Eent Flashcards

1
Q

What do you see in the eye with hypertension?

A

That AV nicked my copper wire and burst into flames.
AV nicking.
Copper wire.
Flame hemorrhages
Cotton wool spots

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2
Q

What do you see in the eye with diabetes mellitus?

A

Blot had a micro amount of new cotton candy
Cotton wool spots.
Micro aneurysms.
Neuro vascular
Blot hemorrhage

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3
Q

In the eye what size are the retinal vessels and veins?

A

Arteries are brighter, red and narrow than veins with artery and vein having a 2 to 3 or 4 to 5 ratio

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4
Q

What does the Snellen eye chart mean?

A

2020 means that the patient can see at 20 feet with a normal person can see at 20 feet the larger the denominator of the poor of the patient’s vision.

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5
Q

Hyperopia

A

Farsightedness.
We’ll see in an older person
An example would be an older person, reading the newspaper, and having to move back the newspaper to view the words

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6
Q

Myopia

A

Nearsightedness, we’ll see in younger people

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7
Q

Presbyopia

A

Common after age 40, results and greater difficulty maintaining a clear focus at a near distance due to the lessening of flexibility of the crystalline, lens and weakening of the Solari muscle which controls Lens focus

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8
Q

Arcus senilis

A

Cloudy appearance of the cornea with a gray white arc or circle around the limbus due to deposition of lipid material the arcus has no effect on vision could indicate hyper lipidemia

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9
Q

Arcus senilis

A

Cloudy appearance of the cornea with a gray white arc or circle around the limbus due to deposition of lipid material the arcus has no effect on vision could indicate hyper lipidemia

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10
Q

Pterygium

A

Raised, wed shaped growth of thin, non-cancerous tissue over the conjunctiva normally seen in dry climates or surfers

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11
Q

HORDEOLUM or stye

A

Acute inflammation caused by staphylococcus aureus
Signs and symptoms include abrupt onset, accompanied with pain and erythema of the eyelid. Localized tender mass developing an eyelid.

Management, hot compresses for 10 minutes for two times a day. Next line if needed oral antibiotics for preseptal cellulitis, which include clindamycin, Bactrim, augmentin. Or cefdinir

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12
Q

CHALAZION

A

Be nodule on the eyelid, infection, or retention cyst of the meibomian gland usually on the upper eyelid.

Symptoms: swelling on the eyelid, eyelid, tenderness, sensitivity, to light, increase tearing, if very large may cause astigmatism due to pressure on the cornea.

Management, warm compresses, and referral for surgical removal

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13
Q

Blepharitis

A

Staphylococcus infection of seborrheic dermatitis of the lid edge

Signs and symptoms: red, scaly, greasy flakes. Thickened, crusted lid margins. Burning. Itching. Tearing.
MANAGEMENT, hot compresses. Topical antibiotics such as bacitracin or erythromycin. Vigorously, scrub lashes and lid margins with eyes closed and follow with thorough rinsing .

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14
Q

Conjunctivitis

A

Pink eye, resulting from allergies, chemical, irritation, bacterial, viral, or Gyno cockle or chlamydia infections.

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15
Q

What does bacterial conjunctivitis look like in symptoms and what is the treatment?

A

Purulent discharge.

Self limiting: antibiotic ointment are drops which include floxicins and mycins
If recurrent refer to ophthalmologist

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16
Q

What does gonococcal conjunctivitis look like? Is it an emergency? And what do you do?

A

Yes, it is an emergency.
The discharge is copious and purulent.
Referred to ophthalmologist, ceftriaxone 1 g IM plus azithromycin 1gm single dose

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17
Q

What is chlamydia conjunctivitis and what do you do?

A

Doxycycline 100 milligrams twice a day for 10 days or azithromycin 1gm single dose

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18
Q

What is allergic conjunctivitis look like and what do you do?

A

Stringy discharge, increase tearing.
Oral antihistamines, refer to allergist or ophthalmologist. Steroids are not ordered in primary care because of the possible increase intraocular pressure and activation of herpes simplex virus.

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19
Q

What does viral conjunctivitis look like and what do you do?

A

Watery discharge.
Symptomatic care: preservative, free, artificial tears, cool compresses with washcloth, and NSAIDS

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20
Q

What does herpatic conjunctivitis look like? And what do you do?

A

Bright red eyes and irritated.
Referred to ophthalmologist, treatment includes course of oral antivirals, such as aCyclovir and long-term follow up

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21
Q

When do you screen for glaucoma?

A

Recommended by age 40 by tonometry

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22
Q

What are the symptoms of open angle glaucoma?

A

Asymptomatic
elevated intaocular pressure.
Cupping of the disc,
Construction of visual fields

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23
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of closed angle glaucoma?

A

It is acute
Extreme pain.
Blurred vision.
Halos around lights*
Pupils dilated or fixed

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24
Q

What is the normal intraocular pressure

A

10-20

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25
Q

What is the treatment for closed angle glaucoma?

A

Diamox
Osmotic diuretics mannitol
Surgery

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26
Q

What is the definition of cataracts?

A

Clouding and opacification of the normally clear lens of the eye.
Highest cause of treatable blindness, most common surgical procedure in patience 65 and older is senile cataracts

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27
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cataracts?

A

Painless
Clouded, blurred, or dim vision.
Halos around light.
Difficulty with vision at night.
Sensitivity to light and glare.
Fading yellowing of colors.
Double vision in a single eye.
The need for brighter light for reading and other activities.
No red reflex
Opacity of the lens

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28
Q

What are the sides and symptoms of retinal detachment?

A

Flashes of light PHOTOPSIA, especially in peripheral vision.
Floaters in the eye.
Blurred vision.
Shadow or blindness in a part of a visual field of one eye
REFERRAL for surgery

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29
Q

Otitis externa

A

Inflammation and or infection of the external auditory canal and or auricle and tympanic membrane

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30
Q

Symptoms of acute local otitis externa or furunculosis

A

Cause: staphylococcus aureus
Pustules in the outer third of the ear canal.
Severe pain otalgia with area of cellulitis
Itching
Erythema
Scaling
Crusting
Fishering
Possible exudates

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31
Q

What is the management for otitis externa?

A

Cleansing and debridement of the ear.
Topical OTIc drops: hydrocortisone/neomycin/polymyxin or Cortisporin ear drops
NSAIDs

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32
Q

What is the treatment for acute otitis media and serous otitis media if suspected bacteria

A

Augmentin or a cephalosporin such as cefdinir, cefpodoxime, or cefuroxime

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33
Q

When doing a Weber test with suspected conductive hearing loss where does the sound lateralizes to the affected ear or the unaffected ear?

A

Sound lateralizes to the affected ear

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34
Q

When doing a RINNE test which ear would be abnormal?

A

It would be abnormal in the affected ear, which means air conduction would be less than bone conduction

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35
Q

When doing a Weber test with suspecting SENSORINEURAL hearing loss where does the sound lateralize?

A

The sound lies to the unaffected ear

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36
Q

Rinne is only abnormal in the conductive hearing loss? True or false

A

True

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37
Q

Pharyngitis/ tonsillitis signs and symptoms

A

ANTERIOR CERVICAL ADENOPATHY-strep
MACULOPAPULAR RASH-strep

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38
Q

Lab test for pharyngitis/tonisillitis

A

Rapid strep
MONOSPOT
CBC

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39
Q

Antibiotics for strep infection

A

Penicillin V or amoxicillin

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40
Q

If allergic to PCN which drug would you chose for strep throat

A

Cephalexin
Cefadroxil
Clindamycin
Azithromycin
Clarithromycin

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41
Q

Mono is caused by which virus

A

Epstein Barr

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42
Q

Signs and symptoms of mono

A

POSTERIOR CERVICAL ADENOPATHY

WHITE TONISILAR EXUDATES
FEVER CHILLLS ANOREXIA

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43
Q

Which test do you do for mono?

A

Mono spot positive
Increase WBC with relative lymphocytosis and neutropenia

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44
Q

Which antibiotic do you use for bacterial sinusitis?

A

Augmentin or doxycycline if penicillin allergy

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45
Q

Impetigo describe and treatment

A

Honey colored crusts at the edge.
Infection of the skin classically caused by staph aureus
Primary lesion is a thin walled vesicle that breaks easily.
Treatment; mupirocin cream or ointment
If widespread can use oral abts: dicloxacillin, cephalexin, or clindamycin

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46
Q

Squamous cell carcinoma

A

They arise out of actinic keratoses
Firm regular popular or nodule.
Develop over a few months 3 to 7% metastasize.
Prolonged sun, exposed areas and fair skin people.
Keratotic, scaly bleeding

Treatment biopsy

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47
Q

Seborrheic keratoses

A

Benign, not painful lesions
Beige, brown or black plaques.
Stuck on appearance”
3 to 20 mm in diameter.
Treatment: liquid nitrogen

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48
Q

Actinic keratosis

A

Small patches occurring on some exposed parts of the body.
Premalignant lesions progressed to squamous cell carcinoma
Asymptomatic
Rough FLESH colored, pink or hyperpigmented

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49
Q

Basal cell carcinoma

A

Most common skin cancer.
Slow growing lesion, one to 2 cm after years.
Waxy, PEARLY, appearance may be shiny red
Central depression, or rolled edge.
May haveTelangiectatic vessels

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50
Q

Malignant melanoma
ABC DEE

A

Asymmetry.
Border irregularity
Color variation
Diameter, greater than 6 mm
Elevation.
Enlargement

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51
Q

Eczema also known as a topic dermatitis what does it look like and what is the treatment?

