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ATP > Elevate Instrument Quizes > Flashcards

Elevate Instrument Quizes Flashcards

1
Q

How much Cross country PIC time is required for the instrument check ride?

A

50

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2
Q

Descending below DA/MDA is discussed under which reg number?

A

91.175

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3
Q

Where can you find currency requirements and guidance for an instrument proficiency check?

A

Instrument ACS
Advisory Circular 61-98E

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4
Q

If you lose comms in VFR conditions you should continue VFR flight and land as soon as practicable.

A

True

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5
Q

If you are using an alternate static source, what does the ASI show?

A

Reads higher than actua

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6
Q

If your pitot tube is blocked, what happens to your VSI?

A

It continues working

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7
Q

Which approach uses Marker Beacons?

A

ILS

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8
Q

Which approach always has a glideslope?

A

ILS

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9
Q

Which acronym is specifically for IFR required equipment?

A

GRABCARDD

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10
Q

True or False: A pilot should always trust their ‘gut feeling’ over the instruments in the aircraft.

A

False

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11
Q

Which is NOT a type of spatial disorientation?

A

Endolymph

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12
Q

When an aircraft makes a level and coordinated turn, the pilot’s nerves tell the brain that their body is…

A

Sinking down into their seat

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13
Q

The fluid inside your ears is called

A

Endolymph

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14
Q

What is the average time it takes a private pilot to get lost in IMC?

A

178 Seconds

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15
Q

Which is NOT a sensory system?

A

Coriolis

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16
Q

True or False: At night, there is a blind spot that appears in the center of your vision, not your peripherals.

A

True

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17
Q

Occurs when a turn is entered too slowly for the inner ear to detect the rolling motion.

A

The leans

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18
Q

On the airspeed indicator, what does the upper limit of the green arc represent?

A

VNO

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19
Q

When you fly from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure without adjusting the Kollsman window, what will the altimeter indicate?

A

It indicates higher than true altitude

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20
Q

The ASI reading corrected for position (or installation) and instrument errors is called the:

A

Calibrated airspeed

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21
Q

Horizontal Situation Indicators (HSI) use a reference to magnetic north and do not generally need to be adjusted during flight due to Earth’s rotation (like directional gyros do).

A

True

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22
Q

Which of the following is not a type of cross check?

A

Random

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23
Q

What is the four step process?

A

Establish, Trim, Cross-Check, Adjust

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24
Q

In a turn, which instrument is Primary for Bank?

A

Turn Coordinator

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25
Q

For Straight and Level flight, what instrument is primary for power?

A

Airspeed Indicator

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25
Q

In a turn, which instrument is Supporting for Bank?

A

Heading Indicator

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26
Q

How many degrees per second is a standard rate turn?

A

3

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27
Q

Instruments in your airplane cause interference that affects your compass.

A

Deviation

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28
Q

How long will a standard rate turn of 180º take?

A

1 minute

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29
Q

The recovery procedure for a nose-high unusual attitude is - increase power as necessary, apply forward elevator pressure, and correct the bank.

A

True
Blue power through, pitch down, wings level

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30
Q

Which one of these is not a VOR service volume?

A

Middle

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31
Q

What color is an outer marker beacon?

A

Blue

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32
Q

Slant range error is largest at lower altitudes and at longer distances.

A

False

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33
Q

RAIM stands for Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring.

A

True

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34
Q

Which is not a type of VOR check?

A

Terminal

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35
Q

How many satellites are needed for RAIM coverage?

A

5

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36
Q

Which type of VOR has the largest service area?

A

High

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37
Q

You should use caution when navigating around a VOR because the airspace can become congested with GA traffic.

A

True

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38
Q

What acronym do we use for Special Use Airspaces?

A

MCPRAWN TT

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39
Q

Can ATC assign you a visual approach?

A

Yes

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40
Q

Which acronym is used for reporting information?

A

IPTANES

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41
Q

Contact approaches can only be requested by the pilot and not assigned by ATC.

A

False

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42
Q

Established primarily to provide air traffic service to aircraft operating on IFR flight plans within controlled airspace, and principally during the en route phase of flight.

A

ARTCC

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43
Q

Responsible for control of aircraft on IFR flight plans. The ‘go-between’ from tower to center, or center to tower.

A

TRACON

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44
Q

The controller that is contacted for IFR flights to receive their flight plan clearance for the route of flight.

A

Clearance delivery

45
Q

VFR services given by ATC are on a workload permitting basis.

A

True

46
Q

No person may operate an aircraft in controlled airspace under IFR unless that person has

A

Received an appropriate ATC clearance
Filed an IFR flight plan

47
Q

What does the ‘R’ in the CRAFT clearance stand for?

A

Route of flight

48
Q

What is the purpose of clearance void time?

A

To keep the block of airspace clear until ATC can locate your position.

49
Q

A climb to VFR-on-Top does not cancel an active IFR flight plan.

A

True

50
Q

Standard holding pattern involves turns to the _______.

A

Right

51
Q

Maximum holding speed: 6,001’ - 14,000’ MSL.

A

230

52
Q

What distance should you begin the turn to intercept the first radial of the DME arc?

A

0.5 mile

53
Q

The three types of hold entries are direct, teardrop, and parallel.

A

True

54
Q

On a non precision approach, when do you go missed?

A

at MAP

55
Q

Which approach is considered a precision approach?

A

ILS approach

56
Q

Approach speed categories are determined using what type of airspeed?

A

Indicated airspeed

57
Q

Takeoff and alternate minimums are shown on Jeppesen approach charts.

