Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

1-Physics Exam 2 > Electricity > Flashcards

Electricity Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Physics 101 flashcards AP® Physics flashcards
1
Q

What is electricity?

A

is the change in potential energy caused by the movement of electrons from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The flow of electricity is from a surplus of ______ to a deficit of the same.

A

electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is important to know about the OR?

A

has many electrical safety hazards, you must be able to identify and avoid them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the SI unit for electric charge?

A

coulomb (C)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe the relationship of coulomb’s law.

A

One coulomb is the amount of electric charge transported in one second by a steady current of one ampere.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the equation for coulomb’s law?

A

1 C = 1A x 1 s

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the electrical potential energy unit?

A

Volt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is a volt?

A

represents electrical ”pressure” or the gradient of charges that could potentially flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is coulomb’s law?

A

like charges repel each other and opposite charges attract each other inversely to the square of their distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Coulomb’s Law: Opposite charges ______ more when closer together

A

attract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Coulomb’s Law: Like charges _____ more when closer together

A

repel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is Ohm’s Law?

A

For electricity to flow, there must be a completed circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the formula for Ohm’s Law?

A 
V = I x R
V = Electrical Potential (in volts)
I = Current (in ampere)
R = Electrical Resistance (in ohms)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What does ohm’s law form?

A

The basis for the physiologic equation: BP = CO x SVR

BP = Pressure (analogous to voltage)
CO = Cardiac output (analogous to current)
SVR= Systemic vascular resistance (resistance)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is electrical potential?

A

the difference in the concentration of electrons on one side compared to the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the measurement for electrical potential?

A

The difference in the concentration of electrons on one side compared to the other

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is current?

A

Current is a measure of the amount of electric charge passing a given point per unit of time or in other words the amount of electrons that move through the conductor (electrical wire) per second.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What is the measurement for current?

A

Ampere (A)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is resistance?

A

Resistance in a measure of the opposition to the flow of electrons in an electric circuit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What does resistance determine?

A

How much current can flow in relationship to electrical potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is resistance measured in?

A

Ohm (Ω)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How do electrons flow in an electrical current?

A

From a surplus of electrons to a deficiency of electrons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What must happen for electrical flow to occur?

A

Electricity must have a complete circuit

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are three components of a simple circuit?

A

A positive side (live, hot), a negative side (neutral), and a ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What effect does the ground have in electrical flow?

A

A conductor that is connected to the earth (ground) and provides a low, resistive, alternate route for electricity to flow through in the case of an electrical surge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the the different types of electrical flow?

A

Direct current (DC) or alternating current (AC).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is DC circuits?

A

the flow of electrons is always in one direction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is AC circuit?

A

the flow of electrons reverses direction (alternates) at a set frequency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of electricity is delivered by the power company?

A

AC because its voltage can easily be maintained while traveling long distances to customers via the power grid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What type of electricity is present in the operating room equipment and most residential equipment?

A

AC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the difference between AC and DC circuit?

A

Except resistance is more complex with AC circuits, and the positive side alternates between both wires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is resistance referred to in AC circuits?

A

Impedance and is the total of all forces that impede electrical flow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What contributes to AC impedance?

A

To the inherent characteristics of the conductive material, capacitance and inductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is capacitance?

A

the capacity to store charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is a capacitor?

A

Composed of two parallel conductive plates separated by an insulator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What will occur when a capacitor is exposed to a voltage source in an open circuit?

A

One plate will store a positive charge, and the other will store a negative charge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Capacitors have useful applications in electronic devices, but can leak stray _______-.

A

capacitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What can be created from stray capacitance?

A

There are no absolute insulators, and stray capacitance may create an unintended charge in the casing of electrical equipment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What is electromagnetic inductance?

A

The transfer of an electric current between circuits without physical contact, using induced magnetic waves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Any conductors carrying an electric current will also carry a ________ field.