A

Chronic skin condition caused by intense itching.
Acute flareups look like red, shiny, or thicken patches.
Inflamed, scabbed lesions with redness and scaling.
Dry, LEATHERY lichenifications

Treatment: topical steroids CLOBESTASOL CREAM

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52
Q

Explosive onset of psoriasis, test for what?

A

HIV

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53
Q

Auspitz sign

A

Droplets of blood when scales are removed.

Seen in psoriasis

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54
Q

Treatment for psoriasis

A

For scalp: tar/salicyclic shampoo
Topical steroids- bethamethasone
UVB LIGHT EXPOSURE

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55
Q

Pityriasis Rosea description

A

Mild and acute inflammatory disorder.
More common and females during spring and fall.
Itchy rash found on trunk and proximal extremities.
HAROLD patch which is the initial lesion measuring 2 to 10 cm
Follows a Christmas tree pattern.
Eruption last 4 to 8 weeks

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56
Q

Laboratory and diagnostic test for PITYRIASIS ROSEA

A

Serology test for syphilis should be performed. If colon lesions are not itching, lesions are present on hands and feet, lesions are few and perfect.

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57
Q

Xanthelasma

A

Yellow plaques under eye from high cholesterol

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58
Q

What is the treatment for Lyme disease and Rocky mounted spotted fever

A

Doxycycline

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59
Q

What is the treatment for Lyme disease and Rocky mounted spotted fever

A

Doxycycline

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60
Q

What test do you do for limes disease initial and confirmatory

A

Initial test is the ELISA.
The confirmatory test is Western blot

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61
Q

What test do you do for Rocky mounted spotted fever

A

PCR
IHC staining
IFA

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62
Q

Physical findings in acute bronchitis

A

Upper airway Rhonchi cleared with coughing
Resonance to percussion normal
No evidence of lung consolidation

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63
Q

Physical findings in acute bronchitis

A

Upper airway Rhonchi cleared with coughing
Resonance to percussion normal
No evidence of lung consolidation

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64
Q

How to differentiate bronchitis from pneumonia?

A

Ask patient to cough into tissue when osculating will be clear with bronchitis, but not pneumonia

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65
Q

Hyper resonance to percussion is what diagnosis

A

COPD or asthma

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66
Q

Antibiotics used to treat acute bronchitis only for bacterial infections are?

A

Macrolides.
Doxycycline.
Bactroban

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67
Q

Is asthma broncoconstriction?

A

Yes

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68
Q

Signs and symptoms of asthma

A

Pulse greater than 110
Pulses, paradox greater than 12 mmHg (intrathoracic pressure)
Hyperresonance

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69
Q

Laboratory signs for asthma

A

Slight WBC elevation with esosinophillia
PFT reveal abnormalities typical of obstructive dysfunction
Initially respiratory alkalosis with mild hypoxemia on ABGs
Chest x-ray is unnecessary and less to rule out other conditions may show hyper inflation

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70
Q

Laboratory signs for asthma

A

Slight WBC elevation with esosinophillia
PFT reveal abnormalities typical of obstructive dysfunction
Initially respiratory alkalosis with mild hypoxemia on ABGs
Chest x-ray is unnecessary and less to rule out other conditions may show hyper inflation

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71
Q

Treatment for chronic bronchitis and emphysema or COPD

A

A: bronchodilator
B: LABA + LAMA
E: LABA + LAMA
— consider adding ICS if blood eosinophils greater than 300

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72
Q

Pneumonia, signs and symptoms and most common agent found in community acquired pneumonia

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

Fever/chills
Purulent sputum
Lung consolidation in physical exam
Malaise
INCREASED FREMITIS

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73
Q

Atypical pneumonia signs and symptoms
(Walking pneumonia)

A

More ENT involvement
Cough.
Headache.
Sore throat.
Excessive sweating.
Fever
Soreness, of chest

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74
Q

Treatment for low severity outpatient CAP( healthy, no use of antimicrobials within the past three months, no core abilities or risk factors for Mersa or pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

One period amoxicillin 1 g TID or
Doxycycline 100 mg b.i.d. or macrolide such as azithromycin and clarithromycin

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75
Q

Treatment for moderate to high severity outpatient CAP includes patient with comorbiditues or risk factors for resistant organisms

A
  1. Augmentin or cephalosporin plus macrolide or doxycycline OR
  2. Mono therapy with levaquin 750 or moxifloxicin
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76
Q

Medication regimen for TB

A

Rifampin
Isonaizid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol

Person with HIV should be treated for 9 months

Shortest amount of time on drugs is 6 months

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77
Q

Patients taking ethambutol should be tested for___________ and ______ ______ ________-

A

Visual acuity and red green color perception

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78
Q

Chvostek sign

A

Hypothyroidism
Sustained cheek blinking

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79
Q

Trousseau

A

Hypothyroidism
Carpal pedal spasm from BP cuff

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80
Q

Trousseau sign

A

Hypothyroidism
Carpal pedal spasm from BP CUFF

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81
Q

Biguanide class

A

Metformin
Glucophage
Drug of choice for a starter drug for most patients with type two diabetes
Lowers basal and postprandial glucose levels by affecting glucose absorption and hepatic glucogenesis
Weight loss and reduce LDL’s
Discontinue one to two days before receiving contrast

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82
Q

GLP-1 agonist

A

Dulaglutide
Exenatide
Semaglutide (ozempic)
Semaglutide(Rybelsus) tablet

Black box warning- thyroid cancer and pancreatitis

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83
Q

Diabetic ketoacidosis
Symptoms

A

Seen in type 1 DM
state of INTRACELLULAR, dehydration, as a result of elevated blood glucose levels

Signs and symptoms include polyuria, polydipsia, weakness, fatigue, nausea, and vomiting, Kusum, all breathing, which is rapid breathing, altered level of consciousness, fruity breath, blowing off CO2, hypotension, and tachycardia poor skin turgor

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84
Q

Labs in DKA

A

BG- 250-300
Ketoanemia or ketonuria
Metabolic acidosis- less than 7.30
Elevated hct, BUN, cr, potassium and osmolality

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85
Q

HHS
Signs and symptoms

A

State of greatly elevated serum glucose, hyper, osmolality, and severe intracellular dehydration.
Seen in type two diabetes.

PolyuriA
Weakness
ALTERED LOC
HYPOTENSION
Tachycardia.
Poor skin TURGOR.

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86
Q

Labs and diagnostic in HHS

A

Greatly elevated serum glucose 600 to 1000
Hyper osmolality
Elevated Bun and creatinine
Elevated hemoglobin A1c.
Relatively normal pH
Normal anion gap

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87
Q

Which drug is used for symptomatic relief of hyperthyroidism

A

Propanolol 10 mg may go up to 80 mg four times daily

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88
Q

Treatment for hyperthyroidism

A

Tapazole 30 to 60 mg every day in three divided doses.
PROPYLTHIOURACIL – PTU– 300 to 600 mg daily and four divided doses.
Radioactive iodine 131 – I used to destroy goiters.
Thyroid surgery.
LUGOL solution 2 to 3 drops every day for 10 days

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89
Q

Hyperthyroidism lab values

A

TSH mostly low
Serum, T3, T4, thyroid, resin, uptake, and free thyroxine index increased.
Sometimes T4 is normal, but T3 is elevated 80 to 230

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90
Q

Hyperthyroidism lab values

A

TSH mostly low
Serum, T3, T4, thyroid, resin, uptake, and free thyroxine index increased.
Sometimes T4 is normal, but T3 is elevated 80 to 230

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91
Q

Hypo thyroidism laboratory values

A

TSH is elevated.
T4 is low or low normal.
T3 is decreased.

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92
Q

Signs and symptoms of hyper parathyroidism

A

Asymptomatic,
Fatigue,
Depression,
Bone, joint pain.
Muscle weakness
Anorexia vomiting.
Kidney stones

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93
Q

Laboratory values, and hyperparathyroidism

A

Elevated intact plasma parathyroid, hormone with elevated calcium and decreased phosphorus

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94
Q

What is the only known cure for hyper parathyroidism

A

Parathyroid ectomy

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95
Q

Signs and symptoms of hypo parathyroidism

A

Patchy hair loss,
Fatigue
Anxiety or depression.
Painful menstruation.
Horses or dyspnea.
Paresthesia in fingertips, toes, and or perioral
Tetany, and feet legs, arms, and or abdomen which are involuntary contractions or muscle cramps
Chvostek sign or trousseau sign

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96
Q

Laboratory value in hypoparathyroidism

A

Decrease calcium increased phosphorus, and a decrease in parathyroid hormone

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97
Q

Laboratory values in Cushing syndrome

A

High blood sugar, high sodium
low potassium
Leukocytosis.
Elevated plasma cortisol in the morning

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98
Q

What is the treatment for Cushing?

