EM3 M4 Flashcards

1
Q

hypertensive emergency aka aka
define
9 examples

A

hypertensive emergency aka malignant hypertension aka hypertensive crisis

defined as hypertension with end-organ damage
eg hypertensive encephalopathy, intracerebral hemorrhage, hypertensive retinopathy, heart failure and pulmonary edema, acute coronary syndrome, acute renal failure, aortic dissection, eclampsia

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2
Q

5 ocular signs of hypertension

A

5 ocular signs of hypertension

  • arterio-venous nicking
  • linear or flame-shaped hemorrhages and cotton wool patches (infarction of nerve layer from arteriolar occlusion)
  • copper or silver arteriole discoloration from sclerotic changes
  • lipid (hard) exudates from htn permeability changes
  • optic disc edema from infarction of optic disk is hallmark of malignant hypertension
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3
Q

treat htn in aortic dissection

sublingual nifedipine?

A

propanolol (bb) and nitroprusside (vasodilator)
with SBP goal 120, or if htn emergency goal 20-25% reduction in 30-60 minutes, or if htn urgency goal reduce over hours to days

NOT sublingual nifedipine – dangerous overshoot BP reduction

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4
Q

selectiveness of labetalol propranolol metoprolol atenolol esmolol
which has elimination half life of minutes

A

labetolol - nonselective beta also alpha blocking
propanolol - nonselective beta block
metoprolol atenolol esmolol - beta 1 selective
esmolol has elimination half-life of minutes

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5
Q

treat htn from pheochromocytoma with ___ not ___
why
alternatives

A

treat htn from pheochromocytoma with Alpha blockade NOT beta blockade… contraindicated till after alpha blockade to avoid paradoxical increase in blood pressure due to antagonism of skeletal muscle vasodilation

nitroprusside CCBs ACEIs alternatives to alpha blockade

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6
Q

what is the goal for malignant htn after reducing SBP 25-30% in the first hour

A

SBP reduction 25-30% in first 30-60min

then 160/100 in 2-6 hours of treatment

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7
Q

preferred initial agent for treating hypertensive emergency

A

esmolol IV

100-500 mic/kg load

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8
Q

TF
shingles can present after mechanical trauma
treat in ED

A

T
shingles can present after mechanical trauma
discharge home with analgesics and acyclovir

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9
Q

etiology of stasis dermatitis

A

impaired oxygen delivery to skin and subcutaneous tissue… gradual and chronic

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10
Q

Smallpox incubation period __ weeks.
__ day prodromal phase characterized by ____.
temperature subsides over __ days.
____ precedes skin rash by a day.
Skin rash begins as ____ which become ____ then ____ then ____ then ____ over the course of ____.
lesions occur first ____ then spread to ____.
Distribution is ___ and lesions are all at ____ stage of development.
Death from smallpox is from ____

A

Smallpox incubation period 1.5-2 weeks.
2-3 day prodromal phase characterized by fever headache backache.
temperature subsides over 2-3 days.
Enanthem over tongue mouth and oropharynx precedes skin rash by a day.
Skin rash begins as small reddish Macule which become Papules then Vesicles then Pustules then Umbilication and Crusting over the course of ~2 weeks.
lesions occur first on Face and Extremities then spread to Cover the Body.
Distribution is Peripheral and Centrifugal and lesions are all at The Same stage of development.
Death from smallpox is from Toxemia from immune complex deposition and HypOtension.

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11
Q

Diagnosis:
incubation period 1.5-2 weeks.
2-3 day prodromal phase characterized by fever headache backache.
temperature subsides over 2-3 days.
Enanthem over tongue mouth and oropharynx precedes skin rash by a day.
Skin rash begins as small reddish Macule which become Papules then Vesicles then Pustules then Umbilication and Crusting over the course of ~2 weeks.
lesions occur first on Face and Extremities then spread to Cover the Body.
Distribution is Peripheral and Centrifugal and lesions are all at The Same stage of development.
Death is from Toxemia from immune complex deposition and HypOtension.

A

Smallpox
incubation period 1.5-2 weeks.
2-3 day prodromal phase characterized by fever headache backache.
temperature subsides over 2-3 days.
Enanthem over tongue mouth and oropharynx precedes skin rash by a day.
Skin rash begins as small reddish Macule which become Papules then Vesicles then Pustules then Umbilication and Crusting over the course of ~2 weeks.
lesions occur first on Face and Extremities then spread to Cover the Body.
Distribution is Peripheral and Centrifugal and lesions are all at The Same stage of development.
Death from smallpox is from Toxemia from immune complex deposition and HypOtension.

