Electromagnetic Spectrum/Kepler/Motion Flashcards

1
Q

_____________ and helium, the most abundant elements in stars in the solar neighborhood, are also the most abundant constituents of the stars in all kinds of clusters.

A

Hydrogen. Open clusters have a comparable element content to that of the sun. However, globular clusters have a much lower element content. Differences in chemical composition are related to differences in stellar population.

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2
Q

The ________ and the vast majority of other stars are stable and in a steady state, neither expanding nor contracting.

A

Sun. This state of stability is called a condition of equilibrium. All the forces within it are balanced so that at each point within the star, the temperature, pressure, density, etc. are maintained at constant values.

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3
Q

A balance between the weights of various layers and the pressures that support them is called ______________ equilibrium.

A

Hydrostatic. This shows that the surface and internal temperatures of stable stars is balanced. If the internal gas pressure in a star were not great enough to balance the weight of its outer parts, the star would collapse and contract until the gas pressure inside built up to the point where it could support the star.

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4
Q

The ____________ gas law provides a mathematical relation between the pressure, density, and temperature of an ideal gas and states that the pressure is proportional to the product of the density and temperature of the gas.

A

Perfect. The gases in most stars closely approximate an ideal gas and must obey this law. The pressure is proportional to the density and temperature of the gas.

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5
Q

Energy associated with the motion of the molecules in a star is called stellar _____________ energy

A

Thermal. The thermal energy of a star is the internal heat. The heat stored in a gas is simply the energy of the motion of the particles that comprise it.

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6
Q

Energy that can be released by the collapse of a system is called ______________ energy.

A

Gravitational. Because a star is bound together by gravity, it has gravitational potential energy, as does a star cluster. If the various parts of a star fall closer together, it converts part of its potential energy into heat, some of which can be radiated away.
Because of its enormous mass, the sun need contract only extremely slowly to release enough gravitational potential energy to account for its present luminosity.

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7
Q

In the ______________ approach to the study of stellar evolution, calculations are made from the theory of stellar structure about how stars should change as they contract gravitationally or age through changes in their chemical composition produced by nuclear reactions.

A

Theoretical. A typical lifetime for a star might be something like ten billion years. The study of the changes and expected changes is then theoretical and based on speculation.

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8
Q

In the ________________ approach, stars or groups of stars are observed that are at different stages in their evolution and it is determined whether they actually exhibit the characteristics expected of them from the theoretical predictions.

A

Observational. The difficulty in the observational approach is that a star ages extremely slowly by human standards and except for those brief periods in its existence where it may be variable or explosive, we do not actually “see” a star evolving.

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9
Q

A __________ ________ is a star that has exhausted most or all of its nuclear fuel and has collapsed to a very small size and it believed to be a star near its final stage of evolution.

A

White dwarf. The predicted mean density of these stars range from about fifty thousand to over one million times that of water. At such densities, matter cannot exist in its usual state. Although it is still gaseous, its atoms are completely stripped of their electrons and the latter are obliged to move according to certain restrictive laws. The matter in white dwarfs is said to be degenerate and this category–approximately ten percent of all stars–are believed to be in the final state of stellar evolution.

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10
Q

The ________ ______________ is a sequence of stars on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (H-R diagram) containing the majority of stars and they run diagonally from the upper left to the lower right.

A

Main Sequence. The main sequence is the locus of points on the H-R diagram representing stars of similar chemical composition but different mass. The majority of stars are aligned along this section, approximately ninety percent.
About 23,000 stars are plotted on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram to show the relationship between absolute magnitude, luminosity, classification, and the effective temperature of the stars. This diagram shows that stars tend to fall only into certain regions on the diagram.

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11
Q

A _____________ is a star of large luminosity and radius.

A

Giant. A super giant is a star of very high luminosity. Less than one percent of the stars shown on the H-R diagram are believed to be classified as giant or super giant.

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12
Q

Astrophysicists typically indicate a star’s luminosity by its ___________ ______________, which is the brightness of a star as seen from a distance of 10 parsecs, or 33 light years.