A

Depends on cause discontinue medication’s inducing symptoms, a transphenoidal resection of the pituitary adenoma.
Surgical removal of adrenal tumors.
Management of electrolyte balance

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99
Q

What are the laboratory values for Addison’s disease?

A

Hypoglycemia
Hyponatremia
Hyperkalemia,
Elevated ESR
Lymphocytosis.
Cosyntropin= to rule in or out addisons

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100
Q

Treatment for Addison’s

A

Mineral corticoid = androgen plus aldosterone
Hydrocortisone
fludroCortizone acetate

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101
Q

Which kind of ulcer is relieved by eating?

A

Duodenal

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102
Q

Which kind of ulcer is relieved by eating?

A

Duodenal

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103
Q

Which kind of ulcer does the pain worsen with eating?

A

Gastric

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104
Q

Which kind of ulcer happens with a physical finding of coffee ground emesis

A

Duodenal ulcer

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105
Q

Which kind of ulcer happens with a physical finding of coffee ground emesis

A

Duodenal ulcer

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106
Q

Long-term use of PPI is associated with which illnesses and what is the black box warning

A

B12 deficiency
Dementia
Cdiff
Chronic kidney disease.

Blackbox warning: increase incident of osteoporosis, specifically hip fractures

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107
Q

How long do you wait for an endoscopy after treatment of peptic ulcer disease?

A

8 to 12 weeks of treatment

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108
Q

H2 blockers end in

A

-dine

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109
Q

PPI end in

A

Prazole

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110
Q

H. Pylori treatment

A

TWO ABTS AND A PPI - 7-14 days of antibiotics and additional 6-8 weeks with PPI

MOC
AOC
MOA

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111
Q

Education for mucosal, protective agents, such as Pepto-Bismol, cytotec , Maalox, Mylanta, milk of magnesia include?

A

Give two hours apart from other medication‘s

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112
Q

What do you do if gastroenteritis is persistent longer than 72 hours or blood is noted in the stool

A

Stool for culture, WBC’s and ova and parasites.
Stool may be guiac positive if a bacterial infection is present

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113
Q

HBsAg, HBeAg, Anti-HBc, IgM

A

Active Hepatitis B

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114
Q

HBsAg, Anti-HBc, Anti-HBe, IgM, IgG

A

Chronic Hep B

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115
Q

Anti-HBc, Anti-HBs

A

Recovered Hep B

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116
Q

Anti-HAV, IgM

A

Active hep A

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117
Q

Anti-HAV, IgG

A

Recovered hep A

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118
Q

What do you order to differentiate prior exposure from current?

A

PCR

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119
Q

What lab will you have if successfully vaccinated from hepatitis b?

A

Anti-HBs- hepatitis b surface antibody

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120
Q

Anti-HCV, HCV RNA

A

Acute hep C

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121
Q

Anti- HCV, HCV RNA

A

chronic hepatitis c
Same as acute. Order pcr

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122
Q

Which quadrant is diverticulitis?

A

Left lower quadrant tenderness to palpation

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123
Q

Why is a plain abdominal obtained in diverticulitis and what are we looking for?

A

Looking for evidence of free air, which would indicate a perforation

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124
Q

What dietary consideration would indicate diverticulitis

A

Individuals with low dietary fiber intake

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125
Q

What is the Murphy sign and what would it indicate as a diagnosis?

A

Deep pain and inspiration while fingers are placed under the right rib cage and it would indicate cholecystitis

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126
Q

What is the Murphy sign and what would it indicate as a diagnosis?

A

Deep pain and inspiration while fingers are placed under the right rib cage and it would indicate cholecystitis

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127
Q

What is cholecystitis and what is it often associated with?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with gallstones and 90% of the cases

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128
Q

What is cholecystitis and what is it often associated with?

A

Inflammation of the gallbladder, associated with gallstones and 90% of the cases

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129
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Often after a large or fatty meal
Sudden appearance of steady, severe pain in the epigastric or right hypoChondrium
Vomiting in many clients afford relief

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130
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of cholecystitis?

A

Often after a large or fatty meal
Sudden appearance of steady, severe pain in the epigastric or right hypoChondrium
Vomiting in many clients afford relief

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131
Q

What are the physical findings in cholecystitis?

A

Murphy sign.
Right upper quadrant tenderness to palpation.
Fever
Muscle guarding and rebound pain

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132
Q

What are the physical findings in cholecystitis?

A

Murphy sign.
Right upper quadrant tenderness to palpation.
Fever
Muscle guarding and rebound pain

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133
Q

What are the Lab values in cholecystitis and what is the gold standard in effective image testing?

A

Elevated white count, Billy Rubin, AST, ALT, LDH, amylase.
Ultrasound is the gold standard

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134
Q

What is the management for cholecystitis?

A

NG tube
IV
G.I. consult
pain management

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135
Q

What is the definition of ulcerative colitis?

A

Idiopathic inflammation characterized by mucosal inflammation of the colon it involves the rectum and may extend upward involving the whole colon

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136
Q

What is the definition of ulcerative colitis?

A

Idiopathic inflammation characterized by mucosal inflammation of the colon it involves the rectum and may extend upward involving the whole colon

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137
Q

Signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis

A

Bloody diarrhea is a hallmark symptom.
Rectal TENESMUS or the feeling like they have to have a bowel movement

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138
Q

Laboratory or diagnostics for ulcerative colitis

A

Stool studies are negative
Sigmoidoscopy establishes the diagnosis

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139
Q

Management for ulcerative colitis

A

Mesalamine(Canasa) suppositories or enema for 3 to 12 weeks.
Hydrocortisone, suppositories and enemas

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140
Q

What is often a sign and symptom of colon cancer

A

Changes in bad habits, specifically, thin stools, or ribbon stools that originate from the descending colon cancer.
Weight loss

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141
Q

Diagnostics for colon cancer

A

Stool may be guiac positive
Colonoscopy
CBC
CEA elevated
Non-smokers less than 2.5
Smokers less than 5

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142
Q

Which quadrant is the appendicitis in?

A

Right lower quadrant

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143
Q

McBurney’s point tenderness

A

1/3 the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

Acute appendicitis

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144
Q

McBurney’s point tenderness

A

1/3 the distance from the anterior superior iliac spine to the umbilicus

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145
Q

Psoas sign

A

Pain with right thigh extension
Only right thigh
Appendicitis

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146
Q

Obturator sign

A

Pain with internal rotation of flexed right knee

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147
Q

Positive rovsing sign

A

Right lower quadrant pain when pressure is applied to the left lower quadrant

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148
Q

What is suspected in appendicitis when the fever is very high

A

Perforation or another diagnosis

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149
Q

Tanner stage one for girls

A

Pre-adolescent breast

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150
Q

Tanner stage two for girls

A

Breast buds with Ariola enlargement

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151
Q

Tanner stage three for girls

A

Breast enlargement without separate nipple contour

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152
Q

Tanner stage three for girls

A

Breast enlargement without separate nipple contour

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153
Q

Tanner stage four for girls

A

Ariola and nipple project as secondary mound

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154
Q

Tanner stage five for girls

A

Adult breast: Ariola recedes, nipple retracts

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155
Q

Low grade squamous intraepithelial lesion

A

Cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN) 1- HPV OR MILD DYSPLASIA

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156
Q

High grade squamous intrepithelial lesion

A

CIN 2: Moderate dysplasia
CIN 3: severe dysplasia
REFER PATIENT

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157
Q

High grade squamous intrepithelial lesion

A

CIN 2: Moderate dysplasia
CIN 3: severe dysplasia
REFER PATIENT

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158
Q

CIS

A

Carcinoma in situ

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159
Q

Trichomoniasis

A

Malodorous, frothy, yellowish green discharge, itchy, vaginal erythema, strawberry patches on cervix (colpitis macularis) and vagina, painful sex, painful urination

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160
Q

Bacterial vaginosis

A

Watery, gray, fishy, smelling discharge, vaginal spotting

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161
Q

Candidiasis

A

Thick, white, curd like discharge Vulvovaginal redness with itching

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162
Q

Testing for trichomonas, bacterial vaginosis, candidiasis

A

Microscopic wet prep may use NAAT or vaginal culture

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163
Q

Description of diagnostic testing with trichomonas

A

Normal saline mixture shows motile trichomonads low sensitivity, compared to culture

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164
Q

Description of diagnostic testing with bacterial vaginosis

A

Normal saline mixture shows irregularly shaped vaginal epithelial cells also known as clues cells: potassium hydroxide KOH added to culture produces characteristic odor also called the whiff test

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165
Q

Description of diagnostic testing for candidiasis

A

KOH mixture shows pseudoHyphae

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166
Q

Description of diagnostic testing for candidiasis

A

KOH mixture shows pseudoHyphae

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167
Q

Treatment for trichomonas

A

Metronidazole
500mg po for 7 days women
2gm orally x1 men

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168
Q

Treatment for bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole 500mg x7 days
Or
Gel intravaginally x 5 days
Or
Clindamycin cream intravaginally at bedtime x 7 days
Or tinidazole orally or Clindamycin orally

