Elderly Medicine Flashcards

1
Q

What should be included in a medical history?

A
  • Current reason for his admission
  • Falls history
  • Assessment of cognition
  • Continence assesment - bladder and bowels assessment
  • PMH and disease severity
  • Current medication list and complicance
  • Drug allergies
  • Social and functional history - who do they live with. How are they supported and by whom. Mobilising. Shopping cleaning
  • Alcohol and smoking
  • Systemic enquiry
  • Wishes and advanced decisions
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What should be used when assessing old people?

A

Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What does Comprehensive Geriatric Assessment look at?

A
  • Problem list
  • Medication review
  • Nutritional status
  • Mental health
  • Functional capacity
  • Social circumstances
  • Environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is poly pharmacy?

A

Looking at 6 or more drugs being prescribed at any one time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What should you do whenever you prescribe a drug?

A
  • Check the correct agent is prescrined
  • Drug allergies
  • Interactions with other drugs
  • Use genetic drug names and write them down in capitals
  • Don’t use abbreviations
  • Dose, frequency and times and route of administration are clearly identified. Include a start date
  • Be cautious using decimal points
  • Units rather than u
  • Print name as well as signing if on a paper chart
  • Review medications daily
  • Stop those not needed
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the importance of discharge planning?

A
  • Agree care pathways of the older persons
  • Give a patient centred perspective approach
  • Discharge arrangements should maximise the quality of life and promote independence
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is section 2?

A
  • Section 2 - referral is made to social services to assess funding. e.g a care home or direct payments.
  • Social worker is then allocated to the patient/ service user and will be responsible for putting together an appropriate packet of care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is section 5?

A
  • Sent by nursing staff to social services alerting them to the fact that the patients has been declared as ‘medically stable for discharge’
  • Once recieved the designated socail worker is expected to take decisive action towards discharge
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do discharges involve?

A
  • Medication to take home
  • Transport
  • Therapy assessment - OT, physio
  • Restarting package of care
  • Outpatient/ user appointment
  • District nurse referral if required/ palliative or community led referral if warranted
  • Transfer back letter for residential nursing home
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why do discharges fail?

A
  • Patient/ user health complications
  • Communication breakdown
  • Family decisions
  • Decisions around funding
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are the geriatric giants?

A
  • Falls
  • Incontinence
  • Dementia/ delirium
  • immobility
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

How are falls usually classed?

A
  • Syncopal
  • Non syncopal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What questions should be asked in a falls history?

A
  • What were they doing?
  • How did the fall happen?
  • How did you feel before the fall?
  • Dizziness or lightheadedness
  • Loss of consciousness?
  • cardiac sx?
  • Did they have weakness anywhere? DId you lose control of your waterworks?
  • Has this happened before?
  • Have they had any near misses before?
  • What medication are they on? sedatives, hypoglycaemic, opiates, opiates, cardiac medicatiom/
  • How do they normally mobilise?
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What should a falls examination focus on?

A
  • Mobility assessment - mobilise, with what and gait
  • Cardiovascular examination - ECG/ lying and standing BP
  • Neurological examination
  • MSK examinartion - joint function
  • Assess osteoporosis risk!
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is delirium?

A
  • Acute confusional state, with sudden onset and fluctuating course
  • Develops over 1-2 days and is recognised by a change in consciousness
  • Can be caused by an underlying medical problem, substance intoxication and substance withdrawal
  • Common in older persons, with sensory and cognitive impairment
  • It can be:
    • Hyperactive: restlessness, mood lability, agitation, or aggression
    • Hypoactive: slow and withdrawn
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What are the clinical features of delirium?

A
  • Globally impaired cognition, perception, and consciousness which develops over hours/days
  • Marked memory deficit, disordered or disorientated thinking, and reversal of the sleep–wake cycle.
  • Some patients experience tactile or visual hallucinations.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are some of the causes of delirium?

A
  • Surgery
  • Systemic infection: pneumonia, uti, malaria, wounds, iv lines.
  • Intracranial infection or head injury.
  • Drugs/drug withdrawal: opiates, levodopa, sedatives, recreational.
  • Alcohol withdrawal (2–5d post-admission; ↑lfts, ↑mcv; history of alcohol abuse).
  • Metabolic: uraemia, liver failure, Na+ or ↑↓glucose, ↓Hb, malnutrition (beriberi, p[link]).
  • Hypoxia: respiratory or cardiac failure.
  • Vascular: stroke, myocardial infarction.
  • Nutritional: thiamine, nicotinic acid, or b12 deficiency.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What are some of the risks associated with delirium

A
  • Increased mortality
  • Prolonged hospital admission
  • Higher complication rates
  • Institutionalisation
  • Increased risk of developing dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the 8 signs of delirium?

A
  • Disordered thinking
  • Euphoric, fearful, depressed or angry
  • Language impaired
  • Illusions, delusions, hallucinations
  • Reversal of sleep awake cycle
  • Inattention
  • Unaware/ disorientated
  • Memory deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

How is delirium investigated?

A
  • Look for the cause (eg UTI, pneumonia, MI)
  • Bloods: FBC, UE, LFT, blood glucose, ABG, septic screen (urine dipstick, cxr, blood cultures)
  • Further investigations: ECG, malaria films, LP, EEG, CT
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some of the RFs for delirium?

A
  • >65y
  • Dementia/previous cognitive impairment
  • Hip fracture
  • Acute illness
  • Psychological agitation (eg pain)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

How is delirium managed clinically?

A
  • Reorientate the patient: explain where they are, who you are at each encounter; hearing aids/glasses. Visible clocks/calendars
  • Visits from friends and family
  • Monitor fluid balance and encourage oral intake
  • Look for constipation.
  • Mobilize and encourage physical activity.
  • Practise sleep hygeine: restrict daytime napping, minimize night-time disturbance.
  • Avoid or remove catheters, iv cannulae, monitoring leads and other devices (Î infection risk and may get pulled out).
  • Watch out for infection and physical discomfort/distress.
  • Review medication and discontinue any unnecessary agents.
  • Pharmacological: Sedation: only if the patient is a risk to their own/other patients’ safety (never use physical restraints).
    • Haloperidol 0.5–2mg,
    • Chlorpromazine 50–100mg po if poss: avoid in elderly and alcohol withdrawal
    • Avoid antipsychotics with Parkinson’s disease or Lewy body dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is dementia?

A
  • A neurodegenerative syndrome with progressive decline in several cognitive domains
  • Occurs over several months
  • Affects many different areas of function: retaining new information, managing complex tasks, language and word finding, behaviour, orientatio, recognition, ability to self care and reasoning
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What are the types of dementia?

A
  1. Alzheimers Disease - Most common (75%)
  2. Vascular dementia (25%)
  3. Lewy body dementia (15-25%)
  4. Parkinson’s disease with dementia
  5. Frontotemporal dementia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

How is dementia diagnosed?

A
  • History from the patient with a thorough collateral narrative:
    • Timeline of decline and domains affected
    • Activities of daily living
  • Cognitive assessment:
    • ​Validated dementia screen: AMTS
    • Mental state examination: anxiety, depression, or hallucinations
  • Investigations: ↑tsh/↓b12/↓folate, ↓thiamine (eg alcohol), ↓Ca2+.
    • MSU, FBC, ESR, UE, LFT, glucose
    • MRI: subdural haematoma, normal-pressure hydrocephalus11), vascular damage or structural pathology.
    • Functional imaging (FDG, PET, SPECT)
    • Consider EEG: suspected delirium, frontotemporal dementia, cjd, or a seizure disorder.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is Alzheimers disease?

Who does it affect?

How does it present?

A
  • Most common dementia form
  • Insidious onset with slow progression
  • Adults: >40
  • CT Brain imaging may show hippocampal/ cortical atrophy
  • Plaques and neurofibriliary tangles

Presentation

  • Behavioural problems
  • Progressive, and global cognitive impairment: visuo-spatial skill, memory, verbal abilities, and executive function (planning)
  • Anosognosia—a lack of insight into the problems engendered by the disease, eg missed appointments, mishandling of money.
  • Later: irritability; mood disturbance (depression or euphoria)
  • Behavioural change: aggression, wandering, disinhibition)
  • Psychosis (hallucinations or delusions)
  • Agnosia (may not recognize self in the mirror).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the cause or pathophysiology of Alzheimers?

A

APP (amyloid precursor protein) degradation

B amyloid peptide accumulation in neurones

Neuronal damage + neurofibrillary tangles

↓ ACh neurotransmitter ↓

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the sx of Alzheimers?

A
  • Progressive, and global cognitive impairment
  • Visuo-spatial skill, memory, verbal abilities, and executive function (planning)
  • Anosognosia —a lack of insight into the problems engendered by the disease
  • Irritability and mood disturbance (depression or euphoria)
  • Behavioural change (aggression, wandering, disinhibition)
  • Psychosis (hallucinations or delusions)
  • Agnosia (may not recognize self in the mirror).
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the RFs for Alzheimers?

A
  • 1st-degree relative with AD
  • Down’s syndrome
  • Vascular risk factors: ↑bp, diabetes, dyslipidaemia, ↑homocysteine, af
  • physical/cognitive activity; depression; loneliness
  • Genetics: apoe4 allele on chromosome 19
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

How is Alzheimers managed?

A
  • Mild: Refer to a specialist memory service, group cognitive stimulation therapy
  • 1st: Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors:
    • Donepezil
    • SE: peptic ulcer disease + heart block - check sx + perform ECG
      • Rivastigmine
      • Galantamine
  • 2nd: memantine (NMDA-r antagonist)
  • BP control: HF 2x ↑risk
  • Anti psychotics: only if pt are a risk, severe agitation etc.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is vascular dementia?

A
  • Second most common
  • Chronic progressive disease causing cognitive impairment.
  • Cumulative effect of many small strokes: sudden onset and stepwise deterioration
  • Affects executive functions of the brain such as planning more than memory.
  • Early changes: Motor and mood changes
  • Look for evidence of arteriopathy
  • Vascular RFs: >60, obesity, hx of stroke, smoking, hypertension
    • ​Others: DM, high cholesterol, alcohol
  • CT/ MRI Imaging: suggests vascular disease - shows cerebrovascular lesion​
  • Treatment:
    • Modify RFs
      • ​Statins, diabetes control, HT control, anti platelet
        • Do not use acetylcholinesterase inhibitors or memantine in these patients.​
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

What is Lewy Body dementia ?

A
  • Gradually progressive
  • Presents:
    • Auditory and visual hallucinations.
    • Delusions are well formed and persistent.
    • Cognitive fluctuations in cognition, attention, and arousal
    • Motor sx: bradykinesia +/- rest tremor, rigidity, or both
  • Dementia first, parkinsonism later (Parkinsons is the other way round)
  • Histology: Lewy bodies (alpha synuclein) in substantia nigra in brainstem and neocortex.
  • Management:
    • Avoid using antipsychotics in Lewy body dementia (↑↑risk of SE) - e.g. haloperidol
    • Short acting benzodiapines: lorazepam
    • Anti cholinesterase inhibitors: donepazil
    • Atypical anti psychotics: quitiepine
    • If w depression: give SSRI: sertraline
    • Motor sx: carbidopa/levodopa
33
Q

What is frontotemporal dementia?

A
  • Early onset
  • Presentation:
    • Complex behaviour, language dysfunction possible
    • Coarsening of personality, social behaviour, and habits
    • Behavioural/personality change; disinhibition; hyperorality, stereotyped behaviour, and emotional unconcern.
    • Progressive loss of language fluency or comprehension
    • Development of memory impairment, disorientation, or apraxias
  • Diagnostic fx:
    • ​Age of onset: peak mid 50s
    • FH of FTD
    • Altered eating habits
  • Imaging: Frontal and temporal atrophy: loss of >70% of spindle neurons.
    • Pick inclusion bodies on histology
  • Management:
    • Supportive
    • If irritable: Anti psychotics: 1: lorazepam, 2, haloperidol
    • SSRIs: sertraline
      *
34
Q

What are the types of incontinence?