A

Absolute Magnitude. This is different from apparent magnitude, which is a star’s brightness as seen from Earth.

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13
Q

The oldest assemblages of stars in the galaxy are believed to be the _____________ clusters.

A

Globular. Ages for globular clusters are now variously estimated at anywhere from ten to twelve billion years old. Globular clusters are composed of population II stars.

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14
Q

The fragmentation and vaporization of a meteorite upon entering the atmosphere is called _____________.

A

Ablation. As a meteoroid plunges into the Earth’s atmosphere at a speed of many miles per second, it undergoes many collisions with air molecules. The impinging molecules penetrate the meteoroid and chip off pieces of it. The surface of the meteoroid heats up and the dislodged particles vaporize.

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15
Q

The fraction of incident light that is reflected by a body is called its ____________.

A

Albedo. The moon’s albedo is about 0.07, which means that it reflects only about 7% of the light from the sun. It absorbs most of the sunlight.

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16
Q

Visible light is the range of electromagnetic ______________ that is detectable by the human eye.

A

Radiation. Radiation is a general term for energy emitted as particles or waves;

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17
Q

Optical astronomers use optical telescopes, such as the refracting and reflecting telescopes you learned about, to study stars based on the visible light they emit. In the 1930s, another approach to “observing” the stars was discovered, using __________ telescopes.

A

Radio. The sun and most stars release most of their radiation in the visible light spectrum. However, some objects actually emit a lot more radiation at the radio wavelengths than at those of visible light. Therefore, while they might be too dim to detect with optical telescopes, they’re very “bright” when seen with a radio telescope.

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18
Q

The ____________ form of electromagnetic radiation that exists is radio waves.

A

Longest. This leads to one of the biggest advantages of radio telescopes versus optical telescopes. A lot of times, interstellar dust grains that would be big enough to block a visible light wave would not affect a radio wave, which has a much longer wavelength. Radio telescopes allow us to probe dusty regions of space, such as nebulas, and observe the birth of stars, which are heavily shrouded in dust and impossible to penetrate with an optical telescope.
Also, as mentioned in the previous question, some objects emit more radiation in the radio wavelengths than in the visible light wavelengths. Pulsars are probably the biggest example–a lof of pulsars are not detectable by their light, but rather by their radio emissions.

19
Q

__________ rays have the shortest wavelength on the electromagnetic spectrum, having no defined lower limit to their wavelength.

A

Gamma. Astronomers could not begin observing the presence of gamma rays in the universe until the 1960s, because most gamma-rays are absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere. It wasn’t until astronomers were able to put a gamma-ray telescope in space, outside of the influence of our atmosphere, that they were finally able to begin collecting data.

20
Q

The fact that gamma rays have the shortest wavelength means that they have the highest frequency, which means that of the different types of radiation, they are the most _______________.

A

Energetic. Gamma rays are the most energetic form of electromagnetic radiation, and are typically released by the more high-energy events that occur in the universe, such as supernovae, neutron stars, solar flares, etc..

21
Q

__________ are right below gamma rays on the electromagnetic spectrum, having a slightly longer wavelength.

A

X-rays. X-rays, like gamma rays, tend to be released from high-energy sources such as remnants of supernovae, neutron stars, etc.. They have even been detected coming from some comets. X-rays are also mostly absorbed by Earth’s atmosphere, so they need to be observed from high in the atmosphere or from satellites in space.

22
Q

_____________ rays are just below visible light on the electromagnetic spectrum, having a slightly longer wavelength.

A

Infrared. Like X-rays and gamma rays, infrared rays are heavily absorbed by the Earth’s atmosphere (specifically by water vapor), so they are most effectively observed by telescopes in space. However, there are a few very high and dry locations on Earth where infrared telescopes are effective.
A couple of reasons astronomers turn to the infrared portion of the spectrum is a) to find planets (stars do not emit as much of their energy in the infrared spectrum, so planets which may be drowned out by a star’s light could be seen in infrared) b) very distant galaxies with a high redshift can be more easily visible in infrared

23
Q

An ________________ is a very simple device for detecting the presence of charged particles.

