Elements of internantional finance Flashcards
What is spot exchange rate and forward market for currency?
Is currency only for a medium of exchange?
The spot exchange rate is the current price to exchange one currency for another in the foreign exchange market. ( for this pack home currency is pounds and foreign currency is dollar),
The forward market is where participants agree to exchange currencies at a predetermined rate on a future date, using forward exchange rates.
No currency is a financial asset.
We know that there is a lot of exchange rate risk for people and companies, hence entering into forward contracts hedge this risk, how do you denote this and spot exchange rate?
S is the spot exchange rate.
What is the forward premium/discount?
Forward premium is the annualised percentage difference between the forward rate and the spot exchange rate. ( forward premium per day) .
If the FP > 0 what does this mean. If the FP<0 what does it mean?
How are forward contracts priced?
they priced to a similar principle of the absence of arbitrage.So if there is no arbitrage an investor cannot borrows money in a country with a lower interest rate and invest it in a country with a higher interest rate , while simultaneously covering the exchange rate risk with a forward contract. The net profit should be zero,
Lets say
r is the interest rate in the home country (UK);
– r* is the interest rate in the foreign country (US).
And F is the one year forward price, no arbitrage pricing implies that the forward exchange rate = what? ( what is the overarching name given here?
In other words the one year forward rate)
f
Suppose this is violated, how can we make arbitrage? but first of all what does this mean?
When F < S * (1+r)/(1+r*), the forward exchange rate is lower than the expected future spot exchange rate. This means that the cost of converting the foreign currency back to the home currency using the forward contract is less than what it should be according to CIP ( or f you were to exchange it at the expected future spot rate.).
What is the arbitrage strategy now?
1) At t = 0 borrow $1 at the interest rate r*.
2) At t = 0 we convert the $1 into £S pounds using current spot exchange rate, then invest in UK bonds or bank account, in which we earn interest rate of r.
3) At t = 0 take long position in currency forward ( i.e commit to buy $ in one year at price $F) so we are hedging risk here because we borrowed in the uk.
4) At t = 1 we will get money from our UK investment and convert profit into $ at the forward price and repay your loan
Lets say the inequality is the other way round, then how can we make aribitrage profit? Not sure this is correct btw?
1) Borrow a certain amount of money in the home currency (GBP) at the home interest rate (r).
2) Convert the borrowed amount into the foreign currency (USD) using the current spot exchange rate (S).
3) Invest the converted amount in the foreign country (US) at the foreign interest rate (r*).
4) Simultaneously enter into a forward contract to sell the foreign currency (USD) back to the home currency (GBP) at the specified forward exchange rate (F) at the end of the investment period.
5) After the investment period ends, repay the borrowed amount in the home currency (GBP) along with the interest (1+r).
What is the CIP then investment horizon is not one year ( e.g. days? )
How can we write the forward premium approxmiation for small rates?
So tells us FP is due to interest rate differential.
What is the unbiased expectations hypothesis?
that the expected future spot exchange rate is equal to the current forward exchange rate. In other words, the market’s expectation of the future spot rate is reflected in the current forward rate ( remember these are determinant on supply and demand)
Do the same for the other way round? Why is there no arbitrage opportunity here?
If Everyone is risk neutral, the market will push the forward rate down, until the left hand side and right hand side become equal.
There is no arbitrage as investors are risk neutral, they don’t care about the risks.
What is the uncovered interest parity ( Hint it combines the CIP and UEH)? there are 2 ways we can write it?
the expected currency return = the interest rate differential between the 2 countries.
Why doesn’t the unbiased expectations hypothesis? hold in the data?
Exchange rate risk arises from fluctuations in exchange rates when investing in foreign assets. If the forward rate inaccurately predicts the future spot rate, investors may face gains or losses, leading to a demanded risk premium. This risk premium causes deviations from the unbiased expectations hypothesis and may result in a non-zero estimate of ‘a’, representing the risk premium.
Hence when testing it a doesn’t equal 0 because ’a’ is the estimate of the risk premium.