A

False

58
Q

A letter included in the title of the approach means the final approach course is >__° off of runway centerline.

A

30 degrees

59
Q

Will there be a reliable glideslope on a localizer back course approach?

A

No

60
Q

VOR for the approach may be located miles away from your landing airport.

A

True

61
Q

A non-precision localizer approach will provide vertical guidance.

A

False

62
Q

Which RNAV approach type will get you to the lowest minimum?

A

LPV

63
Q

LPV gives a replica performance of what nav aid?

A

Localizer

64
Q

Without WAAS will your glide slope work for LPV?

A

No

65
Q

What type of GPS approach has vertical guidance as well as horizontal guidance?

A

LNAV/VNAV

66
Q

Can you circle to land from an ILS approach?

A

Yes

67
Q

Describes the horizontal distance you can expect to see down a runway, based on seeing High Intensity Runway Lights (HIRL) or other things on the runway that have visual contrast.

A

RVR

68
Q

If the localizer is inoperative, can you still shoot an ILS approach?

A

No

69
Q

Will the approach minimums change if the glide slope becomes inoperative during an ILS instrument approach procedure?

A

Yes

70
Q

When circling you have to maintain a distance from what portion of the airport based on your approach category?

A

Runway threshold

71
Q

The circling minimums published on the instrument approach chart provide a minimum of how many feet of obstacle clearance?

A

300 feet

72
Q

Can be initiated by either ATC or Pilot and used to expedite traffic flow

A

Visual Approach

73
Q

Contact approaches cannot be assigned by ATC and must be requested by the pilot.

A

True

74
Q

What is the term for an ATC-requested and developed departure route, typically used in busy terminal areas?

A

SID

75
Q

ODPs may be flown without explicit ATC clearance.

A

True

76
Q

When departing on a IFR flight plan, when should you turn on course (unless otherwise specified)?

A

400 ft AGL

77
Q

Obstacle departure procedures will be printed with the word OBSTACLE in the procedures.

A

True

78
Q

What does STAR stand for?

A

Standard Terminal Arrival Route

79
Q

Where does a STAR end?

A

At the beginning of an instrument approach

80
Q

When can you descend below MEA on a STAR?

A

Only if ATC assigns lower altitude

81
Q

Cleared via grants approval to fly both the lateral and vertical path of the arrival.

A

False

82
Q

When can you cancel your IFR flight plan?

A

Anytime you are in VFR conditions and outside of Class Alpha airspace

83
Q

When should you file your IFR flight plan?

A

30 minutes prior to departure

84
Q

Do you need an alternate if, between 1 hr before and 1 hr after your ETA weather is forecasted to be less than 3,000’ ceilings?

A

No, if ceilings are above 2,000’ 1 hr before to 1 hr after ETA you DO NOT need an alternate.

85
Q

Your IFR flight plan will close automatically upon landing at a non-towered airport.

A

False

86
Q

What system was recently replaced by FIS-B?

A

HIWAS

87
Q

Unscheduled weather advisory.

A

Center weather advisory

88
Q

How is FIS information sent?

A

Ground based broadcast through ADS-B network.

89
Q

Convective SIGMETs are valid for a maximum of 2 hours.

A

True

90
Q

What is NOT a level of severity to describe turbulence?

A

Mild

91
Q

Which type of Structural Icing is the most dangerous?

A

Clear

92
Q

Batteries are less powerful in the cold.

A

True

93
Q

Rime ice forms if the droplets are small and freeze immediately when contacting the aircraft surface.

A

True

94
Q

Airmet Zulu gives reporting on what weather condition?

A

Icing

95
Q

Who can you file a PIREP with?

A

ATC
Flight Service Station

96
Q

A PIREP should also be filed when the weather is better-than-forecast. A PIREP filed to report good weather is just as important as a PIREP filed to report bad weather.

A

True

97
Q

Provides a display of clouds that would be visible to the naked eye when flying above it. Allows identification of fog/low level clouds that radar imagery may not detect.

A

Satellite Imagery

98
Q

What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles?

A

Warm

99
Q

What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles on one side and triangles on the other?

A

What type of front is depicted by a line with semicircles on one side and triangles on the other?

100
Q

Surface analysis charts are issued every _____ hours.

A

3

101
Q

Uses tiny sensors to measure acceleration, and a fast computer chip analyzes those forces and calculates airplane attitude.

A

AHRS

102
Q

In a IFR lost comms situation in IMC the altitude we fly is the highest of–

A

MEA, Expected, Assigned

103
Q

What should you do if you lose comms on an IFR flight plan in VMC conditions?

A

Remain VFR and continue to nearby VFR airport

104
Q

The one instrument that utilizes the pitot tube is the ASI.

A

True

105
Q

What squawk code is used for a lost comms situation?

A

7600

106
Q

Which instruments use gyroscopes in the six pack steam gauge set up?

A

Attitude Indicator, Heading Indicator, and Turn indicator

107
Q

The pilot in command of each aircraft operated in controlled airspace under IFR shall report _____________________ to ATC any malfunctions of navigational, approach, or communication equipment occurring in flight.

A

As soon as practical

108
Q

How much fuel is required in IFR conditions?

A

Complete the flight to first airport of intended landing, plus alternate, plus 45 minutes normal cruising speed

109
Q

A systematic approach to risk assessment and stress management.

A

ADM

110
Q

What is the antidote to the Macho hazardous attitude?

A

Taking chances is foolish

111
Q

IMSAFE checklist stands for what?

A

Illness, Medication, Stress, Alcohol, Fuel, Emotion.

ATP (4 decks)

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