A
  • Stress incontinence
  • Urge incontinence
  • Overflow incontinence
  • Functional incontinence
  • Mixed incontinence
35
Q

What is stress incontinence?

A
  • RFs: Increasing age, obesity, women
  • Small volumes leak out during increased intra abdominal pressure
  • Common in pregnancy and following birth
  • Examine for pelvic floor weakness/prolapse/pelvic masses
  • Management:
    • Pelvic floor exercises, exercise, weight loss
    • Duloxetine
    • Tension free vag tape
36
Q

What is urge incontinence?

A
  • Frequent voiding
  • Cannot hold urine
  • Urge to urinate quickly followed by uncontrollable and sometimes complete emptying of the bladder as the detrusor muscle contracts
  • Nocturnal incontinence common
  • Overactive bladder: Detrusor overactivity
  • Management:
    • Conservative: bladder retraining, fluid moderation, avoid caffeine
    • Pharm: Antimuscarinics:
      • 1st: oxybutinin, tolterodine sr 4mg/24h;
      • 2nd: solifenacil
    • Surgery: neuromodulation, sacral stimulation
37
Q

What is over flow incontinence?

A
  • Due to urinary retention
  • Obstructive symptoms
  • Often found in men with enlarged prostate
38
Q

What is functional incontinence?

A
  • When physiological factors are relatively unimportant.
  • The patient is ‘caught short’ and too slow in finding the toilet because of (for example) immobility, or unfamiliar surroundings.
39
Q

What should a continence history focus on?

A
  • How people void
  • Frequency
  • Symptoms
  • Oral intake
  • Types of drinks consumed
  • Bowel habit - stool type + frequency
  • Drug history
40
Q

What is covered in a continence history?

A
  • Review of bladder and bowel diary
  • Abdo exam
  • Urine dipstick + MSU
  • PR examination - prostate exam in male
  • External genitalia - atrophic vaginitis in women
  • Post micturition bladder scan
41
Q

How is urge incontinence managed?

A
  • Conservative: Avoid caffeine, good bowel habit, Improving oral intake, regular toileting and pelvic floor exercise, bladder retraining
  • Pharmacological: Anticholinergics
    1. Oxybutinin - young people
    2. Tolteridine - not for old ppl -> causes postural hypotension or solefenacil
  • Surgery: botox/ neuromodulator or sacral stimulation
42
Q

How do you manage bladder incontinence?

A
  • Stress incontinence: duloxetine 40mg / 12hr PO (se: nausea)
  • Urge: Anticholinergics -
    1. Oxybutinin - young people
    2. Tolterdine - not for old ppl -> causes postural hypotension or solefenacil
43
Q

Why are the elderly prone to faecal incontinence?

A
  • Rectum becomes more vacous as we age
  • External anal sphincter can gape (haeamarrhoids, constipation)
  • Old people cannot exert the same intra abdominal pressure and muscle tension required to defaecate
44
Q

What should you be concerned about with faecal incontinence?

A

Spinal cord pathology - urgent management required

45
Q

What is the most common cause of faecal incontinence?

A
  • Faecal impaction with out flow diarrhoea (50%)
  • 2nd: neurological dysfunction
46
Q

How is faecal incontinence diagnosed?

A

PR exam

47
Q

What should we assess in the PR exam?

A
  • Rectum
  • Prostate (men)
  • Anal tone
  • Sensation
  • Visual inspection around anus
  • Stool type (soft, hard)
48
Q

If you find faecal/ urinary incontinence what must you do?

A

Check for the other

If you find urinary, check for faecal etc

49
Q

What are some of the more extreme complications of faecal impaction?

A
  • Stercoral perforation
  • Ischaemic bowel
50
Q

How are hard impacted stools managed?

A
  • Enemas: some may not work if the rectum is loaded with hard stool and will fall out
  • Stool softeners
  • Stimulants
  • Extreme cases: manual evacuation (risk of perforation)
  • In older pt make sure any drug that causes constipation as a SE is prescribed with a laxative?
51
Q

How is chronic diarrhoea managed in the elderly?

