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EM Flashcards

1
Q

Vessels most likely to be injured during cricothyrotomy

A

Superior cricothyroid vessels

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2
Q

Which insulins require a prolonged observation period?

A

Detemir, NPH, NPL

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3
Q

Estimate of total body potassium deficit

A

each 0.3 drop = 100 mE1 total body deficit

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4
Q

Lumbar disc herniations typically affect which nerve root

A

the one below

L4-L5 herniation affects L5, L5-S1 herniation affects S1, etc.

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5
Q

Frontotemporal dementia

A

behavioral disturbances, including disinhibition with socially inappropriate behaviors, hyperorality, and compulsive behaviors

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6
Q

Lewy Body Dementia

A

cognitive fluctuations, parkinsonism, and, most classically, visual hallucinations

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7
Q

Zone of Neck

A

Zone 1 - clavicle to cricoid (highest mortality)
Zone 2 - cricoid to mandible
Zone 3 - mandible to skull base

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8
Q

Difference between toxoplasmosis and primary CNS lymphoma on CT

A

toxo = RING enhancing lesions
CNS lymphoma = hypderdense/isodense SOLIDLY enhancing round lesions

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9
Q

Abnormal movements with eyes open =

A

cerebellar disease

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10
Q

Abnormal movements with eyes closed =

A

posterior column disorders

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11
Q

Rule of 80 for adult and pediatric neck masses

A

80% in peds = benign
80% in adults = malignant (non-thyroid)

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12
Q

Insecticide exposure associated with what toxidrome

A

cholinergic crisis DUMBBELLS

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13
Q

Central cord syndrome

A

Upper extremity weakness > lower

Associated with EXTENSION injuries

Corticospinal and spinothalamic tracts are most affected within the CENTRAL portion of the cord

