Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Stuff from 3B > ELECTIVE - INTERNAL MEDICINE, OBS/GYN > Flashcards

ELECTIVE - INTERNAL MEDICINE, OBS/GYN Flashcards

1
Q

What is the cause of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Exposure to organophosphate chemicals, commonly found in pesticides.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What enzyme do organophosphates inhibit?

A

Acetylcholinesterase, leading to excess acetylcholine and nervous system overstimulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What are the muscarinic effects of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Excess saliva and tears, miosis, bradycardia, diarrhea, vomiting, sweating.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the nicotinic effects of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Muscle twitching, weakness, paralysis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What are the CNS effects of organophosphate poisoning?

A

Confusion, agitation, seizures, coma (severe cases).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the mnemonic for organophosphate poisoning symptoms?

A

SLUDGE-M (Salivation, Lacrimation, Urination, Diarrhea, GI distress, Emesis, Miosis).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is the treatment for organophosphate poisoning?

A

Atropine and pralidoxime (2-PAM).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does a high neutrophil-to-lymphocyte ratio indicate?

A

Malignancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is hyponatremia a marker for?

A

A global poor prognosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin A deficiency?

A

Night blindness, dry skin, dry eyes (xerophthalmia), immune suppression.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency?

A

Beriberi (wet: edema, heart failure; dry: neuropathy), Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin B2 (riboflavin) deficiency?

A

Sore throat, cracked lips (cheilosis), glossitis, skin rashes, photophobia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin B3 (niacin) deficiency?

A

Pellagra: Dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia, death (severe cases).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin B6 (pyridoxine) deficiency?

A

Peripheral neuropathy, irritability, depression, confusion, anemia, seizures.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency?

A

Fatigue, pallor, glossitis, peripheral neuropathy, memory loss, megaloblastic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin C (ascorbic acid) deficiency?

A

Scurvy: Bleeding gums, petechiae, joint pain, poor wound healing, fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin D deficiency?

A

Rickets (children): Bone deformities, delayed growth. Osteomalacia (adults): Bone pain, muscle weakness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin E deficiency?

A

Proximal muscle weakness, ataxia, peripheral neuropathy, hemolytic anemia.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the symptoms of vitamin K deficiency?

A

Easy bruising, excessive bleeding, prolonged clotting time, hemorrhage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are the symptoms of folate (vitamin B9) deficiency?

A

Megaloblastic anemia, fatigue, pallor, glossitis, neural tube defects in pregnancy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are the symptoms of iodine deficiency?

A

Goiter, hypothyroidism (fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance), cretinism in infants.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Why do older people have a slower inflammatory response?

A

CRP takes longer to rise.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How does IV diazepam compare to oral diazepam?

A

IV diazepam is twice as strong as oral diazepam.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What does a high neutrophil count indicate?