A

Magnetic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is important about the charge in AC circuits?

A

the charge is alternating, and so the magnetic field will change too

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What can occur as a result of a changing magnetic field?

A

May induce a small electric current in nearby conductive materials such as equipment metal casings, even in the absence of physical contact between the circuit and the casing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What can stray capacitance and inductance cause?

A

may contribute a low risk of shock, because they are low-current flows

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What constitutes a high risk of electric shock?

A

Direct contact with exposed electrical wiring because of higher voltages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What are three mechanisms that electrical shock could occur to patients and operating room personnel?

A
  • Direct wire contact with metal casing due to insulation damage or faulty construction
  • Inductance due to the magnetic field of the AC, producing a small electrical flow in the surrounding metal casing despite no direct contact
  • Stray capacitance from the buildup of electrical potentials with an AC circuit despite no closed circuit electrical flow
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Potential Shock OR:

_____________ with metal casing due to insulation damage or faulty construction

A

Direct wire contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Potential Shock OR: _________ due to the magnetic field of the AC, producing a small electrical flow in the surrounding metal casing despite no direct contact

A

Inductance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Potential Shock OR: _________ from the buildup of electrical potentials with an AC circuit despite no closed circuit electrical flow

A

Stray capacitance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What must happen for shock to occur?

A

a complete circuit must be made

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is a complete circuit?

A

If a patient or a member of the operating room personnel makes contact with both a live wire and the ground, they may complete an electric circuit and receive a shock.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What types of electric shock are there (2)?

A

macroshocks or microshocks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is a macroshock?

A

refers to large amounts of current conducted through the patient’s skin and other tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

What type of injuries can occur in macroshock?

A

Injuries may be minor or severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What two factors effect the injury obtained for a macroshock (2)?

A

The amount of current and the duration of exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

Describe the flow of electrical current within the body.

A

Electric current seeks the path of least resistance, and is often dissipated throughout the body tissues.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What effect do macroshocks have on the heart?

A

The amount that reaches the heart is often insufficient to cause arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What is microshock?

A

The delivery of small amounts of current directly to the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

What can increase the injury obtained from microshocks?

A

Conductive materials in a patient’s body may place that patient at greater risk by providing a low resistive path for electricity to flow to the heart.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What range of electrical currents can induce VF?

A

20 – 100 (microamperes) μA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are two objects that can increase the intensity of a microshock?

A

pacemaker leads or invasive monitoring catheters

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What causes injury in electrical shock?

A

Occurs from a release of thermal energy from the ES and disruption of nervous, muscular and cardiac function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Effects of Macroshock: 1 mA

A

Threshold of perception

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Effects of Macroshock: 5 mA

A

Maximum harmless current

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Effects of Macroshock: 10-20 mA

A

“Let go” current before sustained muscle contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Effects of Macroshock: 50 mA

A

Pain, LOC and possible mechanical injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Effects of Macroshock: 100-300 mA

A

Ventricular Fibrillation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Effects of Microshock: 20-100 uA

A

Ventricular Fibrillation in humans (100)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Effects of Microshock: 10 uA

A

Recommended maximum leakage current

69
Q

What is a transformer?

A

is used to isolate the electrical supply systems from one another.

70
Q

How does a transformer work?

A

uses the principle of magnetic inductance to transfer electricity from one system to another system without having physical contact

71
Q

What relationship do transformers and OR power have in common?

A

Allows the operating room power supply to be ungrounded, preventing a circuit from being completed when a person contacts one live wire and reducing the risk of shock

72
Q

In many modern hospitals, the OR power supply is isolated from ground by an ____________

A

isolation transformer

73
Q

What impact does having an ungrounded OR power supply have?

A

Preventing a circuit from being completed when a person contacts one live wire.

74
Q

Can a shock still occur in the OR even though the power supply is ungrounded?

A

If a person contacts both wires in a circuit, shock may occur as the path of electricity flows through the person from one line to the other.