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169
Q

Treatment for candidiasis

A

OTC ZOLE INTRAVAGINALLY OR
FLUCONAZOLE ORAL x1

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170
Q

Symptoms of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

Positive cervical motion, tenderness,
Adnexal tenderness- area over ovaries tenderness
Fever

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171
Q

Treatment of PID

A

Ceftriaxone 500mg IM plus doxy and metronidazole x 14 days
Or
Cefoxitin 2g IM with probenecid orally with doxy and metro x 14 days

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172
Q

If bleeding is uterine, determine the caused by the PALM – COEIN pneumonic

A

Polyps
Adenomyosis
Leo myoma
Malignancy and hyperplasia.
Coagulopathy.
Ovulatory dysfunction
Endometrial causes.
Iatrogenic causes next line not yet classified

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173
Q

Breast cancer, symptoms, and history

A

Non-tender painless mass.
Asymptomatic – later symptoms include pain, erythema, dimpling, ulceration, nipple retraction

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174
Q

Physical examination for breast cancer

A

One – nontender with poorly defined borders.
2 fixed and firm
3 may also find dimpling, nipple reactions, bloody discharge, lymphadenopathy
4 may have bloody nipple discharge

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175
Q

Intraductal papilloma

A

Benign and may have serosanguinous discharge from nipple

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176
Q

At what age do you start breast cancer screening and how often do you do it?

A

Screening will start at age 40 and will be annually for the ages of 45 to 54 and then every two years after the age of 55.
You can stop at age 75

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177
Q

What non-hormonal treatment is used in the symptoms of menopause?

A

Paroxetine 7.5 mg per day or SSRI ssnri

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178
Q

Why does anorexia lead to osteoporosis?

A

Because the excess exercise or eating disorder leads to amenorrhea, which leads to decrease amount of estrogen resulting in bone loss

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179
Q

What is the other name of osteopenia?

A

Low bone mass

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180
Q

When taking supplement for osteoporosis, which drug should you avoid?

A

Avoid aluminum containing antacids because the calcium binds with aluminum

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181
Q

What is the other name of a butterfly rash?

A

Malar rash

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182
Q

What is the management for lupus?

A

Sun protection.
Rest
NSaIDS, Hydroxycholoquines, glucocorticoids

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183
Q

Sensitivity

A

Positive shows positive

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184
Q

Specificity

A

Negative shows negative

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185
Q

Antibiotic for uncomplicated cystitis of lower UTIs

A

Macrobid 100mg bid x 5 days
Or
Bactrim bid x 3 days
Or
Fosfomycin 3mg x 1

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186
Q

Which drug can you not give a pregnant person after 36 weeks gestation for an uncomplicated UTI

A

Macrobid

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187
Q

During pregnancy which antibiotic should be considered for an uncomplicated UTI (4)

A

Amoxicillin, Augmentin, Macrobid under 36 weeks, Keflex

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188
Q

What is the other name of an upper UTI?

A

Pyelonephritis

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189
Q

Signs and symptoms of an upper UTI

A

Flank, low back or abdominal pain.
Fever and chills.
Nausea, vomiting.
Mental status changes in the elderly

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190
Q

Laboratory values for upper UTI

A

White blood cell cast seen on urinalysis
ESR elevated with pylon nephritis

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191
Q

Treatment for upper UTIs

A

Cipro 500 mg by mouth twice a day for seven days if uncomplicated
Levofloxacin
Ceftriaxone 1gm IV EVERY 24 hours for 14 days

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192
Q

Management for stress incontinence

A

Timed voids to prevent full bladder
Pessary.
Surgery

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193
Q

Management for stress incontinence

A

Timed voids to prevent full bladder
Pessary.
Surgery

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194
Q

Management for urge incontinence

A

Urge suppression/distraction.
Quick pelvic contractions.
Medication

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195
Q

Tanner stage one in boys

A

Pre-adolescent testes, scrotum, penis

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196
Q

Tanner stage one in boys

A

Pre-adolescent testes, scrotum, penis

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197
Q

Tanner stage two in boys

A

Enlargement of scrotum and testes: scrotum, roughens and reddens

198
Q

Tanner stage two in boys

A

Enlargement of scrotum and testes: scrotum, roughens and reddens

199
Q

Tanner stage three in boys

A

Penis elongates

200
Q

Tanner stage three in boys

A

Penis elongates

201
Q

Tanner stage four in boys

A

Penis enlarges in breath and development of glands; rugae appears

202
Q

Tanner stage 5 in boys

A

Adult shape and appearance

203
Q

What is the common cause of epididymitis in men less than 35 years of age?

204
Q

What are the symptoms of epididymitis?

A

UTI symptoms plus scrotal edema

205
Q

Cremasteric reflex

A

Rub the thigh and scrotum goes up
Normal in epididymitis and absent in testicular torsion

206
Q

Cremasteric reflex

A

Rub the thigh and scrotum goes up
Normal in epididymitis and absent in testicular torsion

207
Q

Physical examination in epididymitis

A

Enlarged and tender epididymitis.
Urethral discharge may be evident positive PREHN sign

208
Q

Diagnostic test for epididymitis

A

STD testing
Culture of urine
Scrotal ultrasound to rule out testicular torsion

209
Q

Treatment for epididymitis

A

For a cute epididymitis, most likely caused by sexually transmitted, chlamydia and gonorrhea.
Ceftriaxone 500 mg Im times one + doxycycline 100 mg b.i.d. for 10 days

Can also use levofloxacin 500 mg oral once a day for 10 days

210
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis cause

A

Usually caused by gram-negative bacteria, especially E. coli.
Non-bacterial prostatitis, mostly in young men caused by chlamydia

211
Q

Acute bacterial prostatitis cause

A

Usually caused by gram-negative bacteria, especially E. coli.
Non-bacterial prostatitis, mostly in young men caused by chlamydia

212
Q

Signs and symptoms of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Fever or chills
Low back pain
Dysuria.
Urgency, and frequency.
Nocturia

213
Q

Physical examination of acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Edema of the prostate may be warm and tender or boggy to palpation and will have pain

214
Q

Diagnostic testing for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Urinalysis.
Urine culture as usually positive for causative agent

215
Q

Treatment for acute bacterial prostatitis

A

Antibiotic.
Single dose ceftriaxone 250 mg I M or single-dose cefixime 400 mg orally or Cipro Floxin 500 mg orally twice a day for 10 to 14 days or level Floxin 500 mg to 750 mg oral daily for 10 to 14 days. Next line sits back three times a day for 30 minutes each treatment.

216
Q

Which herbal agent is effective in BPH

A

Saw Palmetto

217
Q

What would a physical examination of someone that has BPH look like

A

Bladder dissension may be present.
Prostate is nontender with either asymmetry or symmetrical enlargement.
Smooth, rubber consistency with possible nodules

218
Q

What are the advanced stages of prostate cancer?

219
Q

What are the physical examination of prostate cancer?

A

Adenopathy.
Bladder distention
Prostate palpate harder than normal with obscure boundaries and nodules may be present

220
Q

Normal values of PSA

A

40-49- less than 2.5
50-59 less than 3.5
60-69 less than 4.5
70-79 less than 6.5

221
Q

When does the sero conversion process of converting HIV negative to HIV positive happen to look like and how long does the process take?

A

Looks like flu like symptoms and an approximately takes three weeks to six months

222
Q

Aids occurs when the CD4 count is what

A

Less than 200

223
Q

What is the first test for HIV?

A

HIV 1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay

224
Q

If HIV 1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay is positive, which test do you do?

A

HIV-1/HIV -2 antibody differentiation immunoassay

225
Q

If HIV 1/2 antigen/antibody combination immunoassay is positive, which test do you do?

A

HIV-1/HIV -2 antibody differentiation immunoassay

226
Q

What is the normal CD4 count

227
Q

What is the normal CD4 count

228
Q

Antibiotic for pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasmosis

229
Q

Antibiotic for pneumocystis pneumonia and toxoplasmosis

230
Q

Antibiotic for Mycobacterium avium

A

Azithromycin

231
Q

Chancroid signs and symptoms

A

Women are usually asymptomatic. Next line men: single or multiple superficial PAINFUL ulcer, surrounded by edematous halo.
Ulcers may be necrotic or severely erosive

232
Q

How to diagnose chancroid

A

Probable diagnosis is usually matter of exclusion.
Involves genitalia and unilateral bubo or both – swollen inguinal lymph node
Painful, genital ulcers in absence of herpes simplex virus with coexisting, tender, inguinal lymphadenopathy.

