eLearning Flashcards

1
Q

List the indication for insertion of an ICP monitor

A

GCS 3-8 after resuscitation and abnormal CT (haematomas, contusions, swelling, herniations, compressed basal cisterns)
Severe TBI (GCS≤8) + normal CT with two or more risk factors for ICH
* Age>40
* Unilateral/bilateral motor decorticate / decerebrate motor posturing
* SBP<90mmHg

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2
Q

List the advantages and disadvantages of intraventricular catheter

A

Advantage
* More reliable method of assessing ICP
* Allows CSF drainage when ICP is elevated
* CSF sampling possible
* Can be recalibrated in situ
Disadvantages
* Infection risk
* Difficulty inserting if brain swelling
* May become blocked
* Migration
* Must be kept at a fixed reference point (zero to the level of Foramen of Monroe)

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3
Q

Name the anatomical landmark for insertion of ICP monitor

A

Kocher’s point (1~2cm anterior to the coronal suture in the mid-pupillary line)

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4
Q

List the complications of ICP monitor insertion

A

Mechanical complications
* Breakage of catheter
* Dislocation of the bolt
* Removal of the catheter
Haemorrhage
Infection
ICP drift

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5
Q

What is normal CSF pressure on LP

A

8~24 cm

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6
Q

What is normal CSF cell count on LP

A

No red cells
<5 white cells

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7
Q

What is normal CSF protein count on LP

A

0.15-0.45 g/L

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8
Q

What is normal CSF glucose count on LP

A

70% serum glucose

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9
Q

List the most frequent indications for LP

A

Meningitis
Encephalitis
Subarachnoid haemorrhage
Idiopathic intracranial hypertension
Guillain-Barré syndrome
Multiple sclerosis

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10
Q

List the contraindications for LP

A

Intracranial neurological disease / raised ICP
Obstruction
Coagulopathy
Infection

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11
Q

When should you do a scan before LP

A

Focal signs
Papilloedema
Seizure
Impaired consciousness
Immunosuppression

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12
Q

List the complications of an LP

A

Headache worse on sitting/standing (risk reduced by smaller/blunt needles)
Backache
Infection
Nerve root irritation during the procedure
Venous sinus thrombosis

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13
Q

How is the L3/4 space identified for LP

A

Imaginary line from tip of the right anterior superior iliac crest perpendicular to the spine

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14
Q

How many samples are taken for LP

A

At least 3 samples in sterile plain bottles and one in fluoride tube for glucose
* Samples 1 and 3 to microbiology for cell count and culture
* Sample 2 and fluoride to biochemistry for protein and glucose. Wrapped in silver foil if investigating for SAH
* Cytology if investigating for malignancy

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15
Q

What is CSF positive for 14-3-3?

A

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

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16
Q

List the common indications for placement of VAD

A

Hydrocephalus
Intrathecal administration of chemotherapy
Adjuct to III ventriculostomy (aspirate CSF should there be concerns re ventriculostomy function)

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17
Q

What site is selected for placement of ventricular catheter in EVD

A

Frontal horn of the right lateral ventricle

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18
Q

What is the site for burr hole in EVD

A

Kocher’s point: 1~2 cm anterior to coronal suture in mid-pupillary line (3cm from the midline)
Alternatively: 11cm superior and posterior to the nation and 3cm from the midline

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19
Q

Give the anatomical landmark for targets for ventricular catheter

A

Intersection of the lines from ipsilateral medial canthus and the ipsilateral EAM at 90 degrees to the cortex

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20
Q

List the complications for EVD

A

Infection
Intraparenchyma/Intraventricular haemorrhage
Extra-ventricular placement

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21
Q

How long can an EVD catheter stay in for

A

7 days

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22
Q

When would bilateral EVDs be needed

A

Acute hydrocephalus from III ventricle lesions eg. colloid cysts

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23
Q

What is the depth of the frontal horn of the lateral ventricle from the skull

A

5cm

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24
Q

Head Injury - what should be clearly and accurately documented on initial assessment

