Elderly care Flashcards

1
Q

Deficiency In B12 Results in what type of anaemia

A

Macrocyctic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Comment on this chest x-ray

A

Anterior posterior chest x-ray = hard to comment on any cardiomegaly
Multiple pleural plaques (calcified)
Sternotomy suture can be noted

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Especially if they involve the diaphragmatic pleura

Multiple Bilateral Calcified pleural Plaques Indicate What exposure.

A

Asbestos exposure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Incidental findings of non-symptomatic pleural plaques require treatment?

A

Not really, no Follow-up needed unless the patient becomes symptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Not COPD

The spectrum of asbestos-related thoracic disease include:

A
  • Benign pleural effusion
  • Pleural plaques
  • Diffuse pleural thickening
  • Atelectasis
  • Asbestosis
  • Mesothelioma
  • Lung cancer
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

In women presenting with frailty fractures what is the age cut-off between further testing needed versus presumed osteoporosis

A

75

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In a woman presenting with a Frailty fractureb Under the age of 75 What further investigations are indicated?

A

DEXA scan + calcium and vitamin D bloods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the T score needed to diagnose osteoporosis

A

-2.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

A patient post DEXA scanAs indicated to have mineral density suggestive of severe osteoporosis what additional investigations should be done

/Could be done

A
  • Calcium + vitamin D
  • Parathyroid hormone + thyroid
  • Bone turnover markers

A myeloma screen (urine and plasma electrophoresis), immunoglobulins and liver function tests would be additional tests to consider

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are some important considerations when starting on alendronic acid

A
  • Only taken once a week
  • Contraindicated in peptic ulceration/significant swallowing difficulties

Taken 30 minutes before breakfast with a full glass of water and remaining upright/standing 30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

For patients who are unable to swallow alendronic acid what is NICEs recommended alternative

A

Denosumab

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the single best means of Distinguishing between delirium And pre-existing dimension

A

Collateral history from relatives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The PINCH ME pneumonic is useful for identifying causes of delirium.What are these causes?

Everyone loves a pneumonic (This one is a bad one)

A
  • Pain
  • INfection
  • Constipation
  • DeHydration
  • Medication
  • Environment
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Is low lighting helpful in delirium

A

Not exactly, while it may seem soothing it can cause shadows which can be miss perceived

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What would be first-line Drug treatment in managing a patient with delirium

A

Low dose lorazepam (0.55 mg orally)

Drug treatment should Always be a last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What would be first-line Drug treatment in managing a patient with delirium

A

Low dose lorazepam (0.55 mg orally)

Drug treatment should Always be a last resort

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Salbutamol can cause what electrolyte imbalance

A

Hypokalaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Hyperparathyroidism does what you Serum calcium

A

Hypercalcaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Aminobisphosphonate =

A

Alendronic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the therapeutic concentration of Digoxin

A

1 to 2 Micrograms/mL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What are some common symptoms of digoxin toxicity

A
  • Nausea and vomiting
  • Diarrhoea
  • Hallucinations
  • Visual disturbance
  • Drowsiness
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is important to consider when prescribing erythromycinIn a patient on Digitoxin

A

Erythromycin is a very potent hepatic enzyme inhibitor and will inhibit the metabolism of many drugs, This can result digoxin toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Mechanism of action of warfarin?

A

It acts by antagonising the effects of Vitamin K

24
Q

Prevention of DVT/PE and surgical patients is done how pharmacologically

A

Usually low molecular weight heparin e.g. Enoxaparin tinzaparin
At prophylactic dose