233
Q

Treatment for chancroid

A

Azithromycin 1 g by mouth for one dose. Or
Rocephin 250 mg Im x1
Or
Cipro 500 mg BID for three days
Or
Erythromycin 500 mg three times a day for seven days

234
Q

Signs and symptoms of chlamydia in women

A

Females often asymptomatic
Dysuria
Spotting
Postcoital bleeding
Dyspareunia
Vaginal discharge

235
Q

Signs and symptoms of chlamydia and men

A

Dysuria.
Thick, cloudy penile discharge.
Testicular pain.
Rectal Tenesmus

236
Q

Laboratory and diagnostic test for chlamydia

A

Nucleic acid amplification test NAAT to detect bacteria, DNA or RNA
Women – vaginal or cervical swabs optimal or first void urine
Men first void urine or urethral swab

237
Q

Treatment for chlamydia

A

Doxycycline 100 mg BID times seven days
Alternatively – azithromycin 1 g PO times one dose or levofloxacin 500 mg daily times seven days

238
Q

Genital warts (condyloma Acuminata) signs and symptoms

A

Single or multiple soft, fleshy, papillary, painless, keratinized, growth around anus, Vulvovaginal area, penis, urethra, or perennial
Genital warts- HPV 6&11

239
Q

At what age do you give the Gardasil vaccine and how is it administered?

A

Given at age 15 to 45 years of age and given in three dose schedule at zero, two months, and six months

240
Q

At what age do you give the Gardasil vaccine and how is it administered?

A

Given at age 15 to 45 years of age and given in three dose schedule at zero, two months, and six months

241
Q

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea in women
GG

A

Often asymptomatic
Dysuria.
Urinary frequency.
MUCOPURULENT VAGINAL DISCHARGE(green)
Lower abdominal pain
Fever
Dysmenorrhea

242
Q

Signs and symptoms of gonorrhea in men

A

Dysuria
Frequency
White/yellow GREEN penile discharge.
Testicular pain

243
Q

Laboratory testing for gonorrhea

A

NAAT using urine sample.
POC NAAT GeneXpert
Culture using modified THAYER – Martin media, Endo, cervical and females and urethral in male

244
Q

Laboratory testing for gonorrhea

A

NAAT using urine sample.
POC NAAT GeneXpert
Culture using modified THAYER – Martin media, Endo, cervical and females and urethral in male

245
Q

Treatment for gonorrhea

A

Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM for one dose less than 150 kg next line if chlamydia infection not ruled out doxycycline hundred milligrams POBID times seven days

246
Q

HSV type one

A

Found on lips, face, and mucosa

247
Q

HSV type two

A

Found on the genitalia

248
Q

HSV 2 signs and symptoms

A

Headache, fever, bodyaches, malaise, joint pain.
First outbreak is usually the worst the first 2 to 3 weeks: reoccur with additional outbreaks, but less severe and shorter distance next line triggers, other viral, or bacterial infections, menstrual periods, stress

249
Q

HSV 2 signs and symptoms

A

Headache, fever, bodyaches, malaise, joint pain.
First outbreak is usually the worst the first 2 to 3 weeks: reoccur with additional outbreaks, but less severe and shorter distance next line triggers, other viral, or bacterial infections, menstrual periods, stress

250
Q

Laboratory test for HSV type one and type two

A

NAAT from lesion
Culture from lesion

251
Q

Lymphogranuloma Venereum signs

A

2-3mm PAINLESS vesicle, bubo(swollen inguinal lymph node) or nonindurated ulcer
Regional ADENOPATHY follows in approximately one month and is the most common finding.
Stiffness and aching, and groin followed by unilateral swelling of the inguinal region

252
Q

Treatment for LGV

A

Doxycycline 100 mg twice a day for 21 days
Alternatives.
Azithromycin 1 g once per week times three weeks or myosin 500 mg four times a day for 21 days

253
Q

Molluscum Contagiosum signs and symptoms

A

Lesions1-5 millimeters, smooth, rounded, firm, shiny flash colored to PEARLY, white papules commonly seen on the trunk and anogenital region

254
Q

Treatment for Molluscum Contagiosum

A

Cryo anesthesia with liquid nitrogen.

255
Q

Symptoms of syphilis in the primary stage

A

Chancre present at the side of infection common at three weeks after exposure.
chancre indurated and painless
Regional Lymphadenopathy

256
Q

Symptoms of syphilis in the primary stage

A

Chancre present at the side of infection common at three weeks after exposure.
chancre indurated and painless
Regional Lymphadenopathy

257
Q

Signs and symptoms of syphilis in the secondary stage

A

Occurred 2 to eight weeks later.
Flu like symptoms.
Generalized lymphadeneopathy next line generalized MACULOPAPULAR RASH, especially on the palms and soles

258
Q

Signs and symptoms of syphilis in Latent stage

A

Seropositive, but asymptomatic

259
Q

Signs and symptoms of syphilis in the tertiary stage

A

Leukoplakia
Cardiac insufficiency
Infiltrated, tumors of the skin, bones, liver.
Central nervous system, involvement, such as meningitis, hemiplegia hemiparasis

260
Q

Serology testing for syphilis

A

VDRL and or rapid plasma REAGIN
Confirmed with TREPONEMAL test, which is
-Treponema pallidum particle agglutination assay( TP-PA)
- Florescent treponemal antibody absorption (FTA-ABS)
- chemiluminescence immunoassay CIA

261
Q

Treatment for primary, secondary, or early late syphilis

A

Penicillin G 2.4 million units in one dose

262
Q

Treatment for penicillin in late latent or tertiary stage

A

Penicillin G 2.4 million units weekly times three weeks

263
Q

If allergic to penicillin, what is the treatment for syphilis?

A

Doxycycline 100 mg b.i.d. for 14 days or tetracycline 500 mg four times a day for 14 days

264
Q

Normal value for TIBC

265
Q

Normal serum iron

266
Q

MCH value

267
Q

MCHC

268
Q

Iron deficiency anemia description and lab value

A

Pica
Dyspnea with mild exercise
Weakness
Tachycardia

Labs
Low hemoglobin
Low hct
Low MCV
low MCHC
Low RBC
LIW SERUM IRON, ferritin
HIGH TIBC
HIGH RDW

269
Q

What drug should not be taken with iron and which juice is better to take with iron because it increases absorption?

A

Antacids and juice that has vitamin C

270
Q

Thalassemia labs and treatment

A

Decreased hgb
Low MCV
Low MCHC
normal TIBC
NORMAL FERRITIN

No treatment, RBC TRANSFUSION FOR MORE SEVERE CASES

271
Q

Folic acid deficiency signs and symptoms

A

Fatigue.
Dyspnea on exertion
Glossitis – inflamed tongue/beefy
APHTHOUS ULCERS-stress ulcers on lips

272
Q

Lab values for folic acid deficiency

A

Hct and hgb decreased
MVC increased
MCHC NORMAL
SERUM FOLATE DECREASED

273
Q

Treatment for folic acid deficiency

A

Folate 1gm every day

274
Q

Pernicious anemia signs and symptoms

A

Weakness
Glossitis
Palpitations
PositiveRomberg
Positive Bobinski
Loss of fine motor control.
Loss of vibratory sense

275
Q

Pernicious anemia signs and symptoms

A

Weakness
Glossitis
Palpitations
PositiveRomberg
Positive Bobinski
Loss of fine motor control.
Loss of vibratory sense

276
Q

Lab values for pernicious anemia

A

Hemoglobin, hematocrit, and RBCs decreased
MCV increased
Serum B12 decreased or less than 0.1
Anti-– IN anti-parietal cell antibody test firm a deficiency

277
Q

Management of pernicious anemia

A

B12 100 IM daily times one week then maintenance shots every month

278
Q

Sickle cell crisis symptoms

A

Sudden onset of severe pain in extremities, back, chest, and abdomen.
Aching joint pain.
Weakness.
Dyspnea

279
Q

Lab values for sickle cell anemia

A

Hemoglobin decrease.
Peripheral smear show, classic distorted, sickle cell shaped.
Cellulose, acetate, and citrate a guard gel electrophoresis to confirm hemoglobin genotype

280
Q

Polycythemia signs and symptoms and lab values

A

Fatigue.
Weakness
Visual disturbances.
Headache
Hemoglobin greater than 18.5 in men and greater than 16.5 in women

281
Q

Management for polycythemia

A

Phlebotomy.
Aspirin.
Referral

282
Q

Hemochromatosis signs and symptoms and treatment

A

Fatigue, joint pain, pain, and knuckles of pointer and middle fingers.
Get an iron panel test.
Management: iron chelation and do not eat food high in iron

283
Q

Hallmark sign of acute lymphocytic leukemia

A

Pancytopenia with circulating blast.
All levels are low, including platelets, hemoglobin, and RBCs

284
Q

What is the Hallmark sign of chronic lymphocytic leukemia?

A

Lymphocytosis or elevated WBCs

285
Q

What is the hallmark sign of chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A

Philadelphia chromosome seen in leukemic cells

286
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of leukemia?