75
Q

What is electrocautery?

A

devices use high-frequency electric currents to cauterize, cut, and destroy tissue

76
Q

What type of electrocautery (2)?

A

Unipolar or bipolar

77
Q

What is bipolar electrocautery?

A

Bipolar electrocautery devices have two tips: one to supply the electric current, and
the other to return the current

78
Q

Bipolar devices do not require a _____________

A

return electrode

79
Q

Which type of electrocautery is less likely to cause burns or injuries apart from the local area of use?

A

Bipolar

80
Q

What surgery uses bipolar electrocautery?

A

Abdominal surgery, the technique is required when ovary or fallopian tube electrocautery is needed to avoid possibly fatal bowel injury

81
Q

What is unipolar electrocautery?

A

Unipolar devices have only one tip to deliver an electric current, and a large surface area return electrode with good conductive contact must be placed on the patient

82
Q

What is important to know when working with unipolar electrocautery?

A

The path of current flow from the unipolar device to the return electrode should not cross the patient’s heart.

83
Q

For unipolar electrocautery, where should the return be placed?

A

Placement of the return path should be away from bony prominences and metal objects to minimize the risk for burns

84
Q

What is important to known about electrocautery and anesthesia?

A

The high current flows used in electrocautery units may cause electromagnetic inductance, which in turn may cause artifact in other electrical equipment such as ECG monitors

85
Q

What can unipolar electrocautery device may cause during surgery?

A

May cause electrical interference that could be interpreted by an AICD as a VT.

86
Q

What could happen if the AICD interprets electrical interference as VT during Unipolar electrocautery?

A

This would trigger a defibrillation pulse to be delivered to the patient and would likely cause an actual episode of VT or VF.

87
Q

During unipolar electrocautery, what is the safest approach when some has an AICD?

A

The safest approach is to disable the AICD’s ability to defibrillate.

88
Q

What is the best approach for a pt who has an AICD?

A

Manufacturers vary in ability disable AICD with a magnet so the manufacturer representative should be contacted prior to surgery for consultation and to interrogate the AICD post-operatively.

89
Q

What is electromagnetic radiation?

A

is thought to travel as photons or packets of energy, and can be observed as both a particle and a wave, depending on how scientists study and measure it

90
Q

What is unique about EMR?

A

Dual nature of behaving as both a particle and a wave

91
Q

When is EMR called a photon?

A

exhibits particle-like behavior

92
Q

What are important characteristics about EMR (2)?

A

They have no mass and are pure energy

93
Q

What influences the energy of EMR?

A

Frequency

94
Q

EMR components: Higher frequencies correspond to ________ energies

A

Higher

95
Q

EMR components: Lower frequencies correspond to ________ energies

A

Lower

96
Q

How is the velocity of EMR in a vacuum?

A

Remains constant and does not change depending on the frequency

97
Q

EMR exists independently of _______.

A

Matter

98
Q

Sound (pressure) waves do not exist without _______ through which their energy is transmitted.

A

Matter

99
Q

What are the possible interactions of EMR (4)?

A

Reflected, refracted (scattered), diffracted (redirected), or absorbed (interfered) by matter

100
Q

What can EMR be converted into (3)?

A

other forms of energy such as electricity (gas discharge), heat (incandescence), and chemical energy (photoluminescence)

101
Q

What must be obeyed when EMR is converted?

A

Law of conservation of energy.

102
Q

What happens when matter is exposed to EMR?

A

it may change form

103
Q

Why is EMR’s interaction with matter important?

A

The analysis of EMR’s interaction with matter is the underlying principle of x-ray fluoroscopy, anesthetic gas measurement, pulse oximetry, and lasers.

104
Q

What are X-Rays?

A

A form of electromagnetic waves or radiation not different from visible light except for the wave length

105
Q

What is the characteristics of X-Rays?