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12
Q

Erythema Multiforme exists on a spectrum with ___ and ___ and causes include…. such as…

A

Erythema Multiform/Stevens-Johnson/Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis exist on a spectrum

causes include drugs (sulfa antibiotics, penicillins, barbiturates), viral or mycoplasma infections, recent immunization

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13
Q

treat cellulitis vs recurrent cellulitis in diabetic

A

cellulitis - cover GPCs staph and strep… penicillinase-resistant penicillins (dicloxacillin nafcillin oxacillin)… or 1st generation cephalosporins (cephalexin cefazolin)

recurrent cellulitis in diabetic- cover GPCs and GNRs… broader spectrum… Unsayn (Ampicillin-Sulbactam)

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14
Q

when (ages) is seborrheic dermatitis common vs uncommon

treat seborrheic dermititis
topical steroids?

A

common in infants and elderly
uncommon between infancy and puberty

treat with anti-dandruff shampoo
NOT steroids

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15
Q

what rash is associated with an anterior and posterior thorax Christmas-tree pattern distribution

A

pityriasis rosacea

is associated with an anterior and posterior thorax Christmas-tree pattern rash distribution

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16
Q
what color under Woods Lamp UV light?
erythrasma
tinea versicolor
pseudomonas
porphyria cutanea
A
what color under Woods Lamp UV light?
erythrasma - red/pink
tinea versicolor - green/yellow
pseudomonas - yellow/green
porphyria cutanea - urine orange/yellow
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17
Q

to achieve large differences in potency of topical steroid, is it more effective to switch agents or vary the dose of the same agent?

A

it is more effective to switch agents to achieve large differences in potency of topical steroid… changing dose does not affect potency much

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18
Q

how is potency of topical steroid measured

A

potency of topical steroid is measured by the ability to induce vasoconstriction

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19
Q

why are interrupted application schedules of topical steroid use preferred

A

because tachyphylaxis (vasoconstriction in response to corticosteroid use decreases over time), so on 2 weeks off 1 week preferred

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20
Q

____ steroids are to be avoided in pregnant women

A

Fluorinated steroids are to be avoided in pregnant women

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21
Q

is topical Hydrocortisone preferred for thick or thin skin?

A

topical Hydrocortisone preferred for Thin skin… relatively low potency steroid

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22
Q

Treat diffuse pruritus of most of the body
First gen second gen antihistamine?
Topical PO IV?
Anything else?

A

First gen ok second gen antihistamine lower dose frequency requirement and less sedation but more costly

PO ok can also do IV if necessary, not topical becuase can overdose when spreading over large area hard to estimate total dosing

Baths and soaks too

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23
Q

____ are white in color, greasy in texture and can be applied to any body surface area. These characteristics make them the most versatile vehicle. ____ are for acute use only; chronic use leads to drying of the skin. ____ are composed of greases such as petroleum jelly with little water added. ____ can help lubricate skin lesions that are particularly dry. ____ are greaseless mixtures of propylene glycol with water and may or may not contain alcohol. ____ are drying and are best for exudative lesions such as poison ivy but will cause discomfort in denuded areas. ____ are used for dry scaly conditions.

A

Creams are white in color, greasy in texture and can be applied to any body surface area. These characteristics make them the most versatile vehicle. Creams are for acute use only; chronic use leads to drying of the skin. Ointments are composed of greases such as petroleum jelly with little water added. Ointments can help lubricate skin lesions that are particularly dry. Gels are greaseless mixtures of propylene glycol with water and may or may not contain alcohol. Alcohol-containing gels are drying and are best for exudative lesions such as poison ivy but will cause discomfort in denuded areas. Alcohol-free gels are used for dry scaly conditions.