A

Bacterial or amoeba infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
What does a high eosinophil count indicate?
Allergy or parasite infection.
26
What does a high lymphocyte count indicate?
Viral infection or tuberculosis (TB).
27
What does low platelets with high neutrophils suggest?
Malaria.
28
What cancers can cause high platelets?
Gastric cancer, gynecological cancers, chronic inflammation, or infection.
29
What conditions cause low platelets?
Sepsis, ITP, bone marrow suppression.
30
What should you do before giving IV fluids?
Always take blood first.
31
What are the causes of hyperkalemia?
Kidney failure, ACE inhibitors, ARBs, potassium-sparing diuretics, hemolysis, burns, metabolic acidosis, adrenal insufficiency.
32
What are the causes of hypokalemia?
Diuretics, vomiting/diarrhea, malnutrition, hyperaldosteronism, insulin or alkalosis.
33
What is the free radical theory of aging?
Aging occurs due to accumulated damage from reactive oxygen species (ROS), which harm cells and DNA over time.
34
What is the wear-and-tear theory of aging?
The body and cells experience gradual wear and degradation from repeated use and stress.
35
What is the programmed longevity theory?
Aging is controlled by genes that turn on/off at specific times.
36
What is the endocrine theory of aging?
Hormonal changes regulate the aging process (e.g., reduced growth and sex hormones).
37
What is the telomere shortening theory?
Telomeres shorten with each cell division, eventually leading to cell dysfunction and aging.
38
How does alcohol cause hypoglycemia?
It inhibits gluconeogenesis by increasing NADH levels in the liver.
39
What is the function of bilirubin metabolism?
Bilirubin is processed from RBC breakdown and converted into urobilinogen, which is excreted in feces (brown) and urine (yellow).
40
What are common causes of hypersplenism?
Chronic liver disease, hematologic disorders, infections, autoimmune diseases, storage disorders.
41
What are the key features of hypersplenism?
Pancytopenia, splenomegaly, anemia, infections, bleeding tendency.
42
What is the treatment for hypersplenism?
Treat underlying cause; consider splenectomy if severe.
43
What is the normal creatinine level for men?
0.74–1.35 mg/dL (65–120 µmol/L)
44
What is the normal creatinine level for women?
0.59–1.04 mg/dL (50–90 µmol/L)
45
Name three common causes of raised creatinine.
Kidney dysfunction (CKD, AKI), dehydration, medications (NSAIDs, ACE inhibitors, antibiotics).
46
How can high protein intake affect creatinine levels?
It can transiently raise creatinine levels.
47
What are two causes of muscle breakdown leading to increased creatinine?
Rhabdomyolysis and intense exercise.
48
What type of obstruction can raise creatinine levels?
Kidney stones or urinary blockage.
49
What are the four indications for dialysis?
Uremia >30, hyperkalemia >6 despite treatment, fluid overload, acidosis.
50
What are the most common signs of acute kidney injury (AKI)?
Decreased urine output (oliguria/anuria), edema, fatigue, weakness, nausea, vomiting, confusion, SOB, hypertension, electrolyte imbalances (hyperkalemia, acidosis).
51
What are common causes of ketones in urine?
DKA, fasting/starvation, low-carb diet, alcoholic ketoacidosis, exercise.
52
Why is urinalysis not reliable for UTIs in patients over 65?
A urine culture is needed instead.
53
When should nitrofurantoin be avoided?
If eGFR is <45.
54
What is the effect of contrast on kidneys?
All contrast is nephrotoxic.
55
When should you perform an X-ray for suspected broken ribs?
If the patient has abnormal sats, reduced air entry (A/E), or a raised respiratory rate.
56
When is an X-ray not needed for suspected broken ribs?
If the patient has normal stats, no reduced air entry (A/E), and a normal respiratory rate.
57
What are the three most common paraneoplastic lung malignancies?
Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC), Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC), Squamous Cell Carcinoma.
58
Which paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with Small Cell Lung Cancer (SCLC)?
SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone secretion) and Lambert-Eaton Myasthenic Syndrome.
59
Which paraneoplastic syndromes are associated with Non-Small Cell Lung Cancer (NSCLC)?
Hypercalcemia (due to PTHrP secretion) and Clubbing (Hypertrophic Osteoarthropathy).
60
What is Squamous Cell Carcinoma frequently associated with?
Hypercalcemia due to parathyroid hormone-related peptide (PTHrP) secretion.
61
Why should angioedema not cause breathing difficulties?
Because it does not cause airway obstruction like anaphylaxis does.
62
How long should a patient with suspected angioedema be observed?
4-8 hours.
63
How does alcohol increase the risk of aspiration?
It impairs the gag reflex and suppresses the cough reflex, increasing the risk of aspiration of oral or gastric contents into the lungs.
64
How does chronic alcohol use weaken immune function?
It reduces the activity of alveolar macrophages and neutrophils, which are critical for fighting lung infections.
65
What nutrient deficiencies are common in alcoholics that impair immune function and wound healing?
Zinc and Vitamin C.
66
How does hypokalemia (low potassium) affect digoxin?
It enhances digoxin binding, increasing its effects and toxicity risk (e.g., arrhythmias).
67
How does hyperkalemia (high potassium) affect digoxin?
It reduces digoxin’s effectiveness by decreasing its binding.
68
What are the major criteria for diagnosing a condition associated with streptococcal infection?
Carditis, Polyarthritis, Chorea (Sydenham’s Chorea), Erythema Marginatum, Subcutaneous Nodules.
69
What is carditis, and how does it present?
Pancarditis (affects myocardium, endocardium, and pericardium), commonly presenting as murmurs (e.g., mitral regurgitation).
70
What type of arthritis is seen in the major criteria for streptococcal-associated conditions?
Migratory arthritis affecting large joints (knees, ankles, elbows, wrists).
71
What is Sydenham’s chorea?
Involuntary, irregular movements that may appear months after a streptococcal infection.
72
What is erythema marginatum?
A pink, non-pruritic, serpiginous rash on the trunk and proximal limbs.
73
What are subcutaneous nodules, and where do they appear?
Firm, painless nodules over bony prominences or tendons.
74
What are the minor criteria for diagnosing a streptococcal-associated condition?
Fever (>38.5°C), Arthralgia (if arthritis is not a major criterion), Elevated Acute Phase Reactants (ESR or CRP), Prolonged PR Interval on ECG (if carditis is not a major criterion).
75
What is the diagnostic requirement for a streptococcal-associated condition?
2 major criteria OR 1 major + 2 minor criteria, plus evidence of a preceding streptococcal infection.

Stuff from 3B (3 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions