Elderly Medicine Flashcards

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1
Q

Why might a stool sample be useful in investigating GI infection?

A
  • microscopy, culture & sensitivity
  • clostridium difficile screening
  • virology
  • to look for ova, cysts and parasites
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2
Q

When might abdominal USS and CT abdomen be performed when investigating GI infection?

A

Abdominal USS:

  • this is the primary imaging technique when biliary infection is suspected

CT abdomen:

  • this is the imaging technique of choice when other causes of intra-abdominal infection are suspected
  • e.g. abscess, diverticulitis
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3
Q

What are sterile site samples?

Why might these be performed?

A
  • collection of fluid or tissue from deeper sources of infection
  • MC&S of intra-abdominal fluid should be completed when possible to guide antimicrobial therapy
  • samples are taken directly from the site of infection at the time of the intervention
  • samples are more likely to represent the “true” pathogen
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4
Q

What are drain samples?

What is the problem when interpreting these samples?

A
  • involves taking fluid from drains that have been placed previously, typically from collecting bags
  • results must be interpreted with caution as they may represent colonisation of the drain and not the “true” pathogen
  • this is a non-sterile sample
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5
Q

What would the diagnosis be in this scenario?

What antibiotics would be started?

A
  • acute bacterial gastroenteritis - campylobacteriosis
  • you would NOT want to start antibiotics as the patient is not in a high risk group
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6
Q

After identifying a case of acute bacterial gastroenteritis in the patient who should be notified?

Does the patient need to be put into source isolation?

A
  • PHE should be notified when any new case of food poisoning is found
  • This could be a sporadic case or it could be part of an outbreak that you are unaware of
  • the patient is from a long-term care facility and there may be potential implications in food handling at that premises
  • it depends on local policy, but this patient will probably not be put into source isolation as direct person-to-person spread is rare, especially if the patient is continent
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7
Q

What is the definition of acute gastroenteritis (food poisoning)?

What typically causes it and what accompanying symptoms may be present?

A
  • an illness of < 14 days duration characterised by the presence of diarrhoea
    • this means there are 3 or more loose stools per day or bloody stools
  • accompanying symptoms may be abdominal pain / cramps, nausea, vomiting and fever
  • typically a self-limiting illness
  • it is usually caused by ingestion of food or water contaminated by GI flora
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8
Q

What pathogens are associated with causing acute gastroenteritis?

A
  • Campylobacter spp.
  • Salmonella spp.
  • Shigella spp.
  • certain strands of E. coli, viral and protozoans
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9
Q

What are the risk factors for acute gastroenteritis?

A
  • increasing age > 60 or age < 5 years old
  • eating raw or undercooked foods
  • farmers or workers in the meat industry
  • foreign travel
  • eating out
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10
Q

When is antibiotic treatment recommended for acute gastroenteritis?

A
  • only for patients who can develop complications from acute gastroenteritis
  • this includes pregnant women, those on immunosuppression therapy and those with symptoms lasting over a week
  • most other patients have no adverse consequences and derive no benefit from antibiotic therapy, so treatment is NOT recommended
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11
Q

How should acute gastroenteritis be reported?

What advice is given to patients?

A
  • cases of infective gastroenteritis should be reported to PHE, particularly those involving food handlers
  • highlight the importance of hand hygiene, food hygiene and disinfection of bedding
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12
Q

What is the diagnosis?

How is this diagnosis made?

A

Clostridium difficile infection

  • diagnosis is made by the presence of loose stools (type 5 - 7) and positive Clostridium difficile test or clinical suspicion while awaiting confirmatory tests
  • things that raise clinical suspicion in this case:
    • long course of ciprofloxacin
    • description of the stools - green, slimy and offensive smelling
    • accompanied with fever
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13
Q

How would you confirm the presence of Clostridium difficile?