A

Time and mechanism of injury
On scene GCS
Any delay in achieving adequate ventilation
GCS prior to intubation
Pupil size and reflexes

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25
Q

Head Injury - what blood investigations should be sent for on initial assessment

A

FBC
Electrolytes
Clotting screen
Sample for transfusion (group and save / cross match)

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26
Q

What should be ordered for head injury patients on warfarin

A

Prothrombin complex concentrate

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27
Q

Describe the CT appearance of cerebral contusions

A

Intraparenchymal patchy hyperdensity most commonly in the frontal and temporal lobes

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28
Q

Head injury - what happens when patient is unable to consent for surgery due to consciousness level / capacity

A

Surgeon should act in the best interest of the patient (consent form 4)

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29
Q

List the indications for urgent surgery in head injury

A

Extra-axial haematoma (CT mass effect + low consciousness level)
Haemorrhagic contusions
Penetrating injury
Depressed skull fracture
Diffuse axonal injury (ICP monitor)

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30
Q

What is important to ensure when using head clamp for trauma craniotomy

A

Pins are not placed over any skull fractures

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31
Q

Trauma craniotomy - if the brain is very contused / swells out of the craniotomy following evacuation of the haematoma, what should be done

A

Dura should not be closed, the bone flap may be left out

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32
Q

What is the anatomical relationship between coronal suture and the motor strip

A

Motor strip lies 2.5cm behind coronal suture

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33
Q

When inserting an EVD prior to posterior fossa surgery, where should the entry point for the occipital burr hole be

A

3cm lateral, 6cm cranial to the inion
EVD inserted targeted at the contralateral medial canthus

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34
Q

Describe the positioning and support for frontal burr holes

A

Position - supine with head in neutral position
Support
* Horseshoe / head ring.
* Pins if craniotomy likely to be needed

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35
Q

Describe the positioning and support for parietal/temporal burr holes

A

Position - supine with neck rotation and sandbag under the shoulder.
* Avoid heads up positioning in CSDH
Support
* Horseshoe / head ring.
* Pins if craniotomy likely to be needed

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36
Q

Describe the positioning and support for occipital burr holes

A

Position - prone with some flexion of the head.
Support - head pins

37
Q

Where should the exit site for subgaleal and extraventricular drains be

A

5cm away from the wound

38
Q

How should bleeding from skull addressed

39
Q

What size blade is used for cruciate durotomy

40
Q

How can post-op haematoma be prevented during surgery

A

Meticulous haemostasis
Before closing, ask anaesthetist to bring BP up to pre-op levels. (Haemostasis at higher BP)

41
Q

List the steps to assessing post-op haematoma

A

ABC
GCS - is this less than the pre-op status?
Wound - is it full, tense/blood seeping through the wound?
Drains - full/blocked?
Lateralising neurology - locates haematoma

42
Q

How is the age of blood on MRI assessed

A

Hyper-acute - T1 isodense T2 dark
Acute - T1 bright T2 dark
Sub-acute - T1 bright T2 bright
Chronic - T1 dark T2 dark

43
Q

What is the appearance of very acute blood with ONGOING active haemorrhage on a CT scan?

A

Mixed density, mostly hyperintense (lighter) but some areas of hypointensity (darker)

44
Q

What is the appearance of acute blood that has stopped actively bleeding on a CT scan?

