EFA SBAs Flashcards
Which of the following is a common cause of renal disease in children, and needs to be considered during your paediatric rotation?
Diabetic Glomerulosclerosis Membranous GN Focal and Segmental GN Minimal change glomerulonephritis Goodpastures syndrome
Minimal change
Which of the following is useful in an acute attack of gout? Allopurinol Colchicine Aspirin Probenecid Bendrofluazide
Colchicine
Which of the following genetic syndromes does not put you at risk of phaeochromocytoma?
VHL (Von Hippel Lindau)
NF1 (Neurofibromatosis type 1)
MEN1 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 1)
MEN2 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 2)
MEN3 (Multiple Endocrine Neoplasia type 3, previously known as 2b)
MEN1
Which drug can be used in the treatment of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH)?
5-alpha reductase inhibitor Oestradiol Phosphodiesterase inhibitor (can you name one?) Beta blockers Testosterone
5-alpha reductase inhibitor
Which of these is a Gram positive organism?
E-coli Haemophilus influenza Listeria Monocytogenes Salmonella typhi Neisseria Meningitidis (Meningococcus)
Listeria Monocytogenes
A patient has been on Allopurinol 300 mg daily for several months and is well. Which of the following drugs should be avoided and is known to cause dangerous toxicity if taken with allopurinol?
Tamoxifen Aminophylline Azathioprine Phenytoin Carbamazipine
Azathioprine
A patient has a large dose of paracetamol and develops liver dysfunction. Which is the most sensitive marker of liver damage? Bilirubin Alkaline phosphatase AST Prothrombin time (clotting) GGT
Prothrombin time (clotting)
A 53 year old European male presents with a recent history of weight loss and sudden onset of abdominal pain and fever. On examination the abdomen is distended with signs of peritonitis. He undergoes emergency laparotomy and and partial resection of small bowel and associated mesentery.
Over the next few days the following laboratory results become available:
FBC and renal profile normal
LDH 12,000u/ml (NR 50-234)
EBV IgG serology positive, HIV 1 antibody positive
The histopathology description of a mesenteric lymph node: The node is effaced and diffusely infiltrated by large lymphoid cells. Under low poor the node has a starry sky appearance. On immunohistochemistry the large cells are positive for CD20, surface Immunoglobulin, myc and EBER (Ebstein Barr Virus encoded small RNAs) the cells are negative for CD3 and CD30. Ki67 expression is 98%. Karyotype analysis reveals t(8;14)(q24;q32).
What is the most likely diagnosis?
Gastric Marginal Zone Lymphoma Burkitt Lymphoma Enteropathy associated T cell lymphoma of the small bowel Diffuse Large B cell Lymphoma Acute lymphoblastic leukaemia
Burkitt Lymphoma
Superoxide dismutase 1 is a misfolded protein associated with which condition?
Parkinsons disease Motor neurone disease Alzheimer’s disease Relapsing and remitting multiple sclerosis Guillain Barre syndrome
Motor neurone disease
In a test for a disease, which term describes the number of true positives divided by the total number of people that have the disease? (covered in week 0 lecture by Maggie Hancock) Specificity Negative predictive value Sensitivity Positive predictive value Z-score
Sensitivity
Which of the following conditions can cause hypercalcaemia?
a) osteomalacia
b) paget’s disease
c) sarcoidosis
d) secondary hyperparathyroidism
e) osteoporosis
c) sarcoidosis
By what mechanism does sarcoidosis cause hypercalcaemia?
a) Ectopic expression of 1 alpha hydroxylase
b) Ectopic expression of 25 hydroxylase
c) Very high levels of PTH in the circulation
d) Very high levels of PTH related peptide in the circulation
e) Osteoblast activation
a)Ectopic expression of 1 alpha hydroxylase
Which of the following is useful in patients with pseudomonas aeruginosa lung infection?
a) Ceftriaxone
b) Clarithromycin
c) Gentamicin
d) Metronidazole
e) Flucloxicillin
c)Gentamicin
A chronic inflammatory bowel disease affecting the large bowel and duodenum is most likely to be:
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Crohn’s Disease
c) Diverticular Disease
d) Ulcerative Colitis
e) Familial Polyposis coli
b)Crohn’s Disease
The severity of which of these conditions is measured by the Breslow score? a)Melanoma b)Multiple myeloma c)Peptic ulceration d)Sarcoidosis E)Stroke risk in AF patients
a)Melanoma
Which of the following is a complication of a Berry Aneurysm?
a) haemorrhagic stroke
b) ischaemic stroke
c) subarachnoid haemorrhage
d) subdrual haemorrhage
e) extradural haemorrhage
c) subarachnoid haemorrhage
In a gastric biopsy from a patient with helicobacter pylori the biopsy is most likely to show:
a) Adenocarcinoma
b) Chronic gastritis
c) Gastric ulcer
d) Lyphoma
e) Squamous cell carcinoma
c)Gastric ulcer
Where is the enzyme 25-hydroxylase found?
a) Kidney
b) Bone
c) Lung
d) Liver
e) Parathyroid gland
d)Liver
A patient with diabetes is developing cellulitis. What is the most appropriate antibiotic?
a) Amoxycillin
b) Flucloxacillin
c) Gentamicin
d) Trimethoprim
e) Clarithromycin
b)Flucloxacillin
Which of the following suggest a microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia?
a) Raised Bilirubin
b) Raised Platelets
c) Raised TIBC
d) Postive Coombes test
e) Raised INR
a)Raised Bilirubin
A 67-year-old gentleman presents to A&E disorientated. He is unkempt and smells of alcohol. On examination, he is jaundiced, has an enlarged abdomen and spider naevi on his chest. He demonstrates a liver flap.
What is the most likely cause of his confusion?
Hypoalbuminuria Hyperammoniaemia Hypercalcaemia Hypocalcaemia Hypokalaemia
Hyperammoniaemia
A patient with liver disease is found to have palmar erythema, dupuytrens contracture, spider naevi and gynaecomastia.
What do these signify?
Chronic stable liver disease Hepatitis Liver failure Obstruction of bile ducts Portal HTN
Chronic stable liver disease