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14
Q

Anterior cord syndrome

A

loss of motor and sensory below the level of injury

preservation of position, touch, vibration

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15
Q

Bankart fracture

A

inferior glenoid rim

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16
Q

Hill-Sachs fracture

A

compression fracture of the posterolateral humeral head

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17
Q

Wernicke encephalopathy

A

nystagmus, ophthalmoplegia, ataxia

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18
Q

Mechanism of magnesium deficiency leading to hypocalcemia

A

produces parathyroid hormone resistance

magnesium supplementation can improve symptoms of hypocalcemia

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19
Q

Croup virus

A

parainfluenza virus type 1

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20
Q

Lab findings in Erlichiosis and Anaplasmosis

A

leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, transaminitis

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21
Q

Typical rash spread pattern in RMSF

A

centripetal = distal extremities to the trunk

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22
Q

Toxic metabolite of ethylene glycol

A

oxalic acid

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23
Q

Bark scorpion physical exam findings

A

motor restlessness and hypersalivation

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24
Q

neonatal conjunctivitis <5 days old

A

Neisseria

IV or IM ceftriaxone

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25
Q

neonatal conjunctivitis > 5 days

A

Chlamydia

oral erythromycin

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26
Q

What dermatologic condition is most commonly associated with celiac disease

A

dermatitis herpetiformis

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27
Q

Coronary occlusion that can cause complete heart block

A

RCA

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28
Q

Painless abdominal mass + hematuria in a 3ish year old child

A

Wilms Tumor

Renal US

Nephrectomy

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29
Q

Elapidae

A

Coral snake, Cobra, Kraits, Mambas

Marked systemic neurotoxicity

Irreversibly binds acetylcholine receptors

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30
Q

Crotalidae

A

Pit vipers

Coagulopathy

Systemic symptoms uncommon

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31
Q

Loxosceles

A

Brown spiders

Brown recluse

Necrotic eschar

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32
Q

Centruroides

A

Bark scorpion

muscle spasms, oculomotor abnormalities

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33
Q

Aspiration location for priapism

A

2 OR 10 o’clock

followed by phenylephrine injection

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34
Q

Max dose of lido w/epi

w/o epi

A

7mg/kg or max of 500mg regardless of weight

5mg/kg

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35
Q

Phenobarbital mechanism of action

A

increases GABA receptor opening duration

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36
Q

Allergic compound of poison ivy/oak/sumac

A

Urushiol

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37
Q

Nitrazine positive

A

Blue coloration with pH > vaginal pH, usually around 7.2-7.4

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38
Q

Silo fillers disease

A

Nitrogen dioxide

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39
Q

Musty hay or newly mown grass smell

A

Phosgene

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40
Q

Dextrose rule for peds

A

5-10mL/kg of D10
2-4 mL/kg of D25
1-2 mL/kg of D50

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41
Q

Small positive deflection buried in the end of the QRS complex

A

Epsilon wave

ARVD

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42
Q

two most common causes of SJS or TEN

A

Mcyoplasma or Herpes simplex

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43
Q

Bullous pemphigoid

A

> 60 years

Nikolsky negative

Does not involve mucous membranes

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44
Q

Pemphigus vulgaris

A

Younger 40-60

Involves mucous membranes

Nikolsky positive

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45
Q

4 cluster B personality types

A

Antisocial
Borderline
Histrionic
Narcissistic

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46
Q

Cytoplasmic inclusions found in Parkinsons

A

Lewy bodies

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47
Q

Tx for hereditary angioedema

A

C1 esterase inhibitor replacement OR

FFP

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48
Q

First line tx for pregnancy related nausea/vomiting

A

Pyridoxine alone or in combination with doxylamine

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49
Q

apical displacement of the tricuspid valve with dilation of the right atrium

A

Ebstein anomaly

atrialization of the proximal right ventricle

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50
Q

Bitter almond smell

A

Cyanide

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51
Q

Rotten eggs smell

A

Hydrogen sulfide

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52
Q

Garlic odor toxidrome

A

organophosphate poisoning

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53
Q

Foodborne diarrhea that can cause liver abscess

A

Entamoeba histolytica

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54
Q

Most common cause of erysipelas

A

beta-hemolytic Strep pyogenes

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55
Q

Syphilis tx regimens ( primary, secondary, tertiary, etc.)

A

primary/secondary - single dose IM pen G
Tertiary or Late latent - weekly IM pen G for 3 weeks

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56
Q

Factor replacement doses for Hemophilia A and B

A

50IU to get 80-100% replacement with Factor VIII

100IU to get 80-100% replacement with factor IX

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57
Q

Initial bullous pemphigoid management

A

wound care, steroids, doxycycline

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58
Q

Tx for RMSF even in children

A

Doxycycline

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59
Q

Findings associated with oligoarticular juvenile arthritis

A

Chronic uveitis

ANA positive

TMJ arthritis

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60
Q

Bacterial infection predisposing to PSGN

A

Group A beta-hemolytic strep

Strep throat, Impetigo

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61
Q

timing of arterial gas embolism

A

on ascent or within minutes

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62
Q

timing of decompression syndromes

A

minutes to hours after ascent

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63
Q

Depth related diving syndromes

A

Barotitis occurs at shallower depths compared to nitrogen narcosis

Nitrogen narcosis occurs are deep depths (at least 100 ft below sea level)

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64
Q

Electrolyte abnormality often seen with myxedema coma

A

hyponatremia (50% of patients)

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65
Q

most common site of pediatric linear skull fractures

A

parietal bone

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66
Q

Tympanic membrane rupture, blast lung, ocular injury, concussion - type of blast injury

A

primary

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67
Q

Secondary blast injuries

A

impact of fragments

penetrating trauma, amputation

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68
Q

tertiary blast injuries

A

crush injuries, blunt trauma

body propelled into objects

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69
Q

Quaternary blast injuries

A

environmental contamination

burns, inhalation, toxic substances

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70
Q

quinary blast injury

A

bodily absorption of device additives

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71
Q

Tripod fracture

A

lateral orbit, zygoma, maxilla

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72
Q

ACA stroke symptoms

A

contralateral weakness and sensory loss,

LEG > ARM

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73
Q

Loud single heart sound with harsh systolic murmur

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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74
Q

GVHD in BMT patient most common presenting symptoms

A

rash (maculopapular)

diarrhea (bloody)

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75
Q

benzos MOA

A

binds to GABA a receptors, increasing frequency of chloride channel opening, reducing the resting potential and producing inhibitory effects

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76
Q

serum osmolality equation

A

2x Na + BUN/2.8 + glucose/18 + ethanol/3.7

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77
Q

Tx for cyanide toxicity

A

Hydroxycobalamin (preferred if concomitant CO exposure)