A

Uniformly hyperintense (lighter) than brain tissue

45
Q

What is the annulus fibrosis made of

A

Type 1 collagen

46
Q

What is the nucleus pulposus made of

A

95% water, proteoglycans, type 2 collagen

47
Q

What is the embryological origin of nucleus pulposus

48
Q

Describe where the anterior longitudinal ligament is

A

Anterior edge of the vertebrae and extends from the skull base to the sacrum

49
Q

Describe where the posterior longitudinal ligament is

A

Posterior edge of the vertebral bodies and forms the anterior wall of the spinal canal from C2 to sacrum

50
Q

What is the cranial extension of the posterior longitudinal ligament

A

Tectorial membrane

51
Q

Why is ligament flavum yellow

A

Rich in elastin

52
Q

Describe where the ligamentum flavum is

A

Runs between the laminae, extends from C2 to S1

53
Q

List the ligaments of the spine

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal ligament
Intertransverse ligament
Interspinous ligament
Supraspinous ligament
Ligamentum flavum

54
Q

What does the posterior longitudinal ligament become at C2 level

A

Tectorial membrane

55
Q

List the ligaments at C1/C2

A

Anterior longitudinal ligament
Posterior longitudinal / tectorial membrane at C2
Cruciate ligament
Transverse ligament
Apical ligament
Alar ligament
Atlantooccipital membrane
Atlantoaxial membrane

56
Q

Where is the transverse ligaments of C1 and what does it do?

A

Runs between the inside faces of the C1 lateral masses behind the odontoid peg
Prevents C1/C2 subluxation

57
Q

Where is the alar ligaments of C1/C2 and what does it do?

A

Runs from the side of the odontoid peg to the skull base
Resists side to side movements of the head

58
Q

Moral spine movement - how much can the spine rotate

A

C1/C2: 45 degrees
C3-T8: 7~10 degrees
Rest: 4 degrees

59
Q

Moral spine movement - how much can the cervical spine flex/extend

A

C0/1 15 degrees
C2/3 7 degrees
C5-7 20 degrees

60
Q

What anatomical landmark can be used to assess the sagittal and coronal balance of spine

A

C7 plumb line

A plumb line dropped from the middle of C7 vertebrae should pass through the back of the L5/S1 disc space - sagittal balance
Bisect the pelvis - coronal balance

61
Q

Define the Dennis 3 column theory of spinal stability

A

Three anatomical columns. If one is damaged, the injury is stable. If two are damaged is unstable.

Anterior - anterior 2/3rds of the vertebral body + ALL
Middle - posterior 1/3rd of vertebral body + PLL
Posterior
* Pedicles
* Lateral mass
* Lamina
* Spinous and transverse processes

62
Q

Does the C7 vertebrae have a transverse foramen

A

Yes.
But the vertebral artery does not run through it.

63
Q

Give the Punjabi and White definition of spinal instability

A

The loss of ability of the spine under physiological loads to maintain relationships between vertebrae in such a way, that spinal cord or nerve roots are not damaged or irritated and deformity or pain does not develop.

64
Q

Does lumbar disc protrusion affect the nerve above or below the disc

65
Q

Do nerve roots exit above or below the pedicle

66
Q

What does a lateral/posterolateral disc prolapse compress

A

The transiting nerve root as it appears from the thecal sac and travels down the spinal canal
IE: L5/S1 prolapse will press on the transiting S1 nerve root but spare the exiting L5 root

67
Q

What will a far-lateral disc prolapse compress

A

The exiting nerve root within the foramen at the disc level
IE: L5/S1 far-lateral disc will compress the exiting L5 nerve root in the L5/S1 foramen but will not involve the transiting S1 nerve root

68
Q

95% of lumbar disc prolapse occur at which level? Which age group and gender are most affected?

