT, pitch down to recover from stall If required and roll wings level
525
Physiological clues that may exist within an UPSET include:
Startle Factor, adrenaline and fear.
526
You are PM and have noticed that the aircraft is nose high with speed falling. You should:
Announce „Nose high” monitor recovery actions and announce any continued divergences.
527
The three main categories of factors that can contribute to an UPSET are:
Mechanical, Environment and Pilot Induced.
528
What should you do if your aircraft is approaching the stall and no additional power is available?
Reduce AOA
529
Which of the following is considered an UPSET?
Windshear encounter with stick shake and speed loss.
530
You are PM and in the terminal area when a change in runway is declared. To repoprogram the FMS you would:
Reprogram according to the highest priority whilst monitoring the aircraft flight-path.
531
The speed range between the low speed stall and high speed buffet:
Decreases during a climb.
532
An aircraft will always stall:
When the Critical AOA is exceeded.
533
A constant gradient of climb:
Requires increasing pitch that may exceed the Critical AOA and lead to stall.
534
An UPSET is defined as flight at an inappropriate airspeed, or the unintentional exceedance of:
25*pitch up, 10* pitch down or 45* bank
535
If your aircraft appears to be low and fast you should:
Pitch up and adjust thrust as needed to menage total energy.
536
Which of the following is an example of how good Human Factors/CRM can help prevent an UPSET?
Prioritizing task to reduce the workload during a system malfunction.
537
The loss of an ice warning system in icing conditions will:
Require more vigilance to observe ice buildup.
538
Applying rudder in one direction and then suddenly reversing it could:
Crate side-loads that could cause structural damage.
539
The loss of flaps on approach will lead to an increased Pitch Attitude and:
Move you closer to the Critical AOA.
540
What human factor may have led to the UPSET:
Dismissing aural stall warnings, Focusing on individual tasks, Unsatisfactory crew communications.
541
A wing experiencing 0g’s will stall based on which of the following?
It won’t stall at any speed.
542
How could your attempt to prevent a situation like this from occurring?
Comply with SOPs using standard call-outs.
543
You are flying at FL350. The indicated airspeed decays rapidly and the stick shaker activates. As the PF what should you do first:
Disconnect AP and AT, apply nose down and pitch trim if needed.