A

Electroscope. It operates on the principle that like charges repel.

24
Q

A ___________ _____________ is a more sophisticated instrument that counts radiation levels.

A

Geiger Counter. It consists of a gas-filled chamber across which an electric field is provided by oppositely charged electrodes on either side. When a high-energy charged particle enters the chamber, it ionizes some of the gas contained therein so that the gas becomes momentarily conducting. This pulse of current flowing through the tube is amplified and recorded on a meter.

25
Q

A __________ chamber, a device for detecting particles of radiation, is a chamber filled with a gas that is saturated with the vapor of water or of some other liquid.

A

Cloud. When ionizing radiation particles pass through the air, they leave a visible trail. Cloud chambers show that radiation is not merely a byproduct of modern technology–even if you don’t put some kind of radioactive material in the cloud chamber, you will see that there is a constant barrage of particles coming from natural background radiation (i.e. cosmic rays from space).

26
Q

Atomic nuclei that are observed to strike the Earth’s atmosphere with exceedingly high energies are called ___________ _______.

A

Cosmic Rays. In 1912, the Austrian physicist Victor Hess carried an electroscope up in a balloon. He found that the conductivity of the air increased with altitude. Apparently, the radiation that ionized the air came either from high in the atmosphere or from beyond the Earth. In 1928, this idea was further researched when electroscopes were sealed and put into a lake. They found that the greater the depth, the lower the radiation levels.

27
Q

Cosmic rays are affected only slightly by the _______ except during violent solar flares, which increase the energy received in the form of cosmic rays.

A

Sun. At one time it was believed that the sun was the primary source of cosmic rays, but it has since been proven that the effect of the sun is minimal except during solar flare episodes. The majority of cosmic rays approach the Earth in equal amounts from all directions, not primarily from the sun.

28
Q

Most astronomers are of the hypothesis that cosmic rays originate within the ____________.

A

Galaxy. An extragalactic origin for cosmic rays seems unlikely as these particles would spread themselves very thinly over the vast distances of intergalactic space. Therefore, an origin within the galaxy is the assumed hypothesis.

29
Q

Many astronomers feel that the most promising candidates for the origin of cosmic rays are _________________.

A

Supernovae. Supernovae are rare, but particles ejected from them and accelerated to high energies in galactic magnetic fields could be stored in the galaxy for many millions of years. If electrons are ejected in supernovae explosions, atomic nuclei are probably poured into interstellar space as well. Possibly the primary cosmic ray particles that now bombard the Earth are tiny fragments of stars that exploded millions of years ago.

30
Q

A cloud of interstellar gas or dust is called a ____________.

A

Nebula. Nebulae is the plural word and is the Latin word for clouds.

31
Q

One of the earliest catalogues of nebulous-appearing objects was prepared in 1781 by the French astronomer ___________ ____________.

A

Charles Messier. Messier was a comet hunter and he placed on record 103 objects that might be mistaken for comets. Because Messier’s list contains some of the most conspicuous star clusters, nebulae, and galaxies in the sky, these objects are often referred to by their number in his catalogue. For example, M31, the great galaxy Andromeda:

32
Q

By 1908, nearly 15,000 ___________ had been catalogued and described, with some being identified as star clusters and others as gaseous nebulae.

A

Nebulae. The efforts of William and John Herschel, Charles Messier, and J.L.E. Dreyer made this catalogue possible. A New General Catalogue was developed and most bright galaxies were given new numbers. M31, the Andromeda Galaxy, is known in the New General Catalogue as NGC224.

33
Q

A ____________ variable is a star that belongs to one of two classes of yellow supergiant pulsating stars.

A

Cepheid. The Cepheid variables are the most important link to galaxian distances. The nearest of these is the Clouds of Magellan and are only about 150,000 to 200,000 light years away from the sun. By determining the absolute magnitudes of Cepheids and other observable characteristics, distances to several neighboring galaxies in which Cepheids can be observed are estimated.

34
Q

The distances that separate galaxies are measured in the hundreds of thousands to millions of ________ _______.