OR

Amyl nitrite + Sodium thiosulfate

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78
Q

Most frequently isolated organism with acute suppurative parotitis

A

Staph aureus

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79
Q

A-a gradient and Pao2 for steroids in PJP

A

PaO2 < 70

A-a gradient >35

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80
Q

Most common basilar skull fracture location

A

temporal bone

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81
Q

MCC of ischemic stroke in children

A

sickle cell

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82
Q

DeWinter wave associated with what lesion

A

LAD

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83
Q

What infection is associated with adult onset asthma

A

Chlamydia pneumonia

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84
Q

Foxglove toxidrome

A

dig toxicity

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85
Q

Jimson weed toxidrome

A

anticholinergic

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86
Q

What US finding is nearly 100% sensitive for cardiac tamponade

A

plethoric IVC

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87
Q

What is indicative of benign physiologic cause of neonatal jaundice

A

jaundice on day 3 of life

levels peak at day 3 then return to normal by two weeks of life

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88
Q

Hypsarrhythmia on EEG

A

Infantile spasms

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89
Q

Arsine gas exposure

  • work?

tx?

A

Semi-conductor industry

Alkalinization of urine

Exchange transfusion

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90
Q

Most common location for intussusception

A

Ileocecal colon

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91
Q

Stages of iron toxicity

A

1 - GI symptoms, nausea/vomiting/diarrhea
2- period of improvement
3 - Systemic - GI symptoms return, hypotension, severe AGMA, AMS

2 to 5 days after
4- Elevated LFT’s
5 - Bowel obstruction (often pyloric outlet obstruction)

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92
Q

Coronary lesion with Wellens waves

A

Left Anterior Descending

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93
Q

Confirmatory test for neurosyphilis

A

CSF VDRL

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94
Q

Tx for acute mountain sickness vs HACE

A

acetazolamide

dexamethasone for HACE

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95
Q

Most sensitive test for active TB infection

A

Mantoux skin test

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96
Q

Most sensitive test for spinal epidural abscess

A

ESR

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97
Q

What meds should be avoided in hydrocarbon ingestion

A

Dopamine, Epi, Norepi

Procainamide

Amiodarone, Sotalol

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98
Q

Tx for travellers diarrhea in pregnant patients

A

Azithromycin

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99
Q

Most common neurovascular injury in knee dislocation

A

Peroneal nerve

Popliteal artery

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100
Q

Most common lung cancer in smokers

A

adenocarcinoma

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101
Q

Examples of type I hypersensitivity reaction

A

Anaphylaxis
Angioedema
Urticaria

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102
Q

Most common cause of gross hematuria in children

A

UTI

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103
Q

Abx of choice in toxic shock syndrome

A

Clindamycin

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104
Q

most effective emergency contraception up to 120 hrs

A

Ulipristal acetate

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105
Q

Most common site of cervical spine injury in children < 8 yrs old

A

C1-C3

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106
Q

Paralytics for intubation with myasthenia gravis

A

Higher dose of depolarizing (2.25 /kg of sux)

Lower dose of non-depolarizing

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107
Q

Do patients with Lambert-Eaton require higher or lower doses of paralytics for intubation?

A

Lower

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108
Q

What characteristic differentiates TRALI from TACO?

A

High fever

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109
Q

Pattern of paralysis in botulism

A

Descending symmetric

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110
Q

CD4 count associated with CMV infection

A

< 50

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111
Q

What type of lesion is cauda equina?

A

lower motor neuron

composed of peripheral spinal nerves being compress

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112
Q

Nikolsky positive diseases

A

Staphylococcal scalded skin

SJS/TEN

Pemphigus vulgaris

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113
Q

Condyloma acuminata vs Condyloma lata

A

Acuminata - > HPV

Lata - > Syphilis

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114
Q

Most common bacteria from dog bites

A

Pasteurella

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115
Q

narcan drip dosing

A

2/3rds of reversal dose

0.3 bolus - > 0.2mg/hr drip rate

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116
Q

Lupus pernio commonly associated with

A

sarcoidosis

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117
Q

Chancroid (bug and tx)

