Eksamen 2015 Flashcards

1
Q

1a) What is the definition (approximately of Information security according to ISO27001?

A

(i) confidentiality, (ii) integrity, (iii) availability, (iv) other security
properties, expressed in def. approximately as: ”The preservation of confidentiality,
integrity and availability of information; in addition, other properties such as
authenticity, accountability, non-repudiation and reliability can also be involved.”

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2
Q

1b) What is the definition (approximately) of confidentiality according to ISO27001?

A

Confidentiality is the property that information is not made
available or disclosed to unauthorized individuals, entities, or processes.
Subtract 1p in case of missing therm (un)authorized.

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3
Q

1c) What does “Give the interpretation of authorization consistent with the definition of confidentiality” mean?

A

Meaningful authorization is “to specify AC policy (i.e. access privileges)

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4
Q

1d) What does “Give the other (inconsistent) interpretation of authorization often found in text books.” mean?

A

Inconsistent authorization is that “the system grants the user access

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5
Q

1e) Mention the 3 main categories of security controls, with one example from each

A

i) Physical Controls, ii) Technical Controls and iii) Admin. Controls

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6
Q

1f) In which aspect is non-repudiation of data origin stronger than data authentication ?

A

Non-repudiation can provide proof of data authenticity to third parties. Data
authentication can only prove authenticity to intended recipient of data.

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7
Q

2a) Mention two situations when increased support to a staff member and special monitoring of
her/his integrity could be appropriate in order to reduce the risk of insider threats.

A

i) For staff who are working in highly trusted/sensitive positions.
ii) For staff in a difficult personal situation such as conflict, personal problems, job loss.

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8
Q

2b) Which type of vulnerability is exploited by social engineering attacks?

A

Social engineering attacks exploit vulnerabilities in humans, such as human
ignorance, gullibility and lack of awareness.

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9
Q

2c) Awareness can be seen as an intrusion detection function for stopping social engineering
attacks. Unfortunately people can make errors of judgment when trying to detect attacks.
In this scenario, what would be: i) a false positive, and ii) a false negative detection?

A

i) False positive is when staff misjudges a genuine colleague to be an attacker.
ii) False negative is when staff misjudges an attacker to be a colleague.

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10
Q

2d) Explain the consequence on i) the false-positive rate, and ii) the false-negative rate in case a
company implements a practice aimed at stopping all social engineering attacks.

A

i) It would give a relatively high false positive rate,

ii) It would give relatively low false negative rate.

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11
Q

2e) The terms private key and firewall represent security metaphors. Explain why they can be
bad metaphors that can cause misunderstanding of the security concepts they represent.

A

i) Private key can be misunderstood as giving privacy. In reality it decrypts
private (confidential) data, or it provides integrity protection for public data.

ii) Firewall can be misunderstood as an impenetrable barrier (analogous to
physical firewall) that stops all (malicious) traffic. In reality it is a security filter where
the achieved security (i.e. percentage of blocked attacks) depends on filtering rules.

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12
Q

3b) Mention the 2 factors that determine the strength of a threat agent (attacker).

A

i) Capacity, i.e. skills and resources to attack

ii) Motivation to attack

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13
Q

3c) Mention 2 typical approaches to identify relevant threat scenarios.

A

i) Attacker-Centric threat identification,
and
ii) System-Centric (aka. SW, design or architecture centric) threat identification, a
or
iii) Asset-Centric threat identification.

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14
Q

3d) Assume that a relevant threat scenario has been identified. Briefly describe the 2 main factors
that influence the likelihood of the threat scenario to happen.

A

i) The attacker (threat agent) strength.
ii) The degree of vulnerability (ease of compromise) of the targeted/involved
components (technical or human) in the threat scenario.

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15
Q

3e) Assume a quantitative risk model, where for a particular risk the following values are set:
AV (Asset Value) = EUR 800,000,
EF (Exposure Factor) = 0.2,
ARO (Annualised Rate of Occurrence) = 0.5.
Give the SLE (Single Loss Expectancy) and the ALE (Annualised Loss Expectancy).