A

Maybe asymptomatic
Fatigue
Weakness
Anorexia.
GENERALIZED lymphADENOPATHY
Weight loss

287
Q

Lab values for leukemia

A

CBC with normal RBCs and neutrophil.
ELEVATED ESR.
A peripheral blood smear, usually distinguishes, acute and chronic leukemia, but a bone marrow aspiration is required to confirm the diagnosis

288
Q

Stage one of lymphoma

A

Disease localized to a single lymph node or group

289
Q

Stage one of lymphoma

A

Disease localized to a single lymph node or group

290
Q

Stage two of lymphoma

A

More than one lymph node group involved, but confined to one side of the diaphragm

291
Q

Stage three of lymphoma

A

Lymph nodes or the spleen involved, but occurs on both sides of the diaphragm

292
Q

Stage three of lymphoma

A

Lymph nodes or the spleen involved, but occurs on both sides of the diaphragm

293
Q

Stage four of lymphoma

A

Liver or bone marrow involvement

294
Q

Non-Hodgkin’s lymphoma

A

Often presents with lymphadenopathy next line increased incident in elite 50s

295
Q

Hodgkin’s disease

A

Younger lymphoma average age is 32 years old.
Usually presents with cervical adenopathy and spreads in a predictable fashion along lymph node groups.
Characteristic REED Steinberg cells differentiate from non-Hodgkin’s disease

296
Q

TNM classification

A

T- 0-4
N-0-3
M-0/1

297
Q

Meniscus tear characteristics

A

Locking
Giving away
Acute swelling- grapefruit size
Crepitus
Positive MCMURRAY

298
Q

McMurray test

A

An audible/palpable click when the knee is raised slowly with 1 foot externally rotated (knee is flexed and then quickly straightened): and peas hand rest on the joint line: test is positive for medial meniscus injury

299
Q

Lachman’s test

A

Drawer test to assess for anterior/posterior cruciate ligament tear

Place knee in 20 to 30° flexion, grasp leg with one hand with anterior force to proximal tibia to stress the ACL/PCL while the opposite hand stabilizes the thigh : grade 1+ to 3+ grade of displacement as an example of a positive positive test

300
Q

Lachman’s test

A

Drawer test to assess for anterior/posterior cruciate ligament tear

Place knee in 20 to 30° flexion, grasp leg with one hand with anterior force to proximal tibia to stress the ACL/PCL while the opposite hand stabilizes the thigh : grade 1+ to 3+ grade of displacement as an example of a positive positive test

301
Q

Apley’s grind test

A

Flex knee 90° with the patient PRONE put pressure on heel with one hand while rotating the lower leg internally and externally: pain or click is positive for medial or lateral collateral ligament damage and or meniscus injury

302
Q

Grade one ankle sprain

A

Mild, localized, tenderness, normal range of motion, no disability

303
Q

Grade one ankle sprain

A

Mild, localized, tenderness, normal range of motion, no disability

304
Q

Grade 2 ankle sprain

A

Moderate/severe pain with weight-bearing: difficulty walking, swelling, and ecchymosis. Pain immediately after injury.

305
Q

Grade 3 ankle sprain

A

Unable to ambulate, resist any emotion of the feet: egg shaped swelling within two hours of injury

306
Q

Grade 3 ankle sprain

A

Unable to ambulate, resist any emotion of the feet: egg shaped swelling within two hours of injury

307
Q

Diagnostics for bursitis

A

Aspiration with gram stain and culture and sensitivity.
WBC, if elevated suggested of bacterial infection
Plain x-ray is to rule out other bone/joint conditions

308
Q

X-ray findings in osteoarthritis

A

Narrowing of the joint space
Osteophytes
Juxta-articular sclerosis
Subchondral bone

309
Q

X-ray findings and rheumatoid arthritis

A

Joint swelling
Progressive, cortical thinning.
Osteopenia
joint space narrowing

310
Q

Lab values elevated in rheumatoid arthritis

A

ESR
USUALLY ANA POSITIVE

311
Q

What drug class is used for treatment of
Rheumatoid arthritis?

A

Disease, modifying anti-rheumatic drugs or DMARDS

312
Q

Positive pelvic rock test

A

Screens for sacroiliac joint dysfunction: place hands on each of the anterior superior iliac, spines, and attempt to open and close the pelvis. The test is positive if the patient feels pain in either or both sacroiliac joints.

313
Q

L3-L4 disk pathology

A

Quadriceps, muscles, weak, and or a trophic.
Pain, radiating into medial malleolus, numbness along the same path, especially medial aspect of the knee.
DIMINISHED or absent patella reflex.
Screening exam: have patient squat and rise

314
Q

L4-L5 disk pathology

A

Weakness of the dorsiflexion mechanism of the great toe and foot.
Pain radiating into lateral calf: numbness of the dorsum of the foot and lateral calf. screening exam: have patient walk on heels of feet.

315
Q

L5-S1 disk pathology

A

Weakness of the planter flexion of the great toe and foot
Pain along buttocks, lateral leg, and lateral malleolus: numbness to the lateral aspect of the foot and in posterior calf
DIMINISHED or absent Achilles reflex
Screening : have patient walk on toes

316
Q

Osgood Schlatter disease

A

Painful limp with pain below the kneecap.
Pain is exacerbated with running, jumping, and climbing stairs

317
Q

Medial tibial stress syndrome is also known as what

A

Shin splints

318
Q

Finkelstein test

A

The hand is kept in a fist position with the fingers wrapped over the thumb. The wrist is moved up and down mimicking a handshake. If pain is felt, the test is positive for TENOSYNOVITIS.
De Quervain Tenosynovitis

319
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica signs and symptoms

A

May be associated with temporal arthritis.
Stiffness in neck, shoulders, and hips.
Loss of range of motion in affected areas.
Fatigue, anemia, and mild fever

320
Q

Polymyalgia Rheumatica signs and symptoms

A

May be associated with temporal arthritis.
Stiffness in neck, shoulders, and hips.
Loss of range of motion in affected areas.
Fatigue, anemia, and mild fever

321
Q

Diagnostic labs and test for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

ESR
X-ray, as needed to rule out other conditions

322
Q

Management for polymyalgia rheumatica

A

Cortical steroids.
Symptomatic management

323
Q

Stable causality

A

It will always be this way

324
Q

Stable causality

A

It will always be this way

325
Q

Global thinking

A

Everything is ruined

326
Q

Global thinking

A

Everything is ruined

327
Q

Internal versus external causes

A

It’s all my fault

328
Q

One of the two symptoms must be present along with five more symptoms in a two week period to represent major depressive disorder

A

Depressed mood most of the day, nearly every day or markedly diminish, interest, or pleasure in almost all activities, which is also also known as anhedonia

329
Q

What are the five stages of grief?

A

Denial
Anger,
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance

330
Q

Tricyclics such as elavil , doxepin, nortriptyline have a black box warning of?

A

Prolonged QT

331
Q

Which drug class causes a hypertensive crisis, if used with wine and cheese

332
Q

What are the three tests used for cellebellar function?

A

Romberg
Finger to nose test.
Heel to shin test

333
Q

Cranial nerve pneumonic for motor or sensory

A

Some say Mary money, but my brother says big bras matter most

334
Q

Cranial nerve 1

A

Olfactory smell

335
Q

Cranial nerve 2

A

Optic
Vision

336
Q

Cranial nerve 3

A

Oculomotor
Most EOMs,
Opening eyelids, pupillary construction

337
Q

Cranial nerve 4

A

Trochlear.
Down and inward I movement

338
Q

Cranial nerve 5

A

Trigeminal
Muscles of mastication, sensation of face, scalp, cornea, mucus, membranes, and nose
moving jaw

339
Q

Cranial nerve 6

A

Abducens
Lateral eye movement

340
Q

Cranial nerve 7

A

Facial
Move face, close mouth and eyes, taste, saliva and tears secretion.
Puff cheeks

341
Q

Cranial nerve 8

A

Acoustic.
Hearing and equilibrium

342
Q

Cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal
Phonation, gag, reflex, carotid reflex, swallowing, taste. Gag reflex.

343
Q

Cranial nerve 9

A

Glossopharyngeal
Phonation, gag, reflex, carotid reflex, swallowing, taste. Gag reflex.

344
Q

Cranial nerve 10

A

Vagus
Talking, swallowing, general sensation from the carotid body, carotid reflex

345
Q

Cranial nerve 11

A

Spinal accessory
Movement of the trapezius and sternomastoid muscles.
Shrug shoulders

346
Q

Cranial nerve 12

A

Hypoglossal
Moves the tongue.

347
Q

Tension, headaches, signs, and symptoms

A

Vice or tight quality
Usually generalized.
Maybe most intense about the neck or back of head next line no associated focal neurological symptoms.
Usually last several hours
Temporal area soreness

348
Q

Migraine headaches are which cranial nerve

A

Cranial nerve five – trigeminal

349
Q

Migraine signs and symptoms

A

Unilateral, lateralized throbbing headache that occurs episodically.
Throbbing
Positive neuroscience
Macy, stars, zigzag of light, or sparks, may have photophobia or phonophobia

350
Q

Management of acute attack of migraine

A

Rest in dark quiet room
Simple analgesics taken right away to provide some relief.
Imitrex 6 mg subQ at onset may repeat in one hour for a total of three times per day next line
Imitrex 25 mg orally at onset of headache

351
Q

Cluster headaches, signs, and symptoms

A

Unilateral. Around eye. Last about two hours. Pain occurring daily for several weeks.