A

Haemophilus ducreyi

Ceftriaxone 250IM, Azithro 1g oral

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118
Q

Test for evidence of maternal-fetal hemorrhage

A

Kleihauer-Betke

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119
Q

Thyroid storm order of tx

A

beta blocker
PTU
Methimazole
Iodine
Steroids

PTU preferred in pregnancy

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120
Q

Abx for strep throat if anaphylactic to penicillins

A

Clarithomycin, Azithromycin, Clindamycin

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121
Q

Rubella

A

German measles

maculopapular rash start on face and spread downward

associated with fever

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122
Q

most common congenital CYANOTIC heart disease

A

Tetralogy of Fallot

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123
Q

US location most sensitive for free fluid in the setting of trauma

A

hepatorenal window

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124
Q

QS waves in V2-V4 without reciprocal changes

A

Ventricular aneurysm

ECHO

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125
Q

Tx for epiploic appendagitis

A

NSAID’s

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126
Q

Abx for cavernous sinus thrombosis as a complication of acute sinusitis

A

vanco, ceftriaxone, metronidazole

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127
Q

Typical location of reactivation of latent TB

A

Apical posterior lobes

128
Q

HUS treatment

A

supportive, fluid resuscitation

129
Q

where do foreign bodies swallowed typically get obstructed in pediatric patients

A

C6, level of cricopharyngeus muscle

130
Q

Predominant bacterial cause of ersysipelas

A

strep pyogenes

131
Q

Sulfonylureas

medication that can be given to prevent further hypoglycemia

A

glyburide, glimepiride, gliclazide

octreotide

132
Q

anterior vs posterior nose bleeds

A

anterior - keisselbach plexus

posterior - sphenopalatine arteries

133
Q

cherry red spot

134
Q

Causes of inflammatory arthritis with WBC >3k, but <50k

A

Gout - negative birefringent needles
Pseudogout - positive birefringent
Reactive - no crystals, clinical hx of recent infection
Lyme - need Lyme IgG, IgM to confirm lyme cause

135
Q

Leukemia most at risk for hyperviscosity

136
Q

gold standard imaging for mandibular fracture

A

CT max/face

137
Q

Simple febrile seizure

A

<1 in 24 hours
<15 mins
Non-focal
Return to baseline

138
Q

mycotic aneurysm most commonly a complication of what

A

endocarditis

139
Q

> 5mm TB skin test positive for what populations

A

HIV +
Recent contact with TB+ patient
Nodular or fibrotic CT changes
Organ transplant

140
Q

Alternative tx for Lyme

A

amoxicillin (some children and pregnant patients)

141
Q

Most common cause of tricuspid regurgitation

A

RA and RV dilation

142
Q

Most common sign of bladder injury

A

gross hematuria

143
Q

At what stage is HIV infectivity highest

A

acute infection

144
Q

Pacer letters and meaing

A

first - chamber paced
second - chamber sensed

145
Q

Ranson criteria at admission

A

Age >55
WBC > 16k
Glucose > 200
LDH > 350
AST > 250

146
Q

Strongest predictor of difficult intubation

A

Mallampati IV airway

147
Q

most reliable indication of achilles rupture

A

+ calf squeeze test (thompson test)

148
Q

acute alveolar osteitis

A

dry socket

abrupt pain, foul odor

3-5 days after tooth extraction

149
Q

Most specific antibody for SLE

A

Anti-smith

150
Q

Winters formula

A

expected PCo2 = 1.5 (HCO3) + 8 +/- 2

151
Q

visual disturbance with dig toxicity

A

yellow-green chromatopsia

152
Q

treatment for jellyfish stings

A

acetic acid

153
Q

Viral cause of Ramsay-hunt

A

Varicella Zoster virus

154
Q

Tx for disseminated gonococcal infection

A

1g ceftriaxone IM/IV once

Doxy BID for 7 days

155
Q

Most common clinical finding seen in PE

156
Q

Correct laryngscope blade for intubating neonate

A

Miller 0 or 1

157
Q

Hot and cold temp reversal

A

Cigatuera toxin poisoning

158
Q

post-exposure prophy for adults with close contact to pertusis

A

Azithro 500mg once, then 250 daily for total of 5 days

159
Q

Osteosarcoma

A

sunburst pattern

  1. distal femur
  2. prox tibia
  3. prox humerus
160
Q

most common presentation of seizures in a newborn

A

rhythmic beating of an arm or leg

161
Q

first line treatment for status epilepticus in newborn

A

phenobarbital or fosphenytoin

162
Q

Ciguatera toxin

A

hot cold temp reversal
perioral paresthesias
sensation of loose teeth

163
Q

Reed-Sternberg cells

A

Hodgkin lymphoma

Owl eye nucleus

164
Q

Primary determinant of pressure injection injury

A

chemical properties of substance injected

165
Q

post-partum endometritis abx

A

Clindamycin + Gentamicin

Unasyn if GBS colonized

166
Q

Childhood tumor with elevated urine catecholamines

A

Wilm’s Tumor

Neuroblastoma does not have elevated catecholamines

167
Q

Order of meds for tx of pheo

A

alpha blockade first - phentolamine

then beta blockade - esmolol or labetalol

168
Q

vulvovaginitis tx in peds

A

amoxicillin, augmentin, or clinda

169
Q

location of a spigelian hernia

A

at the level of the arcuate line

170
Q

HD of lithium criteria

A

impaired kidney function and lithium > 4
lithium > 5
seizures, dysrhythmia, AMS
elevated lithium + symptoms + cannot give fluids