A
  • take a stool sample for “Clostridium difficile testing”, which involves:
  • GDH (glutamate dehydrogenase) screen to determine if clostridia are present
    • this does not tell you whether the clostridia present are producing toxins
    • clostridia are present in many asymptomatic people
  • cytotoxin assay to determine if toxin is actively being produced
  • if both GDH screen and cytotoxin assay are positive, then clostridium difficile infection can be diagnosed
  • PCR for toxin genes may be performed to determine if toxin genes are present
    • ​this shows the ability to produce toxin in the future, even if it is not currently being produced
    • this patient might be at risk of future C diff diarrhoea so might want to consider rationing antibiotics
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14
Q

What other investigations might be performed in someone with suspected C diff infection?

A
  • FBC, U&Es, LFTs and lactate
  • abdominal X-ray and/or CT abdomen to look for colitis in more severe disease
    • e.g. distension of the bowel or toxic megacolon
  • these are only performed if there are abdominal clinical signs e.g. stomach cramps
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15
Q

What factors predispose to developing C diff infection?

A
  • old age (> 65 years)
  • being in hospital
  • previous antimicrobial therapy
    • especially 2nd (e.g. cefuroxime) and 3rd (e.g. cefotaxime) generation cephalosporins
    • co-amoxiclav
    • clindamycin
    • quinolones (e.g. ciprofloxacin)
  • long duration of antibiotic use (> 7 days)
  • multiple antibiotic courses
  • severe underlying disease
  • presence of nasogastric tube
  • non-surgical gastrointestinal procedures
  • proton pump inhibitors
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16
Q

What is involved in the non-antimicrobial management of someone with C diff infection?

A
  • fluid resuscitation and electrolyte replacement as appropriate
  • immediate instigation of isolation policy and clostridium difficile Infection Control Policy
  • review ALL antimicrobials and any medicines that can produce diarrhoea
  • record stool frequency and consistency daily on a Bristol Stool Chart
  • daily monitoring for signs of increasing severity of disease
  • review and stop PPIs if appropriate
  • dietetic input and review in patients with a malnutrition universal screening tool score of 2 or more
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17
Q

When should treatment for C diff infection be started?

What is involved in the antimicrobial management of C diff infection?

A
  • treatment should be started if clinical suspicion is high, while awaiting toxin result
  • the choice of antimicrobial depends on severity of disease, the number of co-morbidities and the number of episodes of CDI
  • PO Vancomycin or PO Fidaxomicin are used
  • PO metronidazole is less commonly used as it has been shown to be less effective
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18
Q

What are the indications for using oral vancomycin?

Why is IV vancomycin usually used?

A
  • it is only indicated in non-severe to life-threatening Clostridium difficile infection
  • when given orally, it only works in the intestines and is NOT absorbed
  • IV vancomycin is used to treat a variety of infections
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19
Q

What is the mode of action of oral vancomycin?

A

it inhibits cell wall synthesis in gram positive bacteria

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20
Q

What bacteria does oral vancomycin work on and why?

Do serum levels need to be monitored?

A
  • it is not absorbed orally so it only works on bacteria that are present within the lumen of the intestines
  • serum levels do not need to be monitored when given orally as it is not absorbed
21
Q

What pathogens is oral vancomycin active against?

What potential resistance exists?

A
  • it can be active against Gram-positive organisms:
    • clostridia
    • staphylococci
    • streptococci
    • enterococci
  • vancomycin resistant enterococci (VRE) are resistant to vancomycin
22
Q

What are the clinical indications for fidaxomicin?

What are the benefits to using this instead of vancomycin?

A
  • indicated in mild to severe clostridium difficile infection
  • when given orally it only works in the intestines and is NOT absorbed
  • it is more expensive than vancomycin, but reduces the risk of recurrent CDI
23
Q

What is the mode of action of fidaxomicin?

What pathogens is it active against?

A
  • it inhibits bacterial RNA polymerase
  • it is only active against Clostridium difficile
24
Q

How does fidaxomicin work to treat CDI?