352
Q

Treatment for cluster headaches

A

If oral drugs unsatisfactory then inhalation of 100% oxygen may help
Imitrex 6mg SQ or other triptans

353
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

Ipsilateral monocular blindness
Altered vision

354
Q

Amaurosis fugax

A

Ipsilateral monocular blindness
Altered vision

355
Q

Homonymous hemianopia

A

Half vision

356
Q

Simple partial seizure

A

No loss of consciousness.
Rarely last greater than a minute.
Motor symptoms often start in a single muscle group and spreads the entire part of the body.
Paresthesia, flashing lights, vocalization, hallucinations common

357
Q

Simple partial seizure

A

No loss of consciousness.
Rarely last greater than a minute.
Motor symptoms often start in a single muscle group and spreads the entire part of the body.
Paresthesia, flashing lights, vocalization, hallucinations common

358
Q

Complex partial seizure

A

Any simple, partial seizure, followed by impaired level of consciousness. May have aura, staring, automatisms such as lipsmacking and picking at clothing

359
Q

Complex partial seizure

A

Any simple, partial seizure, followed by impaired level of consciousness. May have aura, staring, automatisms such as lipsmacking and picking at clothing

360
Q

Absent or petite mal seizure

A

Sudden arrest of motor activity with blank stare. Commonly discovered in children/adolescence: begin and end suddenly.

361
Q

Absent or petite mal seizure

A

Sudden arrest of motor activity with blank stare. Commonly discovered in children/adolescence: begin and end suddenly.

362
Q

Tonic clonic or grand MAL seizure

A

May have aura.
Begins with tonic contractions, which are repetitive involuntary contractions of the muscle, loss of consciousness, then clonic contractions, which are involuntary contractions of the muscle.
Usually last 2 to 5 minutes
Incontinence may occur.
Followed by post ictal period

363
Q

Tonic clonic or grand MAL seizure

A

May have aura.
Begins with tonic contractions, which are repetitive involuntary contractions of the muscle, loss of consciousness, then clonic contractions, which are involuntary contractions of the muscle.
Usually last 2 to 5 minutes
Incontinence may occur.
Followed by post ictal period

364
Q

Status epilepticus

A

A seizure that lost longer than five minutes, or having more than one seizure within a five minute period without returning to normal level of consciousness.
Medical emergency

365
Q

Status epilepticus

A

A seizure that lost longer than five minutes, or having more than one seizure within a five minute period without returning to normal level of consciousness.
Medical emergency

366
Q

What is the most important test and determining seizure classifications

367
Q

Maintenance drug for seizure

A

Carbamazepine( Tegretol)
Phenobarbital
Phenytoin( Dilantin)
Valproic acid (Depakene)

368
Q

Myerson sign

A

Repetitive tapping over the bridge of the nose, produces a sustained blink response.
Glabellar reflex

369
Q

Cullen sign

A

Periumbilical bruising indicating pancreatitis

370
Q

Which of the following assessment findings is consistent with pheochromocytoma?

A

Hypertension

371
Q

erysipelas

A

A tender, warm-to-the-touch, unilateral, raised, erythematous, patchy rash with clearly defined borders involving the pinna

372
Q

uveitis

A

constricted pupil and haziness with anterior-chamber leukocytes on slit-lamp examination.
Red eye

373
Q

uveitis

A

constricted pupil and haziness with anterior-chamber leukocytes on slit-lamp examination.
Red eye

374
Q

lichen sclerosus

A

Genital pruritus and porcelain-white plaques with atrophic vulvar skin

375
Q

A patient presents reporting severe paroxysms of pain that occur along the distribution of cranial nerve V while chewing, talking, or brushing their teeth. What is the first-line treatment for the suspected condition?

A

Carbamazepine (Carbatrol)

376
Q

The Brudzinski sign

A

indicative of meningitis, but it consists of flexion of the hips and knees when supine with the neck flexed.

377
Q

The Brudzinski sign

A

indicative of meningitis, but it consists of flexion of the hips and knees when supine with the neck flexed.

378
Q

Kernig sign

A

the patient cannot fully extend the left knee while lying on their back with the left hip at 90°. The patient reports low back pain with this maneuver.
Meningitis

379
Q

Age related macular degeneration

A

reports poor vision in low lighting, a decrease in central vision, and distortion of straight lines.

380
Q

Age related macular degeneration

A

reports poor vision in low lighting, a decrease in central vision, and distortion of straight lines.

381
Q

A 68-year-old patient presents with a 2-day history of a red right eye with pain, clear discharge, and photosensitivity. The nurse practitioner suspects herpes keratitis. Which of the following physical exam findings would best support this diagnosis?

A

Dendritic lesion on fluorescein exam

382
Q

A 68-year-old patient presents with a 2-day history of a red right eye with pain, clear discharge, and photosensitivity. The nurse practitioner suspects herpes keratitis. Which of the following physical exam findings would best support this diagnosis?

A

Dendritic lesion on fluorescein exam

383
Q

Which of the following assessment findings is consistent with lateral epicondylitis?

A

Pain elicited with wrist extension while the elbow is extended

384
Q

Which of the following assessment findings is consistent with lateral epicondylitis?

A

Pain elicited with wrist extension while the elbow is extended

385
Q

medial epicondylitis or golfer’s elbow.

A

Tenderness with palpation of the proximal wrist flexor muscles

386
Q

medial epicondylitis or golfer’s elbow.

A

Tenderness with palpation of the proximal wrist flexor muscles

387
Q

Myasthenia gravis definition

A

Auto immune disorder, resulting in the reduction of the number of acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction

388
Q

Agnosia

A

the impaired ability to process sensory information, such as not recognizing things or people who were previously familiar.

389
Q

Apraxia

A

involves difficulty performing motor tasks.

390
Q

What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for COPD patients with minimal symptoms and no exacerbations leading to hospitalization according to the GOLD guidelines?

A

Long- or short-acting bronchodilator

391
Q

Cataracts

A

worsening blurred vision. The patient reports no ocular pain

392
Q

Diagnostic and labs for myasthenia gravis

A

Antibodies to acetylcholine receptors a ACHR – AB are found in the serum

393
Q

Blumberg sign

A

Patients will often present with right lower quadrant (RLQ) abdominal tenderness. This pain is often made worse with the removal of pressure during the abdominal examination.
This sign is called rebound tenderness

394
Q

Alzheimer’s is a deficiency in what?

A

Acetylcholine

395
Q

Treatment for myasthenia gravis

A

PROSTIGMIN
Immunosuppressive.
Plasmaparesis

396
Q

Definition of multiple sclerosis

A

Auto immune disease marked by numbness, weakness, loss of muscle, coordination, and problems with vision, speech, and bladder control.
The bodies immune system attacks, Mylin, Keith substance that serves as a nerve insulator and helps in the transmission of the nerve signals

397
Q

Diagnostic testing for multiple sclerosis

A

MRI
CSF with a lumber puncture.
Blood test to rule out other causes such as infection

398
Q

Treatment for Bell’s palsy

A

Prednisone 60 mg divided into 4 to 5 doses daily and tapered over 7 to 10 days
Acyclovir when Bell’s palsy is caused by varicella zoster infection
Lubricating eyedrop‘s and patch at night if unable to close

399
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia definition and treatment

A

Nerve disorder that causes a stabbing or electrical shock like pain in parts of the face

Treatment include anti-seizure drugs, such as carbazepine, muscle relaxants such as soma or Flexeril and tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline

400
Q

Trigeminal neuralgia definition and treatment

A

Nerve disorder that causes a stabbing or electrical shock like pain in parts of the face

Treatment include anti-seizure drugs, such as carbazepine, muscle relaxants such as soma or Flexeril and tricyclic antidepressants like amitriptyline

401
Q

S1

A

Mitral/tricuspid. AV valves closure: aortic/pulmonic semilunar – valves open

402
Q

S2

A

Aortic/pulmonic or semilunar valve closure: mitral/tricuspid or AV valves open

403
Q

S2

A

Aortic/pulmonic or semilunar valve closure: mitral/tricuspid or AV valves open

404
Q

. Between S1 and S2.

405
Q

. Between S1 and S2.

406
Q

Period BetweenS2 an S1.

407
Q

Period BetweenS2 an S1.

408
Q

Grade one murmur

A

Barely audible

409
Q

Grade 2 murmur

A

Audible but faint

410
Q

Grade 3 murmur

A

Moderately loud or easily heard

411
Q

Grade 4 murmur

A

Loud : associated with a thrill

412
Q

Grade 5 murmur

A

Very loud: heard with one corner of the stethoscope off the chest wall

413
Q

Grade 5 murmur

A

Very loud: heard with one corner of the stethoscope off the chest wall

414
Q

Grade 6 murmur

A

Loudest murmur

415
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Diastolic murmur. Loud S1 murmur, low pitched, mid diastolic : apical crescendo rumbling.

416
Q

Mitral stenosis

A

Diastolic murmur. Loud S1 murmur, low pitched, mid diastolic : apical crescendo rumbling.

417
Q

Mitral regurgitation

A

Systolic murmur at fifth intercostal midclavicular line (Apex)May radiate to base or left axilla: blowing or high-pitched may follow an S3

418
Q

Aortic stenosis

A

Systolic, blowing, rough, harsh murmur at second right intercostal space usually radiating to the neck

419
Q

Aortic regurgitation

A

Diastolic, blowing murmur at second left intercostal space

420
Q

Where are the mitral murmurs usually located?