A

i) SLE = EUR 160,000

ii) ALE = EUR 80,000

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16
Q

4a) Briefly describe 2 typical approaches for strengthening computer platform security.

A

i) Strengthening the OS, ii) Improved CPU security features, iii)
Platform virtualization, iv) Trusted Computing (integrated security hardware(TPM)
v) External security hardware combined with platform

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17
Q

4b) What does the acronym TPM stand for ?

A

Trusted Platform Module

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18
Q

4c) Briefly explain the 3 main TPM-supported services.

A

i) Authenticated boot: Report the integrity status of the software when booting.
ii) Sealed storage: Decryption with secret keys only ico. correct integrity.
iii) Remote Attestation: Report to external party the integrity status of software.

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19
Q

4d) Per unique TPM there is an Endorsement Key pair. How/where is the private key stored?

A

Stored in secure non-volatile memory inside the TPM. Can not exit TPM. Can
only be used inside TPM.

20
Q

4e) What does the abbreviation UEFI stand for ?

A

Unified Extensible Firmware Interface

21
Q

4f) In Windows 8 (and 10), what is the difference between authenticated boot supported by the
TPM, and secure boot supported by UEFI ?

A

i) Authenticated/measured boot means that the boot sequence is never halted,
but the measures of software modules can be reported to external/remote parties.
This is supported by the TPM.

ii) Secure boot means that the digital signatures on boot loader, kernel and
drivers must be correct for the boot sequence to complete. Supported by UEFI.

22
Q

5a) What is the difference between hash functions and MAC functions wrt. usage of keys ?

A

i) Hash functions do not use keys, MAC uses keys.

ii) MAC functions use keys.

23
Q

5b) What is the hash size in SHA-1 ?

A

SHA-1: 160 bit

24
Q

5c) What are the possible hash sizes in SHA-2 ?

A

i) 224, ii) 256, iii) 384, iv) 512 bit

25
Q

5d) Which key should Alice use for encrypting messages to Bob with an asymmetric cipher

A

Bob’s public key.

26
Q

5e) Alice sends message M with digital signature Sig(M) to Bob. They have each other’s public
keys Kpub(A) and Kpub(B), a hash function h, as well as an asymmetric algorithm running in
signature mode S (equivalent to Decryption mode D) or in verification mode V (equivalent
to Encryption mode E). Write the steps that Alice takes for signing and sending message M,
and the steps that recipient Bob takes for verifying and validating the signature Sig(M).

A

Digital signature generation by Alice:

i. Alice prepares message M.
ii. Alice produces hash h(M).
iii. Alice uses her private key Kpriv(A) to produce signature Sig(M) = S(h(M), Kpriv(A)).
iv. Alice transmits message M and signature Sig(M) to Bob,

Bob receives message M’ (denoted as M’, not M, because its origin is uncertain),
as well as the signature Sig(M).
ii. Bob produces hash value h(M’ ).
iii. Bob uses Alice’s pub key Kpub(A) to recover h(M) = V(Sig(M), Kpub(A)).
iv. Bob checks that h(M) = h(M’).

27
Q

6a) In a domain of n entities, each pair of entities must be able to communicate securely. For
each case A, B, & C, state:
i) How many different keys are needed, ii) How many initial key
distributions are needed, and iii) What key protection (confidentiality or integrity) is needed.
A. Symmetric-key cryptography.
B. Public/private-key cryptography without PKI.
C. Public/private-key cryptography with PKI (1 root CA and no intermediate CAs).

A

Number of keys, number of distributions, and type of protection
A. n(n-1)/2 different keys needed. OR n(n-1)/2 distributions (or n(n-1), since 2 parties must receive each key) OR Secret key protection: Confidentiality
B. n different public/private key pairs needed (n keys or 2n keys acceptable) OR n(n-1)/2 distributions, because every entity sends its public key to the others. OR Public key protection: Integrity
C. n + 1 different public/private key pairs needed. (“n key pairs” is acceptable) OR n distributions of the root public key are needed. OR Root public key protection: Integrity

28
Q

6b) State the main advantage of having a PKI when using public/private-key cryptography.