171
Q

primary function of temporal lobe

A

auditory processing

172
Q

most common bacteria in paronychia

A

staph aureus

173
Q

tumor lysis changes

A

hyper K
hyper phos
Increased uric acid

hypocalcemia

174
Q

Roseola

A

HHV-6

high fever, subsides then diffuse maculopapular rash

175
Q

most common oculomotor sign in Wernicke’s

A

lateral nystagmus

176
Q

most common organism causing bacterial tracheitis

A

staph aureus

177
Q

Most common type of Salter Harris

178
Q

Peds dextrose rules

A

<1 - 2-5mL/kg of D10

1-8 - 2mL/kg of D25

> 8 - 1mL/kg of D50

179
Q

vessels most likely to be responsible for hypertensive ICH

A

penetrating arteries

180
Q

peds atropine dose

181
Q

most likely site of diaphragmatic rupture in blunt force trauma

182
Q

at what age do infants roll over? walk?

A

5months

12-15months

183
Q

When to give RhoGam

A

Rh negative mothers at 28 weeks routine

in threatened, complete abortions, ectopic pregnancy, amniocentesis, abdominal trauma

184
Q

Pediatric pneumonias

A

0-3 months GBS
3wks to 3 months - C trachomatis
1-5 years - RSV
6-8 years M. pneumoniae

185
Q

acute glaucoma tx

A

timolol - beta blocker
apraclonidine - alpha agonist
acetazolamide

186
Q

pediatric airway differences

A

smaller larynx
narrowest portion - cricoid
longer, narrower epiglottis
larger tongue
neck shorter
anterior superior larynx
larger adenoids

187
Q

mechanism of hangman fracture

A

hyperextension

188
Q

cyanotic heart diseases

A

Truncus arteriosus
Transposition
Tricuspid atresia
Tetralogy of fallot
TAPVR

189
Q

direct spread commonly causes orbital cellulitis

A

ethmoid sinus

190
Q

earliest findings on TV US with pregnancy

A

gestational sac, yolk sac, fetal pole

191
Q

Rubeola (Measles)

A

high fever

cough, coryza, conjunctivitis

koplik spots

192
Q

most sensitive hx/exam finding to exclude test torsion

A

presence of cremasteric reflex

193
Q

initial med for polycystic kidney disease

A

lisinopril

194
Q

CRAB

A

hypercalcemia
renal injury
anemia
lytic bone lesions
back pain

multiple myeloma

M spike
bence-jones proteins

195
Q

most common secondary injury with midshaft humerus fracture

A

radial nerve injury/palsy

196
Q

highest sensitivity for exluding PE

A

Normal V/Q scan

197
Q

hard signs of vascular injruy

A

pulsatile bleeding
arterial thrill by palpation
bruit
signs of distal ischemia
visible expanding hematoma

198
Q

physical exam finding as strongest predictor of heart failure as the cause of dyspnea

A

third heart sound

199
Q

tx for white phosphorous exposure

A

copious irrigation

water//saline immersion

reacts with air to cause burns

200
Q

most common cause of tricuspid stenosis

A

rheumatic heart disease

201
Q

pH associated with vulvovaginal candidiasis

202
Q

causes of isolated CN III palsy

A

posterior circulation stroke

Diabetes

myasthenia gravis

203
Q

NNT

A

1/ [c/(c+d) - a/(a+b)]

204
Q

most common complication of diverticulitis

205
Q

beta blocker OD most likely to cause seizures

A

propranolol

due to high lipid solubility

206
Q

serum salicylate level for dialysis

A

> 100 acute

> 50 chronic

207
Q

Mass Casualty Lightning triage method

A

individuals with no signs of life should be attended to first, prolonged CPR

208
Q

most common type of testicular tumor

A

germ cell tumor

209
Q

diagnostic imaging for midgut volvulus/malrotation

A

Upper GI series

210
Q

minimum blood loss before hypotension

211
Q

timing of NEC in neonates

A

typically within first few days of life up to first 3 weeks

212
Q

high pitched blowing diastolic murmur at left sternal border

A

aortic regurgitation

213
Q

contralateral lower extremity weakness and numbness with sparing of face and upper extremity