25
What Coagulation pathway does Warfarin effect
Extrinsic
26
What is the recommended INR range for prevention of strokeIn patients with AF patients who have already suffered a stroke?
2-3
27
Patients who have had prosthetic heart valve replacements are at higher risk of VTE; therefore, the recommended INR range in this population is usually?
3-4
28
As warfarin contraindicated In a patient who has a history of falls
Not exactly, nice recommends to use The HAS-BLED tool to identify those at high risk of bleeding
29
How does Cranberry juice affect warfarin
It has been found to enhance the effects therefore increasing INR
30
Delirium is the syndrome characterised by
an acute confusion state associated with marked fluctuations in orientation and conscious level, including periods of lucidity.
31
A Total Anterior Circulation Stroke syndrome requires all three of the following to be present:
1. Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of face arm and leg 2. Homonymous hemianopia 3. Highest Cerebral dysfunction (Dysphasia, visuospatial disorder)
32
The most common site of occlusion for an TACI is the
Middle cerebral artery
33
Anterior Circulation Infarcts are much less common than either MCA or Posterior occlusions(True or false)
True
34
Advice for acute management of ischaemic strokes With acute hypertension is generally to avoid treating hypertension, what are the exceptions to this?
When there is: * Hypertensive encephalopathy * Hypertensive neuropathy * Hypertensive cardiac failure * Aortic dissection * Preeclampsia/Eclampsia
35
Polypharmacy is an important risk factor for falls and should be considered in all patients prescribed more than How may medications?
4
36
How can citalopram cause hyponatraemia
Citalopram is an SSRI, these can cause syndrome of inappropriate secretion of antidiuretic Hormone and Subsequently cause hyponatraemia
37
In a adult over the age of 55 the most appropriate first-line antihypertensive would be a calcium channel blocker (or thiazide diuretic) however is this still the case in a type II diabetic?
A ACE inhibitor would be preferred here
38
In a adult over the age of 55 the most appropriate first-line antihypertensive would be a calcium channel blocker (or thiazide diuretic) however is this still the case in a type II diabetic?
A ACE inhibitor would be preferred here
39
Recurrent laryngeal nerve palsy Can present with
A horse/weak voice
40
Superior vena cava obstruction Can present with
* Swollen plethoric face and neck * Distended neck veins + chest Veins * Elevated JVP (absent Pulsation) * Headaches
41
Horner's syndrome can present with
* Miosis (pupil constriction) * enophthalmos (Sunken eyes) * Ptosis * Ipsilateral anhydrousis
42
Primary lung tumours can metastasise to:
* Bone * Brain * Liver * Adrenals
43
Eton lambert syndrome typically occurs in association with
Small-cell lung cancer
44
Eton lambert syndrome affects
Muscle fatigability of the proximal limbs and trunk. Autonomic involvement is common = dry mouth, hyperreflexia. Repeated muscle contractions lead to increased strength and reflexes (unlike myasthenic syndrome It is associated with small-cell lung cancer | (Rarely eyes) ## Footnote It is the pre synaptic membrane that is affected (unlike myasthenia)
45
Describe a classic presentation of HHS | hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
* Elderly patientWith type II diabetes (possibly undiagnosed) * Unwell for about a week * Marked dehydration * glucose of >35mM | Acidosis is absent as there has been no switch to ketone metabolism.
46
What is the most important element of treating HHS | hyperosmolar hyperglycaemic state
Rehydration (probably intravenous) | Once hydration has begun may require only small doses of insulin ## Footnote atients may have lost 8-10 litre of fluid
47
A postitive postural BP test is said to occur when there is:
* A drop in systolic BP of 20mmHg or more (with or without symptoms). * A drop to below 90mmHg on standing even if the drop is less than 20mmHg(With or without symptoms) * A drop in diastolic BP of 10mmHg with symptoms
48
What other two agents (first-line and last line) used to treat postural hypertension
1. Fludrocortisone 2. Midodrine
49
Some investigations are always performed routinely in patients with confusion.In BSUH it is called Geriatric Admission Profile (GAPS) and includes:
* U&E, * FBC * LFT * glucose * CRP * calcium * B12 & folate * ferritin, iron and transferrin * TFT * vitamin D
50
Subdural haematomas appear How on CT?
concave medially, this means that they appear as a crescent shaped pool of blood between the skull and the brain tissue
51
What does this show
Right-sided mixed density subdural haematoma
52
Subdural bleeding and rebleeding is usually due to damage which structures
tearing of fragile, bridging subdural veins (not arteries).
53
‘Osborn’ or ‘J’ waves can occur in ?
Hypothermia
54
Why is it important to re-warm elderly patient slowly who have hypothermia?
rapid rewarming may cause vasodilatation → shock → death. | rate of re-warming is between 0.5-2 degrees per hour
55
alopecia areata, myxoedema and erythema ab igne are all associated with?
hypothyroidism
56
Vitiligo appears as?
hypopigmented patches, sometimes with hyperpigmented borders. It is associated with autoimmune disorders.