A

With PKI the number of key distributions is reduced from quadratic to linear.

29
Q

7a) Mention the three categories of credentials for user authentication.

A

i) Something you know (knowledge),
ii) Something you have (ownership),
iii) Something you are (inherence),

30
Q

7b) Briefly explain the 2 main effects/purposes of password salting.

A

i) Password salting ensures that equal passwords have different hashes.
ii) Makes cracking difficult by preventing the use of pre-computed hash tables

31
Q

7c) Mention the 4 basic requirements for using a human characteristic as a biometric.

A

i) Universality, ii) Distinctiveness, iii) Permanence, iv) Collectability

32
Q

7d) User authentication frameworks for eGovernment typically specify 3 different classes of
requirements for each assurance level. Mention these 3 requirement classes.

A

i) Authentication Method Strength requirements
ii) Credential Management Assurance requirements
iii) Identity Registration Assurance requirements

33
Q

8b) Briefly describe the silo model for Id management.

A

In the silo model, the SP also acts as the IdP and maintains a
namespace and a directory of user identities with credentials.

34
Q

8c) Give 1 main advantage and the 1 disadvantage of the silo model.

A

i) Advantage: Relatively simple to implement from SP’s point of view.
ii) Causes identity overload from user’s point of view.

35
Q

8d) Define the concept of Identity Federation (roughly).

A

Identity federation is a set of agreements, standards and
technologies that enable a group of SPs to recognise user identities, credentials &
entitlements from other IdPs and SPs.

36
Q

8e) Give 1 main advantage and 1 main disadvantage of federated identity management.

A

Advantage:

i) Improved usability
(ii) Allows SPs to bundle services and collect user info

Disadvantage:
(i) High technical and legal complexity
(ii) High trust requirements
e.g. IdP is technically able to access SP on user’s behalf
(iii) Privacy issues,
IdP collects info about user habits wrt. which SPs are used
(iv) Limited scalability,
Can only federate SPs with similar interests
An Identity federation becomes a new silo

37
Q

9c) What is the meaning of the acronym HSTS ?

A

HSTS = http Strict Transport Security.

38
Q

9d) Briefly explain how HSTS protects against TLS/SSL stripping.

A

Browsers that support HSTS can hold HSTS policy for specific websites which
dictates browsers to only use https to those websites. When the user requests a
website with http, the browser automatically translates it to https. If an attacker tries
to trick the browser to connect with http, the browser refuses to connect.

39
Q

9f) How can a user know when TLS-encrypted traffic is being inspected in a firewall ?

A

The user must view the certification path of the received server certificate,
and know the difference between a Browser PKIX root certificate and the internal
proxy root certificate used for validation. If the certification path leads to an authentic
root certificate of the Browser PKI, then there is no TLS inspection. If the certification
path leads to the internal proxy root CA, the there is TLS inspection.

40
Q

10a) What is OWASP Top 10 ?

A

The OWASP Top 10 is a document describing the 10 most prevalent security
risks/vulnerabilities in current web application, as well as how they can be avoided.

41
Q

10b) Name the nr.1 in OWASP Top 10, and explain why it is so prevalent.

A

i) Injection vulnerabilities/attacks
ii) SQL injection is still nr.1 because software developers ignore how to prevent
it, or because they are lazy.

42
Q

10c) What is specified as the first phase in Microsoft SDL (Secure Development Lifecycle).

A

Security training is the forst phase on Microsoft SDL.

43
Q

10d) Which type of software development model is Microsoft SDL primarily combined with?

A

Microsoft SDL is aimed at the waterfall Model.

44
Q

10e) Briefly explain the concept of software fuzzing.

A

Fuzzing is to generate many forms of malformed input and then to analyse
resulting software crashes. The trace and location of a crash in the software helps to
locate the bug causing the crash.

45
Q

10f) Why is software fuzzing important for cybersecurity ?

A

Some software bugs can be exploited by attackers to take control of a system, in
which case the bug is a security vulnerability. Such bugs/vulnerabilities should be
removed. Fuzzing helps discover and identify bugs that represent a cybersecurity
vulnerability.