A

anterior cerebral artery CVA

214
Q

critical aortic stenosis valve area

A

0.8cm^2 or less

215
Q

perilunate dislocation is dislocation of what bone

216
Q

cluster A personality disorders

A

schizoid, schizotypal, paranoid

217
Q

most common cause of spinal epidural abscess

218
Q

at what age do pediatric cervical spine injuries begin to follow same pattern of adults

A

8 and older

< 8 more likely to be upper cervical C1-3

transition to C5-6 at 8yo

219
Q

most common site of osteochondroma

A

distal femur

220
Q

most likely etiology of Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome

A

Chlamydia trachomatis

221
Q

reversal agent of dabigatran

A

idarucizumab

222
Q

abx tx for rheumatic fever in the setting of anaphylaxis to penicillins

A

erythromycin

223
Q

infections associated with Faget sign

A

fever + bradycardia

yellow fever, typhoid fever, tularemia, brucellosis, colorado tick fever, legionella, mycoplasma pneumoniae

224
Q

necrosis with alkali

A

liquefactive

225
Q

beefy red ulcer

A

granuloma inguinale

klebsiella granulomatis

226
Q

which urinalysis finding is most sensitive for UTI

A

leukocyte esterase

227
Q

thiazolidinediones

A

pioglitazone, rosiglitazone

228
Q

lab abnormality often found with heat stroke

A

hepatic injury

229
Q

hypotension in peds equation

A

70 + 2xage in years

230
Q

FVC criteria for intubation in Guillain-Barre

A

FVC < 20mL/kg

231
Q

GCS

A

E - 4
V - 5
M - 6

232
Q

meglitinides

A

repaglinide, nateglinide

increase insulin secretion

233
Q

sensitivity

A

true positives/true positive + false negatives

234
Q

specificity

A

true negatives/true negative + false positives

235
Q

PPV

A

true + / total number +

236
Q

Light criteria

A

protein ratio 0.5

LDH ratio 0.6

pleural LDH 2/3 upper limit of normal

237
Q

universal donor of FFP

238
Q

tripod fx

A

lateral orbit
zygoma
maxilla

239
Q

txa mechanism

A

reduces plasminogen activation to plasmin

240
Q

most common valvular injury in blunt cardiac injury

A

aortic

typically causes aortic regurgitation

241
Q

symptom most associated with positive biopsy in giant cell arteritis

A

jaw claudication

242
Q

earliest sonographic finding of tamponade

A

right atrial collapse

243
Q

7 cardinal movements of fetal descent

A

engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation, expulsion

244
Q

glomerulonephritis, pulmonary hemorrhage, anti-GBM antibodies

A

Granulomatosis w/ polyangiitis

245
Q

most useful test to assess degree of dehydration in children

A

serum bicarb

246
Q

most common risk factor for developing AAA

A

smoking hx

247
Q

ester anesthetics

A

procaine

chloroprocaine

248
Q

toxoplasmosis tx

A

sulfadiazine + pyrimethamine

+ leucovorin

249
Q

most common inherited bleeding disorder

A

prolonged bleeding time

250
Q

ethylene glycol toxic metabolites

A

glycolic, glycoxylic, oxalic acid

251
Q

most common cause of UGIB

A

duodenal ulcer

252
Q

at what age are sickle cell patients functionally asplenic

A

5 years old

253
Q

what is the deepest anatomic location for perirectal abscess

A

supralevator

254
Q

encapsulated bacteria

A

SHiNE SKiS

255
Q

most common symptom of hemorrhoids

A

bleeding with defecation

256
Q

cluster B personality disorders

A

borderline
antisocial
histrionic
narcissistic

257
Q

most severe malaria species

A

P. falciparum

258
Q

MAP equation

A

MAP = DBP + 1/3 (SBP-DBP)