A
  • it is not used to treat any other infections as it is poorly absorbed from the GI tract
  • it kills Clostridium difficile within the intestinal lumen effectively with less disruption to the normal gut flora
25
Q

What are the possible side effects associated with Fidaxomicin?

A

Allergy:

  • rash, difficulty breathing, swelling of the face, lips, tongue or throat

GI side effects:

  • nausea and vomiting
  • constipation
26
Q

What is meant by the “gut microbiome”?

What are its functions?

A
  • the microbiome refers to the millions of micro-organisms that live in and around the body
  • the gut microbiome is composed of trillions of bacteria that provide a physical barrier to more harmful bacteria
    • they compete for space and nutrients which limit the potential for pathogenic bacteria to multiply
  • functions of the gut microbiome include:
    • ​aid digestion
    • regulation of the immune system
    • protection against infection
27
Q

How can antibiotic use affect the gut microbiome?

A
  • antibiotic use disrupts the gut microbiome, leading to a disbalance of bacteria populations
  • this creates an ecological niche for C. difficile spores to germinate
28
Q

Why is Fidaxomicin the preferred antibiotic to treat C. diff infection?

A
  • it causes less disruption to the gut microbiome
  • this means there is less capacity for C. difficile spores to germinate and produce recurrent infection
  • this is known as colonisation resistance, which is provided by an intact gut microbiome
29
Q

What is the diagnosis here?

How can you tell?

A

cholecystitis

  • this is inflammation of the gallbladder
  • diagnosis can be made from clinical signs:
    • jaundice / scleral itcerus
    • fever
    • RUQ guarding / pain
    • Murphy’s sign positive
30
Q

What is the difference between calculous and acalculous cholecystitis?

A
  • calculous cholecystitis occurs as a result of cystic duct obstruction from cholelithiasis
    • this is the presence of gallstones in the cystic duct
  • acalculous cholecystitis does not involve gallstones
    • ​it is less common and mainly seen in critically ill patients
31
Q

What signs are typically present on examination of someone with cholecystitis?

How is the diagnosis confirmed?

A
  • Murphy’s sign will be positive
    • this involves inspiratory arrest during RUQ palpation due to pain
  • there will be fever and RUQ guarding
  • diagnosis is made clinically but confirmed via ultrasound
  • bloods will also show deranged LFTs in a cholestatic pattern
    • ​raised bilirubin and ALP
32
Q

How should patients with cholecystitis be investigated?

What does this typically show?

A
  • FBC, LFTs, U&Es, CRP
  • blood culture to identify the causative organism
  • ultrasound will demonstrate duct dilatation and/or gallstones
    • dilatation implies an obstruction further down the duct, causing it to dilate prior to the obstruction
33
Q

What organisms typically are found to be causing cholecystitis?

A
  • it is most commonly caused by Gram negative bacilli - especially E. coli
  • if there is an E. coli bacteraemia then consider a biliary source of infection
  • enterococci, streptococci and anaerobes can also be found so empirical antibiotic management needs to cover all these organisms
34
Q

How can you assess whether someone has had an allergic reaction to a beta lactam antibiotic?

A
  • What antibiotics has the patient reacted to in the past?
    • decribe the nature of each reaction
    • sometimes a patient will describe a side effect, rather than an allergic reaction
  • When did the reaction take place?
    • how long after administration?
    • type 1 reaction is immediate (< 1 hour) and is typically mediated by penicillin specific IgE
  • What is the nature of the reaction?
    • e.g. diarrhoea, rash, swelling, difficulties breathing
  • If there is a rash, how can it be described?
    • e.g. maculopapular, pustular, bullous, urticarial
  • Did the reaction resolve on cessation of antibiotics?
35
Q

How would you manage a patient who had a suspected penicillin allergy?

What antibiotic may they be given for cholecystitis?

A
  • document the penicillin allergy IMMEDIATELY
  • commence antibiotics based on blood culture results
  • they may be given aztreonam, which has purely Gram-negative cover
  • metronidazole is often given too as this has anaerobe cover
36
Q

What would the diagnosis be in this situation?

Why would you be concerned about the recent MSU results?

A

complicated acute diverticulitis

  • this is acute diverticulitis accompanied by an abscess, fistula, bowel obstruction or perforation
  • there are 2 MDR organisms in the urine, which indicates their presence in the colon of this patient
37
Q

What other investigations would you want to perform in suspected acute complicated diverticulitis?

A
  • blood cultures
  • aspiration / drainage of the abscess
  • review the history of UTIs and repeat MSU to see if the resistant organisms are still present
38
Q

How would you treat the patient with complicated acute diverticulitis?

A
  • ensure the patient is in source isolation as both ESBL and VRE are transmissible
  • consider washout or aspiration of the abscess
  • discuss with microbiology over the blood culture results to determine which antibiotic is most suitable
39
Q

What is the difference in what you are looking for in a sterile sample compared to a non-sterile sample?

A
  • in a non-sterile sample, such as a stool sample, you are looking for the presence of particular bacteria
  • there will be lots of bacteria present, but you are looking for a particular organism
  • when sampling a sterile space, the presence of any bacteria is significant as there should be no bacteria present here
40
Q

What are the clinical indications for using tazocin (piperacillin / tazobactam)?

A
  • complicated infections involving GI, urinary, soft tissues and respiratory (including COPD and HAP) systems
  • febrile neutropenia
  • it is a broad-spectrum antibiotic that has gram-positive, gram-negative and anaerobic cover
41
Q

How does piperacillin/tazobactam work?

How is it given to patients?

A
  • piperacillin inhibits the bacterial cell wall by binding PBP
  • tazobactam inhibits B-lactamases, which prevents destruction of piperacillin
  • it is only given IV and is widely distributed in tissues
42
Q

What are the side effects of piperacillin/tazobactam?

What organisms is it effective against?

A
  • the only side effect is diarrhoea
  • it is active against urinary pathogens:
    • Gram positive - staphylococci, streptococci, some enterococci
    • Gram negative - proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella, pseudomonas
    • anaerobes
  • resistance is becoming more common in Gram negatives - ESBLs / CPE
43
Q

What are the clinical indications for aztreonam?

How does it work?

A
  • complicated infections involving GI, respiratory, MSK and genito-urinary systems
  • it inhibits the bacterial cell wall by binding PBP
44
Q

How is aztreonam given to patients?

Can it be used in penicillin allergy?

A
  • it is available IV, but not orally
  • it is widely distributed in tissues
  • it is available in nebulised form for chest suppression therapy in CF
  • it is safe to administer in penicillin allergy (caution in CF group)
    • there is a small ris of cross reactivity with ceftazidime
45
Q

What organisms is aztreonam effective against?

A
  • it is active against Gram-negative organisms only
    • e.g. proteus, E.coli, Klebsiella and Pseudomonas
  • resistance is becoming more common - ESBL and CPE
46
Q

What are the clinical indications for use of tigecycline?

How is this given to patients?

A
  • complicated infections involving GI and skin/soft tissue
  • it is not a first line choice and is not to be used if the patient is septic
  • it is indicated in multiple resistances and/or allergies
  • it is only available IV and is widely distributed in tissues
47
Q

How does tigecycline work?

What caution is associated with using this antibiotic?

A
  • it inhibits the bacterial 30S ribosomal subunit and inhibits protein synthesis
  • it should be reserved for use in situations when alternative treatments are not suitable as clinical trials have shown possible increased mortality
48
Q

What organisms is tigecycline effective against?

A
  • it is active against urinary pathogens:
    • Gram-postive - staphylococci, streptococci and enterococci
    • Gram-negative - proteus, E. coli, Klebsiella
    • anaerobes
  • it is not active against pseudomonas
  • it can be used against ESBL, VRE and MRSA