A

Fifth intercostal space aka Apex

421
Q

Where are the aortic murmurs located?

A

Second or third ICS also known as base

422
Q

Signs and symptoms of left heart failure

A

Acute
Dyspnea at rest
Overall long fields.
Wheezing, frothy cough.
Appears generally healthy, except for a cute event.
Three gallop.
Murmur of mitral regurgitation

423
Q

Signs and symptoms of right heart failure

A

Chronic
JVD
Hepatomegaly, splenomegaly
Dependent edema, which is a result of increase capillary hydrostatic pressure.
Paroxysmal nocturnal Dyspnea
Appears chronically ill.
Fatigue on exertion.
S3 and or S4

424
Q

Management for congestive heart failure

A

Sodium restriction.
Activity balance
Weight reduction

Pharmacological
1. Ace inhibitors are the standard of care.
2. Diuretics
3. Beta blocker
4. Entresto to get rid of fluid
5. Digoxin
Ace or arb
Ace better

425
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

130-139 or 80-89

426
Q

Stage 1 hypertension

A

130-139 or 80-89

427
Q

Stage 2 hypertension

A

Sbp greater than 140 or DBP greater than 90

428
Q

Management of blood pressure for non-African-American

A

Thiazide
Ace or arb
CCB

429
Q

Management of hypertension for African-Americans

A

First line thiazide diuretics
Then calcium channel blockers

430
Q

Management for hypertension in adults older than 18-year-old with chronic kidney disease

431
Q

Do not use an ACE and ARB together because it could put you at risk for what?

A

Hyperkalemia

432
Q

Continue to assess blood pressure__________ until goal is reached

433
Q

What is the benefit of thiazide type diuretics?

A

They are usually recommended for the first line treatment, and they may also protect against osteoporosis by reducing the amount of calcium expelled in the urine

434
Q

Levine’s sign

A

Clenched fist sign describing angina

435
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

Variant/vasospastic: occurs at various times, including rest could show ST elevation in all leads with the treatment being calcium channel blockers

436
Q

Prinzmetal angina

A

Variant/vasospastic: occurs at various times, including rest could show ST elevation in all leads with the treatment being calcium channel blockers

437
Q

What is the treatment for prinzmetal angina?

A

Calcium channel blockers

438
Q

What is the LDL goal for patients with diabetes or documented coronary artery disease?

A

Less than 70

439
Q

What are the two high intensity statin therapies?

A

Atorvastatin 40 to 80 mg or
Rosuvastatin 20 to 40 mg

440
Q

Lateral MI is shown on the EKG by peaked waves, ST elevation, Q wave development in which leads

441
Q

Inferior MI is shown on the EKG by peaked waves, ST elevation, Q wave development in which leads

A

2,3, and aVF

442
Q

Anterior MI is shown on the EKG by peaked waves, ST elevation, Q wave development in which leads

A

V leads( precordial) or V3 and V4

443
Q

Anterior MI is shown on the EKG by peaked waves, ST elevation, Q wave development in which leads

A

V leads( precordial) or V3 and V4

444
Q

Pericarditis signs and symptoms and physical findings are

A

Pericardial friction rub characteristically present.
Very localized, retro sternal, chest pain, politic nature.
Pain increased, deep, inspiration, coughing, swallowing, recumbent
Pain is relieved by sitting forward

445
Q

Pericarditis signs and symptoms and physical findings are

A

Pericardial friction rub characteristically present.
Very localized, retro sternal, chest pain, politic nature.
Pain increased, deep, inspiration, coughing, swallowing, recumbent
Pain is relieved by sitting forward

446
Q

What would an EKG look like in pericarditis?

A

ST elevation in all leads
Depression of PR segment highly indicative of pericarditis

447
Q

What would an EKG look like in pericarditis?

A

ST elevation in all leads
Depression of PR segment highly indicative of pericarditis

448
Q

What lab value would be increased in pericarditis

449
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A

NSAIDS are the main state of treatment
Examples are indomethacin, Toradol, ibuprofen.
Antibiotics for cases of bacterial infection.
Cortical steroids are only indicated when there is a total failure of high dose and over several weeks with relapsing pericarditis

450
Q

What is the treatment for pericarditis?

A

NSAIDS are the main state of treatment
Examples are indomethacin, Toradol, ibuprofen.
Antibiotics for cases of bacterial infection.
Cortical steroids are only indicated when there is a total failure of high dose and over several weeks with relapsing pericarditis

451
Q

What are the signs of cardiac tamponade?

A

Hypotension, JVD, muffled/distant heart sounds, pulses paradoxus

452
Q

What is the most definitive test for peripheral vascular disease?

A

Arteriography

But would also do ABI

453
Q

What is the treatment for peripheral vascular disease?

A

Cilostazol(pletal) in combination with aspirin or plavix

Stop smoking
Walk to develop collateral circulation

454
Q

Billings test

A

Cervical mucus test – record changes and cervical mucus spinnbarkeit over a 3 to 4 month period

455
Q

Billings test

A

Cervical mucus test – record changes and cervical mucus spinnbarkeit over a 3 to 4 month period

456
Q

Xulane warning

A

Increases the risk for serious cardio, embolic events, such as MI, CVA, PE

457
Q

Which birth control can you take? If you are previous smoker, history of CVA, history of MI

A

DEPO- provera DMPA

458
Q

Surgical abortion, vacuum, D and C

A

Up to 16 weeks after last menstrual period

459
Q

Surgical abortion, D & E

A

After 14 weeks

460
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of placenta previa?

A

Painless bleeding.
May occur immediately after vaginal intercourse

461
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of placenta previa?

A

Painless bleeding.
May occur immediately after vaginal intercourse

462
Q

What are the signs of abruptio placentae?

A

Severe abdominal pain.
Bright red bleeding is heavy if unconcealed
May be minimal to moderate bleeding if abruption is concealed
Uterus is rigid in concealed abruption
Fetal distress/absent fetal heart tones

463
Q

Which ethnicity believes in hot and cold and wet and dry concepts

A

Hispanic/Latin X

464
Q

Which ethnicity believes in hot and cold and wet and dry concepts

A

Hispanic/Latin X

465
Q

Which ethnicity thinks illness may be caused by mal de ojo

A

Hispanic/Latin X

466
Q

Which ethnicity believes that health is a result of forces that rule the world yin=cold yang=hot

467
Q

Which ethnicity believes that health is a result of forces that rule the world yin=cold yang=hot

A

Chinese and
Filipino

468
Q

The office for civil rights enforces that HIPAA, which protects the

A

Privacy of individually, identifiable, health record, and HIPAA security rule which sets national standards for the security of electronic protected health information

469
Q

Under title, one of HIPAA it protects health insurance coverage for workers and their family when the change or loss of jobs. What is that called?

470
Q

What is incident to billing?

A

Service bill under physicians provider number to get the full physician fee or 100% given the following rules.
The physician must perform the initial service and subsequent service of a frequency which reflects his or at her active participation in the management of the course of treatment.

Incident billing is not allowed in the hospital setting an NP must bill under his or her provider number

471
Q

6 QSEN Initiative: quality, and safety education for nurses

A

Patient centered care.
Teamwork, and collaboration.
Evidence, base practice.
Quality improvement.
Safety.
Informatics

472
Q

Veracity

A

The duty to be truthful

473
Q

Justice

A

The duty to be fair

474
Q

Fidelity

A

The duty to be faithful

475
Q

Autonomy

A

The duty to respect and individuals thoughts, and actions

476
Q

Utilitarianism

A

The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number i.e. mass casualty

477
Q

Utilitarianism

A

The right act is the one that produces the greatest good for the greatest number i.e. mass casualty

478
Q

Nonmaleficense

A

The duty to do no harm

479
Q

Beneficence

A

The duty to prevent harm and promote good

480
Q

The highest level of evidence in research

A

Meta-analysis of random controlled trials

481
Q

PICOT

A

Patient or population
Intervention, i.e. treatment
Comparison, i.e. control
Outcome, i.e. results.
Timing duration of the measure/data collected

482
Q

Type one error

A

False positive: incorrectly rejecting the true null hypothesis

483
Q

Type two error

A

False negative, failing to reject a no hypothesis, which is false

484
Q

Meta-analysis

A

Test hypothesis by using a QUANTITATIVE study to systematically assess the result of previous research

485
Q

Meta-analysis

A

Test hypothesis by using a QUANTITATIVE study to systematically assess the result of previous research

486
Q

Meta synthesis

A

Analyzes data across QUALITATIVE studies in order to build new theories

487
Q

CLAS

A

Culturally and linguistically appropriate service
It is established to help with communication with people that don’t speak English

488
Q

Validity

A

The degree to which a variable measures what it is intended to measure

489
Q

Incidence

A

The frequency with which a disease or disorder appears in a particular population or area at a given time the rate

490
Q

Prevalence

A

Percentage. The proportion of a population that is affected by the disease or disorder at a particular time.

491
Q

Prevalence

A

Percentage. The proportion of a population that is affected by the disease or disorder at a particular time.