A

L4/L5 and L5/S1 level
Most common between 30 and 50
Male preponderance

69
Q

DIsc prolapse at which level causes foot drop

A

L4/5 with compression of L5 nerve root

70
Q

List the symptoms of S1 root compression

A

Pain + numb form posterior thigh and calf to lateral heel and foot
Diminished ankle jerk
Weak plantar flexion
Limited straight leg raising

71
Q

List the symptoms of L5 root compression

A

Pain down postero-lateral thigh, calf, and dorsum of the foot
Numb on the outside of shin, foot, and great toe
Weakness in extensor hallucis longus, foot drop
Restricted straight leg raise
No reflex loss specific to this level

72
Q

List the symptoms of L4 root compression

A

Pain down anterior thigh and medial leg
Numb above and below the knee
Weak knee extension
Depressed knee jerk
Straight leg raise may be normal

73
Q

How much is straight leg raise (Lasegue’s sign) positive in L5/S1 involvement

A

83%
Reproduces radicular symptoms in the leg
Ankle dorsiflexion can augment the pain

74
Q

Described the crossed straight leg raise (Fajersztajn test)

A

SLR on the asymptomatic leg causes pain in the opposite leg
More specific of disc prolapse

75
Q

What is the femoral stretch test (reverse SLR) positive in

A

L2, 3, 4 root compression

76
Q

How to measure urinary retention in CES

A

Post-void residual volume

77
Q

Distinguish CES vs conus lesion

A

Radicular pain
* CES - More severe
* Conus - Less severe
Back pain
* CES - less
* Conus - more
Sensory symptoms
* CES - saddle area, asymmetrical
* Conus - perianal area, symmetrical
Sensory dissociation
* CES - No
* Conus - Common
Motor weakness
* CES - asymmetrical
* Conus - symmetrical
Reflexes
* CES - reduced
* Conus - increased
Sphincter dysfunction
* CES - late
* Conus - early
Bulbocavernosus reflex
* CES - diminished
* Conus - increased
Impotence
* CES - less frequent
* Conus - frequent

78
Q

List the red flag features in CES

A

Severe low back pain
Bilateral sciatica
Saddle/genital numbness
Bladder, bowel, sexual dysfunction
Not passing urine for 6 hours

79
Q

Distinguish CES with retention (CESR) and incomplete CES (CESI)

A

CESR - painless retention with overflow incontinence
CESI - altered urinary sensation, loss of desire to void, poor stream, strain when passing urine

80
Q

List the non-surgical treatment approaches to disc herniation

A

Bed rest (<4 days)
Activity modification - avoid heavy lifting, prolonged sitting, or extremes of lumbar spine movement
NSAIDs, opioids, gabapentin, pregabalin, amitriptyline
Physical therapy

81
Q

List the surgical treatment approaches to lumbar disc prolapse

A

Epidural steroid injection (interlaminar, transforaminal, caudal)
Microdiscectomy

82
Q

List the indications for elective surgery in lumbar disc prolapse

A

Painful motor deficit
Progressive symptoms
Lack of symptom control
Recurrent disease

83
Q

List the independent predictors of good outcome following discectomy

A

No pre-operative co-morbidity
Sciatica <6 months duration
No back pain
Absence of previous surgery
No work-related / compensation issues
Positive SLE without back pain
Crossed leg pain
Radicular pain to the foot
Loss of reflexes
Type of disc herniation

84
Q

List the complications of lumbar discectomy

A

CSF leak from dural tear
Neural injury with persistent deficit
Bladder/bowel, sexual dysfunction
Infection, discitis
Residual disc
Recurrent disc herniation (15%)
* Recurrence in the immediate post-operative period is seen in up to 8% cases
Bleeding - epidural haematoma
Peridural fibrosis
Back pain
Abdominal vessel injury (aorta/iliac)
Wrong level surgery

85
Q

What is the first choice for investigating CES

86
Q

In adults, where is cerebral ischaemic injury most marked

A

Arterial watershed areas eg. borders of anterior and middle cerebral arteries
Summer’s sector of the hippocampus
Basal ganglia
Purkinje cell layer of the cerebellum

87
Q

What bone is often fractured in extradural haemorrhage

A

Squamous temporal bone

88
Q

List the grading for traumatic axonal injury

A

Grade 1 - axonal damage
Grade 2 - axonal damage + haemorrhagic lesions in corpus callousum
Grade 3 - axonal damage + haemorrhage lesions in corpus callousum and brainstem