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24
Q

Tzanck preparation can identify the ____ but cannot distinguish among them

A

Tzanck preparation can identify the herpes viruses but cannot distinguish among them

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25
Q

What is the mortality rate of eczema herpeticum

What is the presentation and diagnosis of eczema herpeticum

A

10% mortality with eczema herpeticum (eczema with positive tzank smear for a herpes virus HSV OR VZV)… constitutional symptoms, adenopathy in addition to rash… — so consult dermatology immediately

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26
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever
Prodrome of ___ ___ ___
Symtpoms of ___ ___ ___ and rash that is ____ begins ____ and spreads to ____ within __ to __ hours
Caused by ____
95% of patients develop symptoms between ___ and ___ dates
A skin biopsy shows ____

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever
Prodrome of fever chills anorexia
Symtpoms of headache photophobia myalgias and rash that is non-blanching papular, begins wrists forearms ankles and spreads centripitally up legs and arms to trunk neck face within 6 to 18 hours
Caused by Rickettsia Rickettsi
95% of patients develop symptoms between April 1st and September 30th dates
A skin biopsy shows necrotizing vasculitis

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27
Q

Scabies
Treatment is ____. Often this condition occurs in young adults by ____ or in the elderly ____ population. The organism involved does not penetrate the ____ for it relies on ____ for survival. ____ therapy may be needed if ____ develops, suggested by ____. The parasite is a ____ known as ____.

A

Scabies
Treatment is permethrin 5% cream applied to skin for 8-12 hours. Often this condition occurs in young adults by sexual contact or in the elderly hospitalized population. The organism involved does not penetrate the dermis for it relies on oxygen for survival. Antibiotic therapy may be needed if bacterial superinfection develops, suggested by surrounding erythema. The parasite is a mite known as Sarcopetes scabii.

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28
Q

Poison ivy/oak is classified as a ____. Although the rash can be expected to resolve on its own (i.e. without medical intervention) in ___ weeks, relief can be facilitated with ____ therapy and/or ____ treatment. The bullae can be drained for ____ purposes, but the tops should not be removed to avoid risk for ____. This condition is due to exposure to ____, which may remain on ____ until it is ____. The allergen ____ present in the bullae of vesicles and so, after the initial washing of the involved site, contact with the rash ____ cause it to spread.

A

Poison ivy/oak is classified as a allergic contact dermatitis, a type-IV hypersensitivity reaction. Although the rash can be expected to resolve on its own (i.e. without medical intervention) in 1-2 weeks, relief can be facilitated with antihistamine therapy and/or oral steroid treatment. The bullae can be drained for cosmetic purposes, but the tops should not be removed to avoid risk for bacterial superinfection. This condition is due to exposure to allergenic plant oleresins, which may remain on the clothing that the patient was wearing at the time of contact until it is washed. The allergen is not present in the bullae of vesicles and so, after the initial washing of the involved site, contact with the rash does not cause it to spread.

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29
Q

____ can cause periodic muscle paralysis and areflexia. ____ can cause tetany and weakness. Low ____ levels can contribute to myocardial dysfunction, CNS symptoms, muscle weakness and bleeding disorders. ____ can cause a clouded sensorium and other neurological deficiencies. Chronic ____ deficiency leads to dermatologic consequences,
including patches and plaques of dry, scaly, sharply marginated and brightly red eczematous dermatitis evolving into vesiculobullous, pustular, erosive, and crusted lesions that initially involve the ____ and ____ areas. Progression can involve the scalp, hands, feet, trunk and flexural regions. There may be diffuse alopecia and graying of remaining hair. Nail manifestations may include ____ or ____. A ____ tongue is common, and the oropharynx may reveal ____. Patients with ____ deficiency tend to be photophobic, irritable, and depressed. Treatment of deficiency consists of ____ for ___ weeks.

A

Hypokalemia can cause periodic muscle paralysis and areflexia. Hypocalcemia can cause tetany and weakness. Low phosphorus levels can contribute to myocardial dysfunction, CNS symptoms, muscle weakness and bleeding disorders. Hypomagnesemia can cause a clouded sensorium and other neurological deficiencies. Chronic zinc deficiency leads to the dermatologic consequences including patches and plaques of dry, scaly, sharply marginated and brightly red eczematous dermatitis evolving into vesiculobullous, pustular, erosive, and crusted lesions that initially involve the perioral and anogenital areas. Progression can involve the scalp, hands, feet, trunk and flexural regions. There may be diffuse alopecia and graying of remaining hair. Nail manifestations may include loss of nails or paronychia. A red, glossy tongue is common, and the oropharynx may reveal aphthous-like ulcers. Patients with zinc deficiency tend to be photophobic, irritable, and depressed. Treatment of zinc deficiency consists of dietary or intravenous zinc salt supplementation for 2-3 weeks.

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30
Q

Name 4 skin conditions that cvan be associated with malignancy

A

Erythema nodosun
Acanthosis nogracans
Dermatomyositis
Pruritis

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31
Q

Dermatological anthrax may occur wherever ____. Antibiotics ____ affect the course of local disease. Characteristic lesion is a ____ preceded by a ____ 1 week prior. The organism most likely to cause dermatological anthrax is ____. Mortality rates are ____ than for pulmonary anthrax. Diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax is usually made ____ often after determining ____ while taking the history. In the future, ____ may become widely available and useful to make definitive diagnoses. Treatment for cutaneous anthrax is aimed at preventing the ____ which is complicated by a significantly higher mortality.

A

Dermatological anthrax may occur wherever slores contact skin. Antibiotics do not affect the course of local disease. Characteristic lesion is a black eschar preceded by a vesiculopapular lesion 1 week prior. The organism most likely to cause dermatological anthrax is bacillus anthrasis. Mortality rates are over 20-30% lower than for pulmonary anthrax. Diagnosis of cutaneous anthrax is usually made on a clinical basis, often after determining patient exposure while taking the history. In the future, PCR methods may become widely available and useful to make definitive diagnoses. Treatment for cutaneous anthrax is aimed at preventing the dissemination of a disease which is complicated by a significantly higher mortality.

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32
Q

Regarding urticaria
Association with malignancy ____ strong enough to investigate for possible cancer when urticaria of unknown origin exists. ____ are the most common offenders. Nonimmunological urticaria may be caused by ____. Drug-induced urticaria may be ____ or ____. Precipitants of urticaria include…… Drug-induced urticaria ____ represent anaphylaxis or indicate its impending development so ____ are usually not indicated. Treatment may only include stopping ____ and administering ____. Although ____ and ____ are the most common precipitants, drug-induced urticaria has been demonstrated after use of ____.

A

Regarding urticaria
Association with malignancy is not strong enough to investigate for possible cancer when urticaria of unknown origin exists. Panicillins and Opiates are the most common offenders. Nonimmunological urticaria may be caused by degranulation of mast cells. Drug-induced urticaria may be immunologic or nonimmunilogic. Precipitants of urticaria include food allergies, cold induced, malignancy, SLE, familial, exercise, excessive heat, etc. Drug-induced urticaria does not represent anaphylaxis or indicate its impending development so steroids are usually not indicated. Treatment may only include stopping the offending agent and administering antihistamines or other antipruritics as needed. Although penicillins and opiates are the most common precipitants, drug-induced urticaria has been demonstrated after use of an enormous number of medications.

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33
Q

Describe the rash lf meningococcemia

A

palpable petechiae with pale gray centers, usually on the wrists, ankles, flanks, and axilla

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34
Q

ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura)
____ tranfusion can induce ____ and worsen the patient’s condition by increasing ____. ____ is the most feared complication of ITP. ____/mm3 is a commonly cited platelet threshold for ____). The __ is expected to be normal, and intra-articular bleeding ____ a major feature of ITP. ____ are usually indicated for adults

A

ITP (immune thrombocytopenic purpura)
Platelet transfusions can induce inflammatory (autoantibody) response and worsen the patient’s condition by increasing platelet destruction. Intracranial hemorrhage is the most feared complication of ITP, (20,000/mm3 is a commonly cited threshold for spontaneous intracranial bleeding). The PT is expected to be normal, and intra-articular bleeding is not a major feature of ITP. Steroids are usually indicated for adults

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35
Q

4 classic non-infectious causes of fever

Trauma?

A

PE CVA thyroid storm neuroleptic malignant syndrome

Not trauma… worry more about hypothermia there usually

36
Q

TF

WBC with fever is sensitive and soecific for seriois bacterial infection

A

F

WBC is a poor discriminatory predictor of serious bacterial infection.

37
Q
Strep
Most common cause
Can viral strep be exudative?
What is role of abx
Abx of choice
A

Strep
The most common bacterial cause is Group A strep. It is very hard to distinguish bacterial versus viral infections based on clinical grounds - viral can be exudative. Antibiotics do not significantly alter clinical course; however, they reduce complications such as rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis. Penicillin is the treatment of choice.

38
Q

Manage child with stridor
Ddx
Younger nontoxic appearing is more likely…
Manage with…
Older high fever ill appearing drooling more likely…
Manage with…

A

A child presenting to the emergency department with stridor most likely has croup, with epiglottitis being a less common – but more serious – etiology. Croup tends to be the etiology in younger, nontoxic-appearing children, who usually have a characteristic barking (“seal”) cough. Treatment of croup includes cool Mist (though the literature supporting this is limited), racemic Epinephrine (which is probably no better than nebulized l-epinephrine), and Steroids. Epiglottitis is a true emergency. It presents in children who are older, with high fever, and who are ill appearing. One of the key clinical features is drooling, which indicates swelling and pain interfering with handling of secretions. Children with epiglottitis are at risk of airway obstruction and need early airway management, preferably while the problem is still urgent (as opposed to during catastrophic deterioration) and preferably in the operating room. Epiglottitis is a bacterial infection treated with antibiotics. A lateral soft tissue X-ray would most likely reveal signs of an inflamed epiglottic region (e.g. thumbprint sign).

39
Q

4 common causes of otitis media

A

Strep pneumo, h flu, moraxella catarhallis, viral

40
Q

Treat iv drug abuse fever and murmur

A

Blood cx, iv vanc, admit

41
Q

Treat pregnant uti with

A

Treat pregnant uti with nitrofurantoin (Macrodantin)

42
Q

Is pyelo managed inpatient or outpatient?

A

It can be treated as outpatient in uncomplicated adults. Children, pregnant women, elderly and those with co-morbidities need inpatient therapy.

43
Q

16yo M with swollen knee fever rash dx is

A

Gonococcal arthritis

Arthricentesis to confirm

44
Q

Sperading annular-papular rash from lime is called

A

Erythema chronicum migrans

Sperading annular-papular rash from lime

45
Q

Rocky mountain spotted fever is endemic in ____ and spread by ____

A

Rocky mountain spotted fever is endemic in the Southeastern United States and spread by ticks.

46
Q

Most common cause of diarrhea in children

A

Rotavirus and Norwalk virus

47
Q

TF
Staph aureus is a common cause of invasive diarrhea

Treat diarrheal illness
Abx? Antimotility agents?

A

F
Staph is a very common cause of food poisoning due to a toxin but rarely becomes invasive. Most diarrheal illnesses are treated with supportive therapy and rehydration. Antibiotics may worsen the situation depending on the organism. Antimotility agents can also worsen the problem.

48
Q

What is Ludwig’s angina

A

serious, potentially life-threatening cellulitis or connective tissue infection of the floor of the mouth, usually occurring in adults with concomitant dental infections and if left untreated, may obstruct the airways, necessitating tracheostomy

49
Q

incidence of adult epiglottitis has ___ in recent years, whereas the incidence of pediatric epiglottitis has ___

A

incidence of adult epiglottitis has Increased in recent years, whereas the incidence of pediatric epiglottitis has Decreased

50
Q

TF

smokers have higher incidence of epiglottitis

A

T

smokers have higher incidence of epiglottitis

51
Q

diagnostic criteria for Ludwig’s angina includes:
-spread of cellulitis by ___ not by ___
-___ of glandular tissues
-__lateral cellulitis
-___ of gangrene
large amounts of pus in submandibular space?

A

diagnostic criteria for Ludwig’s angina includes:

  • spread of cellulitis by Continuity not by lymphatics
  • Sparing of glandular tissues
  • Bilateral cellulitis
  • Presence of gangrene

large amounts of pus in submandibular space is typically NOT present

52
Q

Classic symptoms of retropharyngeal abscess include ___.. (looks a lot like ____)
In children it is often associated with ___..

A

Classic symptoms of retropharyngeal abscess include fever neck stiffness drooling toxic appearance (looks a lot like epiglottitis)
In children it is often associated with foreign body ingestion leading to perf of the hypopharynx or esophagus

53
Q

infection of the deep space of the fingertip is known as a ___.
how is it different from other subcutanous abscesses…
treat with ___.

A

felon, septation, incision procedure

  • infection of the deep space of the fingertip (subcutaneous abscess) is known as a felon.
  • different from other subcutaneous abscesses because septa must be divided during incision and drainage
  • treat with an incision procedure – avoid pincher surfaces by making incision at ulnar aspect of digits II-IV and radial aspects of digits I and V… incise posterior to digital artery and nerve
54
Q
define
felon
whitlow
furuncle
carbuncle
cellulitis
A

felon - infection (subcutaneous abscess) of deep space of fingertip (pad/pulp of the digit)
whitlow - painful lesion of Skin
furuncle - skin abscess from staph infection of hair follicle
carbuncle - collection of furuncles
cellulitis - infection of Skin

55
Q

3 symptoms of digital flexor tenosynovitis

erythema?

A

tenderness, swelling, pain with passive extension

little external evidence other than swelling – erythema unlikely

56
Q

TF

there is a lyme disease vaccine

A

T
there is a lyme disease vaccine
but not widely used

57
Q

which merits urgent ophthalmologic referral in patient with foreign body sensation in the eye, moderate-size linear corneal abrasion or small puncture wound in the globe?

A

small puncture wound in the globe merits urgent ophthalmologic referral – e.g. risk of intraocular foreign body

58
Q

ultraviolet keratitis
aka
classic presentation

A

ultraviolet keratitis
aka sunburn of the cornea
classic presentation - very injected conjunctiva, eye pain, photophobia

59
Q
TF
central retinal vein occlusion
central retinal artery occlusion
retinal detachment
vitreous hemorrhage

can call cause conjunctival injection

A

F

they affect structures deep to the conjunctiva and generally do not cause conjunctival injection

60
Q

corneal dendritic lesion suggests

A

corneal dendritic lesion suggests

herpetic infection

61
Q

OD and OS in ophtho mean

A

OD - right eye (think dextro-right)
OS - left eye

O…ophtho…

62
Q

what is the topical ophthalmic anesthetic commonly used in the ED
what organic chemistry classification is it and why is that important?

A

preparacaine - ED topical ophthalmic anesthetic

it is an ester – imprtantn to ask about anesthetic allergy

63
Q

fluorescein strips will stain tears ___

A

fluorescein strips will stain tears Orange

64
Q

ophthalmic emergency commonly presenting from movie theater is ___ because ___

A

ophthalmic emergency commonly presenting from movie theater is acute angle closure glaucoma because pupillary dilation in the dark impairs circulation of aqueous humor

65
Q

TF

oral steroids are indicated for optic neuritis

A

F

if steroids are to be given for optic neuritis,(debatable) they should be given IV

66
Q

Optic neuritis classically presents with ___, often involving ___. ___ are preferentially affected. Optic neuritis may be the initial manifestation of ___ so ….

A

Optic neuritis classically presents with visual impairment, often involving color vision. Women are preferentially affected. Optic neuritis may be the initial manifestation of MS so follow-up with a relevant provider is indicated

67
Q

manage unilateral temporal headache associated with myalgias and indurated temporal artery and elevated ESR suggestive of temporal arteritis…. potential sequelae

A

oral steroids and temporal artery biopsy within a week (biopsy will be positive up to a week after steroid initiation)

sequelae include visual loss in affected and contralateral eye, TIA, stroke

68
Q

___ are particularly susceptible to temporal arteritis

A

elderly women, with polymyalgia, are particularly susceptible to temporal arteritis

69
Q

TF

NSAIDS for temporal arteritis

A

F

Steroids for temporal arteritis… nsaids do nothing

70
Q

sequelae of temporal arteritis

A

visual loss in affected and contralateral eye, TIA, stroke

71
Q

TF

ipsilateral diminished auditory acuity with bell’s palsy

A

F
maybe taste abnormalities with bell’s palsy

but other cranial nerve involvement suggests an alternative diagnosis – brainstem tumor, meningioma, brainstem stroke…

72
Q

Monocular papilledema is called ___. Common causes include ___ or ___. True bilateral papilledema is due to ___

A

Monocular papilledema is called papillitis. Common causes include optic neuritis or optic nerve tumor. True bilateral papilledema is due to increased intracranial pressure

73
Q

painless complete acute unilateral visual loss think

A

painless complete acute unilateral visual loss think central retinal artery occlusion

74
Q

normal range of intraocular pressure in humans

A

10-21mmhg normal IOP

75
Q

treatment of corneal ulcer e.g. from soft contact lens or extended wear contact lens in ED