259
Q

snowstorm vision changes

A

methanol toxicity

260
Q

methanol toxic metabolite

A

formic acid

261
Q

what high altitude illness has highest mortality

262
Q

Latrodectus

A

black widow

severe muscle cramping, CNS excitation

263
Q

most likely site of malignant brain tumor in children

A

cerebellum

medulloblastoma

264
Q

most common CN affected by cavernous sinus thrombosis

A

abducens

lateral gaze palsy

265
Q

most common etiology of hyperviscosity syndrome

A

waldenstrom macroglobulinemia

266
Q

gingival hyperplasia

267
Q

philadelphia chromosome

268
Q

CD4 count when MAC should be considered

269
Q

most effective tx for TTP

A

plasmapharesis

270
Q

mechanism of febrile non-hemolytic tranfusion reactions

A

host antibodies against donor leukocytes

271
Q

most commonly injured in pediatric blunt trauma

272
Q

tx of choice in sclerodermal renal crisis

273
Q

aerospace manufacturing exposure

A

beryllium, berylliosis

274
Q

CD4 count associated with PJP

275
Q

hydrofluoric acid

A

hypocalcemia

IV and topical calcium gluconate

276
Q

most common pituitary tumor

A

prolactinoma

277
Q

CD4 count associated with CMV

278
Q

most common cause of heterotopic pregnancy

A

infertility treatment

279
Q

additional fx associated with colles fx

A

ulnar styloid fx

280
Q

presence of what suggests CSF leak

A

beta-transferrin

281
Q

actinic keratosis predisposes to

A

squamous cell carincoma

282
Q

actinic keratosis predisposes to

A

squamous cell carcinoma

283
Q

mechanism of central cord injruy

A

hyperextension

284
Q

mechanism of extrapyramidal symptoms with anti-psychotics

A

dopamine antagonism

285
Q

what is commonly associated with pemphigus vulgaris

A

myasthenia gravis and thymomas

286
Q

physical exam finding suggestive of retrocecal appendicitis

A

+ psoas sign

287
Q

blood lead level for dimercaprol

288
Q

inaccurate labs off an IO

A

wbc
potassium
ionized calcium
ast/alt

289
Q

diagnosis of botulism

A

fecal botulinum toxin studies

290
Q

can you use activated charcoal for iron OD

A

no, doesn’t bind iron

291
Q

most common complication in LVAD

most common cause of failure of LVAD

most common cause of pump failure

cardioversion/defibrillation safe?

A

bleeding

suction event

thrombosis

yes

292
Q

most common site of esophageal perf

A

distal posterolateral esophagus

293
Q

core temperature afterdrop

A

initial warming of the body after cold exposure, then temperature begins to drop during rewarming due to return of cold blood from the peripher

294
Q

most common organisms responsible for SBP

A

E. coli

Klebsiella

295
Q

erythema nodosum most commonly associated with

A

streptococcal infection

296
Q

indications for intraperitoneal abx for PD patients

A

wbc > 100
abdominal pain
+ culture

2 of the 3 need to be present

297
Q

toxicity associated with rifampin

A

hepatotoxicity

298
Q

indications for HD in hypercalcemia

A

Ca >18
neurologic symptoms
CHF
renal failure

299
Q

preferred method for evaluation joint capsule disruption

A

CT of the joint

previously saline load

300
Q

most common bacteria implicated in lung abscess formation

A

peptostreptococcus

301
Q

most predictive sign of uterine rupture

A

non-reassuring fetal heart rate

302
Q

doses of sux and roc

A

1.5mg/kg

1.0mg/kg

303
Q

what is most predictive of mortality in submersion injury

A

degree of CNS hypoxia

304
Q

abx regimen for MAC

A

azithromycin or clarithromycin
ethambutol
rifabutin

305
Q

most common site of oral cancer

306
Q

xr most likely to see small pleural effusion

A

lateral decub with affected side down

307
Q

what determines degree of pulmonary injury in submersion injruies

A

quantity of liquid aspirated

308
Q

antibodies in bullous pemphigoid

A

IgG against the basement membrane

309
Q

antibodies in pemphigus vulgaris

A

IgG against desmosomes

310
Q

adenopathy above and below the inguinal ligament associated with

311
Q

preferred method of ventilation with percutaneous needle cric

A

jet ventilation

312
Q

where does cerebral toxoplasmosis have a propensity for in the brain?

A

basal ganglia

313
Q

historical featuer eassociated with infantile spasms

A

occurs in clusters lasting a few minutes at a time

314
Q

tx options for myasthenic crisis

A

plasmapharesis

IVIG

315
Q

chalazion commonly found

A

upper eye lid

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