A

A very short wavelength equating to higher frequency

106
Q

How are X-Rays classified?

A

Penetrating abilities

107
Q

What impact do higher frequencies have, according to X-Rays?

A

Higher penetrating abilities and are less affected by the atmosphere

108
Q

What is an important component of higher frequencies?

A

More difficult to contain and harsher to life

109
Q

What can X-rays cause (2)?

A

Damage to DNA and be mutagenic (lead to cancer)

110
Q

What is needed when working with X-Rays?

A

Proper protection

111
Q

What three factors are important for X-Rays?

A

distance from source, barriers, and exposure time

112
Q

What explains how energy intensity significantly decreases when getting further away from X-rays?

A

Inverse Square Law

113
Q

What is the minimum recommended distance from a x-ray source?

A

6 feet

114
Q

Where is the greatest intensity of an x-ray?

A

directly in front of the beam generator

115
Q

Standing at least 6 feet away and behind or to the side of the beam direction ______ Xray exposure.

A

lessens

116
Q

What are lead barriers and why are they important?

A

Efficient absorbers of x-ray energy

117
Q

X-ray technicians often wear badges that measure ________ to x-rays over a period of time.

A

total exposure

118
Q

What is the relationship between X-ray exposure and risks?

A

Greater exposure to x-rays is associated with greater risks.

119
Q

What would increase the chance of maximum exposure to X-ray?

A

Unless practitioners are exposed to radiographic procedures frequently, the doses received usually fall well below established limits for maximal allowable exposure.

120
Q

What are the two most important factors that reduce X-ray exposure?

A

Shielding and distance from the x-ray source

121
Q

Where do lasers get their name?

A

acronym Light Amplification by Stimulated Emission of Radiation

122
Q

How do lasers work?

A

When many atoms of a particular matter are continually energized by incident photons while their electrons are already in a higher energy state, then photons of the same frequency and direction will be emitted as the electrons are forced down to their natural resting state. When this process is channeled through a series of mirrors in a tube, the result is a very powerful energy source (laser) emission.

123
Q

What can excite a medium in a laser?

A

Powerful electric source, effectively pumping electrons into a higher orbital sphere (stimulated absorption).

124
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the wavelength of He-Ne?

A

633 nm

125
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the wavelength of CO2?

A

10,600 nm

126
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the wavelength of Argon?

A

488 nm/514nm

127
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the wavelength of KTP?

A

1060 nm

128
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the wavelength of YAG?

A

1064-2940 nm

129
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the degree of tissue penetration for He-Ne?

A

none

130
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the degree of tissue penetration for CO2?

A

less than 0.5 mm

131
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the degree of tissue penetration for Argon?

A

0.5-2.0 mm

132
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the degree of tissue penetration for KTP?

A

0.5-2.0 mm

133
Q

Medical Lasers: What is the degree of tissue penetration for YAG?

A

2-6 mm

134
Q

What is the characteristics of He-Ne?

A

Aiming beam for invisible lasers

135
Q

What is the characteristics of CO2?

A

Highly absorbed by water

136
Q

What is the characteristics of Argon?

A

Selectively absorbed by hemoglobin

137
Q

What is the characteristics of KTP?

A

Highly absorbed by hemoglobin

138
Q

What is the characteristics of YAG?

A

Used to ablate and destroy tissue

139
Q

What is the function of laser surgery?

A

Enable very precise excision, produce minimal edema and bleeding, and are favored by surgeons for resection of tumors and other obstructions of the airway

140
Q

What type of surgeries is the CO2 laser frequently used?

A

For operations in and around the larynx, used because of its shallow depth of burn and extreme precision

141
Q

What type of surgeries is the holmium: yttrium-aluminum-garnet (Ho:YAG) laser frequently used?

A

Excellent absorption in water-rich tissues, and in otolaryngology it has been used for nasal surgeries and for tonsillectomies

142
Q

Why are laser light beams useful in surgery?