A

antibiotic like a fluoroquinolone and close ophtho follow-up within 24 hours

(treatment of corneal ulcer)

76
Q

TF

cellulitis may be present with any cellulitis

A

T

cellulitis may be present with any cellulitis

77
Q

with swollen/reddened eyelids and fever suggesting preseptal (periorbital) cellulitis… concern regarding orbital extension should arise when exam shows what 4 things

A

concern regarding orbital extension should arise when exam shows

  • proptosis
  • visual acuity impairment
  • pain with EOM
  • impaired EOM
78
Q

TF

preseptal (periorbital cellulitis) is consistent with pain with extraocular motion

A

F
swelling and redness of eyelids and fever is consistent with preseptal/periorbital cellulitis

concern regarding orbital extension should arise when exam shows

  • proptosis
  • visual acuity impairment
  • pain with EOM
  • impaired EOM
79
Q

TF
home topical anesthetic is appropriate for corneal abrasion
narcotic analgesia?

A

F
home topical anesthetic should not be prescribed for corneal abrasion as can cause corneal toxicity when recurrently dosed
Narcotics better than topical… but think more Cycloplegic agents like Homotropine and Cyclopentolate to reduce ciliary spasm and other OTC and prescription analgesics

80
Q
young otherwise healthy obese woman with headache nauea vomiting AFVSS WNL, papilledema, normal noncon head CT
dx...
causes include...
sequelae include...
next step is...
A

dx… pseudotumor cerebri
causes include… pregnancy, medications (OCPs steroids Vit A)
sequelae include… visual field cuts
next step is… LP

81
Q

4 classic symptoms of horner’s syndrome
differential diagnosis
workup

A

4 classic symptoms of horner’s syndrome - ptosis miosis enopthalmos anhidrosis

differential diagnosis - carotid artery dissection, tumors, CVA, pancoast tumor…

workup - CXR (pancoast) CT brain/neck (CVA/tumor), carotid angiogram (carotid dissection)

82
Q

5 possible treatments for acute angle closure glaucoma

mydriatic agents?

A
meiotic agents (pilocarpine)
carbonic anhydrase inhibitors
topical beta blockers (both above decrease aqueous humor production)
mannitol (decrease IOP)
iridectomy
83
Q
what do these eye drops do
sulfacetamide
pilocarpine
Pred Forte
Proparacaine
Tropicamide
A
sulfacetamide - topical abx
pilocarpine - meiosis
Pred Forte - steroid
Proparacaine - topical anesthetic
Tropicamide - mydriasis
84
Q

___ fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal. A ___ fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the first metacarpal with dislocation of the radial portion of the articular surface. A ___ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement and volar angulation. ___ fracture is an extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement of the distal fragment. ___ fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of a metacarpal.

A

Boxer’s fracture is a fracture of the neck of the fourth or fifth metacarpal. A Bennett’s fracture is an oblique fracture through the base of the first metacarpal with dislocation of the radial portion of the articular surface. A Colles’ fracture is a fracture of the distal radius with dorsal displacement and volar angulation. Smith’s fracture is an extra-articular fracture of the distal radius with volar displacement of the distal fragment. Rolando’s fracture is an intra-articular fracture at the base of a metacarpal.

85
Q

Salter-Harris classification system describes a pediatric fracture and its location relative to the ___. Growth plate injuries are important because injury to them can cause ___. Salter I fractures extend. Salter II fractures extend through the growth plate and the metaphysis of the bone (above the. Salter III fractures extend through the growth plate and the epiphysis (below the growth plate). Salter IV fractures involve both metaphysis and epiphysis and travel through the growth plate. Salter V fractures are those in which epiphysis and metaphysis are pushed onto one another, obscuring the growth plate.

A

Salter-Harris classification system describes a pediatric fracture and its location relative to the growth plate. Growth plate injuries are important because injury to them can cause arrest of that bone’s growth. Salter I fractures extend through the growth plate only. Salter II fractures extend through the growth plate and the metaphysis of the bone (above the growth plate) as seen in the radiograph. Salter III fractures extend through the growth plate and the epiphysis (below the growth plate). Salter IV fractures involve both metaphysis and epiphysis and travel through the growth plate. Salter V fractures are those in which epiphysis and metaphysis are pushed onto one another, obscuring the growth plate.