A
  • Treat underlying causes: bowel imaging, stool culture
  • Remove causative medications
  • Regular toileting
  • Low dose loperamide
  • Eneme regimines
52
Q

What is a TIA?

A
  • Focal neurological deficits due to a blockage of a blood supply to a part of the brain
  • Symptoms lasting <24h
53
Q

What are some of the signs of TIA?

A
  • Specific to the arterial territory involved
  • Amaurosis fugax - when retinal artery is occluded
  • Global events (eg syncope, dizziness) are not typical
54
Q

What are some of the causes of TIAs?

A
  • Atherothromboembolism from the carotid: listen for bruits
  • Cardioembolism: mural thrombus post-mi or in af, valve disease, prosthetic valve
  • Hyperviscosity: eg polycythaemia, sickle-cell anaemia, myeloma.
55
Q

What investigations are required for TIA diagnosis?

A
  • fbc, esr, u&es, glucose, lipids, cxr, ecg,
  • Carotid Doppler ± angiography
  • CT/ MRI
  • Echocardiogram.
56
Q

What are some of the sx of stroke?

A
  • Unilateral weakness or parlaysis
  • Aphasia
  • Ataxia
  • Dysphagia
  • Diplopia
  • Vision loss
57
Q

What treatment is given for TIAs?

A
  • Control cardiovascular risk factors: bp; hyperlipidaemia, stop smoking
  • Antiplatelet drugs: aspirin 300mg od for 2wks, then switch to clopidogrel 75mg od
  • Carotid endarterectomy: Perform within 2wks of first presentation if 70–99% stenosis
  • Give anticoagulants if cardiac emboli caused it
58
Q

What is used to predict the short term risk of TIA -> progressing to stroke?

A
  • ABCD2
  • Look at the following factors: age, BP, clinical features, duration of sx, diabetes)
  • =>4 - Higher risk
  • =>6 - Strongly predicts stroke
59
Q

What is a stroke?

A
  • Infarction or bleeding into the brain manifests with sudden-onset neurological deficit
  • Sx >24 hours
60
Q

How are strokes broadly caused?

A
  1. Infarct
  2. Haemmorhage
61
Q

How are strokes classified?

A
  • Bamford Classification - Haemmorhagic - Classifies vascular territory involved
  • TOAST classification - Ischaemic - aetiology of infarcts
    *
62
Q

What are the causes of stroke?

A
  • Small vessel occlusion/cerebral microangiopathy or thrombosis in situ.
  • Cardiac emboli
  • Atherothromboembolism (eg from carotids)
  • CNS bleeds: ↑bp, trauma, aneurysm rupture, anticoagulation, thrombolysis
63
Q

What are the modifiable RFs of stroke?

A

↑bp, smoking, dm, heart disease (valvular, ischaemic, af), peripheral vascular disease, ↑pcv, carotid bruit, combined ocp, ↑lipids, ↑alcohol use, ↑clotting (eg ↑plasma fibrinogen, ↑antithrombin iii, p[link]), ↑homocysteine, syphilis.

64
Q

How are strokes acutely treated pharmacologically?

A
  • Thrombolysis: As soon as haemorrhage has been excluded, symptoms must be ≤4.5h ago: Alteplase
    • ​CT 24h post-lysis to identify bleeds
  • Anticoagulants: aspirin 300mg (for 2 wks, then switch to long-term antithrombotic treatment,
65
Q

How else do you manage a stroke (think non pharmacologically)?

A

Protect the airway:

Maintain homeostasis:

  • Blood glucose: 4–11 mmol/L.
  • Blood pressure: only treat if there is a hypertensive emergency (eg encephalopathy or aortic dissection)
  • Screen swallow: ‘Nil by mouth’ until this is done (but keep hydrated).
  • CT/MRI within 1h: Essential if: thrombolysis considered, high risk of haemorrhage (↓GCS, signs of ↑ICP, severe headache, meningism, progressive symptoms, bleeding tendency or anticoagulated), or unusual presentation (eg fluctuating consciousness, fever).
  • Diffusion-weighted MRI is most sensitive for an acute infarct, but ct helps rule out primary haemorrhage

Haemorrhoagic stroke: Antiplatelet agents: aspirin 300mg (continue for 2 weeks, then switch to long-term antithrombotic treatment)

  • Orally - is not dysphagic, enterally if yes

Ischaemic stroke: Thrombolysis: sx ≤4.5h ago.2 Alteplase. CT 24h post-lysis to identify bleeds

66
Q

What are the different types of stroke?

A
  • TACS - Total anterior circulation stroke - worst prognosis
  • PACS - Partial anterior circulation stroke
  • LAC - Lacunar stroke
  • POCS - Posterior circulation stroke
67
Q

What assessment tools are used for the rapid assessment of a pt with suspected stroke?

A
  • FAST - Face (drooping), Arms (weakness), Speech (slurred), Time (time to call 999)
  • ROSIER - Used to help medical staff distinguish between a stroke and a stroke mimic.
  • NIH stroke sale - clinical stroke assessment - measures stroke severity. Scores on all levels of consciousnes, language, neglect, visual field loss. extra ocular movement, motor strength, ataxia, dysarthria, sensory loss.
68
Q

What is the criteria for carotid endoarterectomy?

A
  • Carotid artery stenosis: 50-99% with stable neurological symptoms from stroke / TIA
  • Refer within 1 week of stroke or TIA symptoms sx
  • Assess fitness for surgery (risk of stroke in surgery)
69
Q

What is one of the risks of severe MCA infarction?

A

Malignant MCA syndrome

  • Consider for decompressive hemicraniectomy
  • Referred within 24 hrs of sx onset and treated withn 48hrs
  • <60 yo, CT infarct of at least 50% MCA territory and NIHSS > 15 hours
70
Q

What are some of the stroke mimics?

A
  • Seizures
  • Space occupying lesions
  • Hemiplegic migraine
  • Multiple Sclerosis
  • Sepsis
  • Pre neurological weakness
71
Q

How do you decide if someone is suitable for anti coagulation?

A
  • CHAD-VASC - determining if someone is suitable for anticoagulation - AF + risk of stoke
  • HASBLED

Warfarin vs DOAC

72
Q

Post stroke, what other complex decisions need to be decided?

A
  • DNAR
  • NG and PEG
  • Enteral feed - without risk
  • Aspirational threat
73
Q

How is palliative care now provided?

A
  • Previously Liverpool Care Pathway but this is no longer used
  • Care is now individualised for each patient.
74
Q

How can end of life phases be recognised:

A
  • Bed bound
  • Semi comatose
  • Only takes sips of fluid
  • Unable to take mediine orally
  • Sx: pain, nausea. vomiting, dyspneao, agitation, confusion, constpitation, anorexia, terminal secretion
75
Q

What should we continue to provide for end of life care

A
  • Personal care
  • Obs stopped
  • Dental and mouth care
  • Macmillan nurses and palliative care team
76
Q

When is a death certificate given?

A
  • To be completed by doctor that has cared for pt in last 14 days to complete death certificate
  • Pupils: fixed and dilated
  • No response to pain
  • No breath/ heart sounds after 1 min of auscultation
  • Pt transported tm mortuary and bereavement
77
Q

Who is cremation paperwork completed by ?

A
  • Two doctors
    • Part 1 - Completed by a doctor who knows the pt
    • Part 2 - Independent doctor. 2 years post reg. Seeking confirmation of the cause of death from a variety of course
  • Remember: pacemarkers and radiactive implants must be removed before cremation
78
Q

When should a death be reported to a coroner?

A
  • Occurs as a result of poisoning
  • Trauma, violence and physical injury
  • Related to treatment or procedure
  • Injury or disease received during or attributed to persons work
  • Notifiable accident, poisoning or disease
  • Neglect or failure
  • Unnatural death
  • Death occured in custody
  • No attending practitioner attended decreased within 14days prior
  • Unknown identify