A

Thermal effect and can be used to cut, coagulate, or vaporize tissue

143
Q

What type of surgery has the greatest risk for surgical fires?

A

Head and neck surgery, due to the presence of oxygen and use of lasers

144
Q

Use of Laser mandates certain ______.

A

safety precautions

145
Q

What type of eye protection is mandatory when a Nd:YAG laser is used? Why?

A

Green-lensed, stray or reflected beams of the Nd:YAG laser are capable of traversing the eye to the retina

146
Q

What type of eye protection is mandatory when a CO2 laser is used? Why?

A

clear glass or plastic that surrounds the face

147
Q

What type of eye protection is mandatory when a potassium titanyl-phosphate (KTP) laser is used? Why?

A

Orange-red eye glasses

148
Q

What type of eye protection is mandatory when a argon laser is used? Why?

A

Orange glasses

149
Q

What are some examples of combustible OR material (3)?

A

Drapes, dressings, and linens

150
Q

Lasers are often used for ______ surgeries.

A

Otorhinolaryngologic, endotracheal tube fires can occur during these cases.

151
Q

What should be available to extinguish a ETT fire?

A

Source of saline

152
Q

What should be done if an ETT fire occurs?

A

Stop oxygen flow, stop ventilation, extubate the patient, extinguish the fire, mask ventilate, and reintubate the patient

153
Q

What must be done after a ETT fire?

A

The patient will require airway assessment and medical treatment, including bronchoscopy, lavage, and steroids.

154
Q

Why should nitrous oxide be avoided when working with lasers?

A

Combustible

155
Q

What could the laser tube cuff be inflated with to help easily detect a cuff perforation?

A

Methylene blue dyed saline

156
Q

What three components can cause a surgical fire (3)?

A

Ignition, Fuel and Oxidizer

157
Q

What is an example of ignition source?

A

Electrosurgical units, lasers, and fiberoptic light sources

158
Q

What is an example of Fuel source?

A

Surgical drapes, alcohol-based skin preparation agents, the patient

159
Q

What are examples of oxidizers?

A

Oxygen, nitrous oxide, room air

160
Q

What is a laser plume?

A

When tissues are cut by a laser, the smoke and vapors that are formed

161
Q

What effect does a laser plume have on OR personnel?

A

Environmental concern and potentially toxic

162
Q

What could potential further make the laser plumes more dangerous?

A

When the tissues vaporized by the laser are malignancies or viral papilloma, the concern arises as to whether these vapors are even more dangerous

163
Q

What should be used at the site of laser vaporization? Why?

A

Smoke evacuators, actual environmental transmittance of these pathogens is low the risk still exists

164
Q

What is the primary concern of laser safety?

A

Prevention of combustion within the airway

165
Q

What is the rate of fire occurrence in the airway?

A

Relatively uncommon (0.4%), and it is usually the result of penetration of the laser through the ETT, which exposes the beam to a rich oxygen supply

166
Q

What effect could positive pressure ventilation have on an airway fire?

A

Presence of intraluminal combustion produces a blowtorch effect that causes serious damage to the respiratory tract of the unfortunate patient.

167
Q

What safety measures should be taken during a oropharyngeal surgery (Tonsillectomy) to reduce chance of fire?

A
  • scavenge deep within the oropharynx with a metal suction cannula to catch leaking O2 and nitrous oxide (N2O).
  • Moisten gauze or sponges and keep them moist, including those with uncuffed tracheal tubes
168
Q

What safety measures should be taken during a Tracheostomy to reduce chance of fire??

A

Do not use electrosurgery to cut into the trachea

169
Q

What safety measures should be taken during a Bronchoscopic surgery to reduce chance of fire??

A

If the pt requires supplemental oxygen, keep it below 30%. Use inhalation and exhalation gas monitoring (With O2 analyzer) to confirm proper concentration

1-Physics Exam 2 (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions