Elevate Instrument Quizes Flashcards
1
Q
How much Cross country PIC time is required for the instrument check ride?
A
50
2
Q
Descending below DA/MDA is discussed under which reg number?
A
91.175
3
Q
Where can you find currency requirements and guidance for an instrument proficiency check?
A
Instrument ACS
Advisory Circular 61-98E
4
Q
If you lose comms in VFR conditions you should continue VFR flight and land as soon as practicable.
A
True
5
Q
If you are using an alternate static source, what does the ASI show?
A
Reads higher than actua
6
Q
If your pitot tube is blocked, what happens to your VSI?
A
It continues working
7
Q
Which approach uses Marker Beacons?
A
ILS
8
Q
Which approach always has a glideslope?
A
ILS
9
Q
Which acronym is specifically for IFR required equipment?
A
GRABCARDD
10
Q
True or False: A pilot should always trust their ‘gut feeling’ over the instruments in the aircraft.
A
False
11
Q
Which is NOT a type of spatial disorientation?
A
Endolymph
12
Q
When an aircraft makes a level and coordinated turn, the pilot’s nerves tell the brain that their body is…
A
Sinking down into their seat
13
Q
The fluid inside your ears is called
A
Endolymph
14
Q
What is the average time it takes a private pilot to get lost in IMC?
A
178 Seconds
15
Q
Which is NOT a sensory system?
A
Coriolis
16
Q
True or False: At night, there is a blind spot that appears in the center of your vision, not your peripherals.
A
True
17
Q
Occurs when a turn is entered too slowly for the inner ear to detect the rolling motion.
A
The leans
18
Q
On the airspeed indicator, what does the upper limit of the green arc represent?
A
VNO
19
Q
When you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting the Kollsman window, what will the altimeter indicate?
A
It indicates higher than true altitude
20
Q
The ASI reading corrected for position (or installation) and instrument errors is called the:
A
Calibrated airspeed
21
Q
Horizontal Situation Indicators (HSI) use a reference to magnetic north and do not generally need to be adjusted during flight due to Earth’s rotation (like directional gyros do).
A
True
22
Q
Which of the following is not a type of cross check?
A
Random
23
Q
What is the four step process?
A
Establish, Trim, Cross-Check, Adjust
24
Q
In a turn, which instrument is Primary for Bank?
A
Turn Coordinator
25
For Straight and Level flight, what instrument is primary for power?
Airspeed Indicator
25
In a turn, which instrument is Supporting for Bank?
Heading Indicator
26
How many degrees per second is a standard rate turn?
3
27
Instruments in your airplane cause interference that affects your compass.
Deviation
28
How long will a standard rate turn of 180º take?
1 minute
29
The recovery procedure for a nose-high unusual attitude is - increase power as necessary, apply forward elevator pressure, and correct the bank.
True
Blue power through, pitch down, wings level
30
Which one of these is not a VOR service volume?
Middle
31
What color is an outer marker beacon?
Blue
32
Slant range error is largest at lower altitudes and at longer distances.
False
33
RAIM stands for Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring.
True
34
Which is not a type of VOR check?
Terminal
35
How many satellites are needed for RAIM coverage?
5
36
Which type of VOR has the largest service area?
High
37
You should use caution when navigating around a VOR because the airspace can become congested with GA traffic.
True
38
What acronym do we use for Special Use Airspaces?
MCPRAWN TT
39
Can ATC assign you a visual approach?
Yes
40
Which acronym is used for reporting information?
IPTANES
41
Contact approaches can only be requested by the pilot and not assigned by ATC.
False
42
Established primarily to provide air traffic service to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace, and principally during the en route phase of flight.
ARTCC
43
Responsible for control of aircraft on IFR flight plans. The 'go-between' from tower to center, or center to tower.
TRACON
44
The controller that is contacted for IFR flights to receive their flight plan clearance for the route of flight.
Clearance delivery
45
VFR services given by ATC are on a workload permitting basis.
True
46
No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has
Received an appropriate ATC clearance
Filed an IFR flight plan
47
What does the 'R' in the CRAFT clearance stand for?
Route of flight
48
What is the purpose of clearance void time?
To keep the block of airspace clear until ATC can locate your position.
49
A climb to VFR-on-Top does not cancel an active IFR flight plan.
True
50
Standard holding pattern involves turns to the _______.
Right
51
Maximum holding speed: 6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL.
230
52
What distance should you begin the turn to intercept the first radial of the DME arc?
0.5 mile
53
The three types of hold entries are direct, teardrop, and parallel.
True
54
On a non precision approach, when do you go missed?
at MAP
55
Which approach is considered a precision approach?
ILS approach
56
Approach speed categories are determined using what type of airspeed?
Indicated airspeed
57
Takeoff and alternate minimums are shown on Jeppesen approach charts.
False
58
A letter included in the title of the approach means the final approach course is >__° off of runway centerline.
30 degrees
59
Will there be a reliable glideslope on a localizer back course approach?
No
60
VOR for the approach may be located miles away from your landing airport.
True
61
A non-precision localizer approach will provide vertical guidance.
False
62
Which RNAV approach type will get you to the lowest minimum?
LPV
63
LPV gives a replica performance of what nav aid?
Localizer
64
Without WAAS will your glide slope work for LPV?
No
65
What type of GPS approach has vertical guidance as well as horizontal guidance?
LNAV/VNAV
66
Can you circle to land from an ILS approach?
Yes
67
Describes the horizontal distance you can expect to see down a runway, based on seeing High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) or other things on the runway that have visual contrast.
RVR
68
If the localizer is inoperative, can you still shoot an ILS approach?
No
69
Will the approach minimums change if the glide slope becomes inoperative during an ILS instrument approach procedure?
Yes
70
When circling you have to maintain a distance from what portion of the airport based on your approach category?
Runway threshold
71
The circling minimums published on the instrument approach chart provide a minimum of how many feet of obstacle clearance?
300 feet
72
Can be initiated by either ATC or Pilot and used to expedite traffic flow
Visual Approach
73
Contact approaches cannot be assigned by ATC and must be requested by the pilot.
True
74
What is the term for an ATC-requested and developed departure route, typically used in busy terminal areas?
SID
75
ODPs may be flown without explicit ATC clearance.
True
76
When departing on a IFR flight plan, when should you turn on course (unless otherwise specified)?
400 ft AGL
77
Obstacle departure procedures will be printed with the word OBSTACLE in the procedures.
True
78
What does STAR stand for?
Standard Terminal Arrival Route
79
Where does a STAR end?
At the beginning of an instrument approach
80
When can you descend below MEA on a STAR?
Only if ATC assigns lower altitude
81
Cleared via grants approval to fly both the lateral and vertical path of the arrival.
False
82
When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?
Anytime you are in VFR conditions and outside of Class Alpha airspace
83
When should you file your IFR flight plan?
30 minutes prior to departure
84
Do you need an alternate if, between 1 hr before and 1 hr after your ETA weather is forecasted to be less than 3,000' ceilings?
No, if ceilings are above 2,000' 1 hr before to 1 hr after ETA you DO NOT need an alternate.
85
Your IFR flight plan will close automatically upon landing at a non-towered airport.
False
86
What system was recently replaced by FIS-B?
HIWAS
87
Unscheduled weather advisory.
Center weather advisory
88
How is FIS information sent?
Ground based broadcast through ADS-B network.
89
Convective SIGMETs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours.
True
90
What is NOT a level of severity to describe turbulence?
Mild
91
Which type of Structural Icing is the most dangerous?
Clear
92
Batteries are less powerful in the cold.
True
93
Rime ice forms if the droplets are small and freeze immediately when contacting the aircraft surface.
True
94
Airmet Zulu gives reporting on what weather condition?
Icing
95
Who can you file a PIREP with?
ATC
Flight Service Station
96
A PIREP should also be filed when the weather is better-than-forecast. A PIREP filed to report good weather is just as important as a PIREP filed to report bad weather.
True
97
Provides a display of clouds that would be visible to the naked eye when flying above it. Allows identification of fog/low level clouds that radar imagery may not detect.
Satellite Imagery
98
What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles?
Warm
99
What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles on one side and triangles on the other?
What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles on one side and triangles on the other?
100
Surface analysis charts are issued every _____ hours.
3
101
Uses tiny sensors to measure acceleration, and a fast computer chip analyzes those forces and calculates airplane attitude.
AHRS
102
In a IFR lost comms situation in IMC the altitude we fly is the highest of--
MEA, Expected, Assigned
103
What should you do if you lose comms on an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions?
Remain VFR and continue to nearby VFR airport
104
The one instrument that utilizes the pitot tube is the ASI.
True
105
What squawk code is used for a lost comms situation?
7600
106
Which instruments use gyroscopes in the six pack steam gauge set up?
Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, and Turn indicator
107
The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report _____________________ to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.
As soon as practical
108
How much fuel is required in IFR conditions?
Complete the flight to first airport of intended landing, plus alternate, plus 45 minutes normal cruising speed
109
A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management.
ADM
110
What is the antidote to the Macho hazardous attitude?
Taking chances is foolish
111
IMSAFE checklist stands for what?
Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fuel, Emotion.