A

Light Years. There are less than 20 known galaxies within 2.5 million light years (LY), but there are many thousands within 50 million LY. Galaxies extend in all directions as far as we can see.

35
Q

Johannes Kepler was an astronomer and a _________________.

A

Mathematician. He became involved with the theory of planetary motion and spent over twenty-five years in this area of study.

36
Q

Kepler developed three laws of _____________ ________.

A

Planetary Motion. Kepler’s laws were the most important contributions in Commentaries on the Motions of Mars, writings that took him over a decade to research.

37
Q

Kepler’s First Law states that each planet moves about the sun in an orbit that is an ___________, with the sun at one focus of the ellipse.

A

Ellipse. You don’t need to really understand much of the geometry of ellipses–you just need to know that an ellipse contains two points called foci (singular: focus). According to Kepler’s first law, the path that the planet follows will be an ellipse (not a circle as assumed by Copernicus!), and the sun will be located at one of the foci of that elliptical orbit:

38
Q

Kepler’s Second Law states that the straight line joining a planet and the sun sweeps out equal areas in space in equal intervals of _______.

A

Time. This one can be difficult to understand without an illustration; take a look at the graphic below. The point of this law is that when a planet is closer to the sun, it moves more quickly. Because planetary orbits are elliptical, the distance between a given planet and the sun varies. When a planet is nearest to the sun (this point is called perihelion) it is at its fastest speed; when it’s at the furthest point of its orbit (aphelion), it is slowest.

39
Q

Kepler’s Third Law states that the squares of the sidereal periods of the planets are in direct ______________ to the cubes of the semi-major axes of their orbits.

A

Proportion. This law sounds a lot more complicated than it is. A “sidereal period” is the amount of time it takes for a planet to do one complete orbit around the sun. The “semi-major” axis of an ellipse is almost like the “radius” of an ellipse.
The point of this law is that the period of time it takes a planet to orbit the sun increases rapidly with the radius of its orbit; i.e. Mercury takes 88 days while Pluto takes 248 years.
To arrive at his third law, it was not necessary for Kepler to know the actual distances of the planets from the sun, but only the distances in units of the Earth’s distance, the astronomical unit.

40
Q

An _______________ unit (AU) is approximately equal to the distance from the Earth to the sun. The currently accepted value of the AU is nearly 93 million miles.

A

Astronomical. While this distance is approximate, it gives a guideline by which other distances can be compared.

41
Q

The ______________ period is the period of revolution of one body about another with respect to the stars.

A

Sidereal. By determining the period of revolution (how long it takes to complete one orbit) of the planets around the sun with respect to the stars, the relative distances from the sun could be determined.

42
Q

The apparent period of revolution about the sky with respect to the sun of a planet is called the _____________ period.

A

Synodic. The synodic period is also the time required for the planet to return to the same configuration again (i.e. the time it requires for the moon to go from full moon to full moon). The determination of both the sidereal and synodic period of a planet is used in calculating the distance of the planet from the sun.
The difference between the synodic period and the sidereal period is that the sidereal period is the true time it takes for a planet to complete an orbit, while the synodic period is the time it takes for the planet to complete one orbit from the perspective of an observer on Earth. The sidereal period measures the orbital time from a fixed point in space, while the synodic period measures the orbital time from the perspective of Earth, which is not fixed–the Earth itself is also moving around the sun.

43
Q

By measuring the gravitational influences on other objects or on the stars within them, the _________ of galaxies can be determined.

A

Masses. Assuming that Newton’s law of gravity is valid over galaxian and extragalactic distances, internal motions in galaxies provide the most reliable methods of measuring their mass. However, this process can only be used in comparatively nearby galaxies. The rotation of the galaxy is observed and then the mass can be computed with the help of Kepler’s third law.

44
Q

The _______________ of the stars depend upon the gravitational attraction for them within their galaxy and upon the mass of the star.

A

Velocity. The velocity of a star consists of both the magnitude and direction of a star’s movement and denotes both the speed and direction a body is moving. According to Newton’s law of gravity, given a certain amount of gravitational attraction, a massive star will move more slowly than a star with less mass (obviously, a star with less mass will take less force to move).