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EEG > Eeg 1 > Flashcards

Eeg 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the frequency range of alpha? And the voltage range?

A

8-13Hz and 20-60Uv (usually 50Uv)

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2
Q

What is the most common EEG pattern you will see in patients taking antipsychotics?

A

Irregular, diffuse theta activity of low to medium voltage is the most common slow activity seen in patients on psychotropics.

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3
Q

What are some other EEG patterns you may see in patients taking psychotropics?

A

Long trains of monorhythmic theta, most prominent over the frontal pole, frontal, and frontal midline areas.

You can also see FIRDA

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4
Q

What kind of seizure has a clinical manifestation similar to decerebrate posturing?

A

Tonic seizures

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5
Q

What is a factor that helps determine the difference in a burst suppression pattern as compared to a trace alternant pattern?

A

A trace alternant is part of a wake/sleep cycle and will change with time.

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6
Q

What pattern is seen in juvenile myoclonic epilepsy?

A

10 to 16 hertz spikes

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7
Q

What pattern is seen in Lennox-Gestalt Syndrome?

A

1 to 2.5 hertz generalized spike and wave

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8
Q

What pattern is seen in benign focal epilepsy?

A

Focal spikes in drowsiness at C3 and T3

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9
Q

What is a Nonepileptic Episodic Phenomena?

A

A condition which induces intermittent symptoms that resemble epilepsy. There are several types of nonepileptic episodic phenomena, some which are age-dependent.

Breath holding attacks are generally seen between 6 months and 6 years of age. The usual chain of events is that the child starts crying (often when angry or frustrated), stops breathing, becomes cyanotix, and loses consciousness. The child loses muscle tone and remains limp until normal breathing is restored.

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10
Q

What is a choice of medication that is used to treat infantile spasms

A

Steroids

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11
Q

When do the most dramatic EEG changes occur in neonates?

A

Between premature age and 1st 3 months of life.

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12
Q

What is the term for persistence or reappearance of patterns with immature features?

A

Dysmaturity - which would indicate cerebral dysfunction

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13
Q

What will you see in a neonate that is less that 29 wks CA?

A

Continuously discontinuous and bilaterally synchronous delta brush emerge at 26 weeks

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14
Q

What will you see in a neonate at 29-31 weeks CA?

A

Greater periods of continuous activity, suppression periods les than 30 seconds. (Frequent delta brushes, temporal theta burst pattern)

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15
Q

What will you see in a neonate this is 32-34 weeks CA?

A

EEG reactivity to stimulation established, periods of diffuse attenuation less than 15 seconds.

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16
Q

What will you see in a neonate 34-37 weeks CA

A

Delta brushes appear less often and multifocal sharp transients less frequent (frontal sharp transients appear)

Pattern is replaced by trace alternant

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17
Q

What will you see in a neonate after 38 weeks CA?

A

(Low voltage irregular “LVI”) in waking and active sleep,

(Mixed voltage “MV”) pattern in waking, transitional and active sleep

(High voltage slow “HVS”) in quiet sleep

(Trace alternant “TA”) in quiet sleep

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18
Q

During neonatal seizures, the EEG is most likely to show?

A

Focal rhythmic activity

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19
Q

When would SREDA most often appear?

A

Suddenly in resting EEG

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20
Q

Where do most brain tumors occur in children?

A

Posterior fossa

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21
Q

What are TSEs?

A

Transmissible spongiform encephalopathies - a group of diseases consists of fatal neurological diseases that affect humans and animals

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22
Q

What are PSWCs?

A

Periodic sharp wave complexes

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23
Q

In new born infants, what percentage of sleep will you see in the record?

A

50% active sleep and sleep may start with active sleep directly from wakefulness

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24
Q

After 4 months post term, what percentage of sleep will you see?

A

You will see 20-25% active sleep and will start seeing TA

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25
Q

What is papilledema

A

Is the optic disc swelling that is caused by ICP. the swelling is usually bilateral and can occur over a period of hours to week.

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26
Q

What is the optic chiasm

A

The X-shaped structure formed at the point below the brain where the two optic nerves cross over each other.

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27
Q

What is tuberous sclerosis?

A

I rare genetic disease that causes noncancerous tumors to grow in many parts of the body. The signs and symptoms of tuberous sclerosis vary widely, depending on where the tumors develop and how severely a person is affected.

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28
Q

What is jeavons syndrome?

A

A reflex syndrome of idiopathic generalized epilepsy, characterized by a triad of eyelid myoclonia with and without absences, eye-closure-induced seizures, EEG paroxysms,or both, and photosensitivity.

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29
Q

What is meningioma?

A

Usually a noncancerous tumor that arises from the membranes surrounding the brain and spinal cord.

A slow growing encapsulated typically benign tumor arising from the meninges.

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30
Q

What can cause wernicke-korsakoff syndrome?

A

Thiamine deficiency (vitamin B1 deficiency)

Wernike-korsakoff syndrome can cause visual changes, problems with walking, confusion, double vision, eyelids dropping, loss of memory.

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31
Q

What does atrophy mean?

A

To shrink

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32
Q

What is OPCA?

A

Olivopontocerebellar atrophy - a disease that causes areas deep in the brain, just above the spinal cord, to shrink. It can be passed down through families it can also affect people without a known family history.

Main symptom is ataxia that slowly gets worse, symptoms tend to start at a young age. They may also have problems with balance, slurring speech, and difficulty walking

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33
Q

What is an acoustic neuroma?

A

Is a slow growing benign tumor that arises on the VIII cranial nerve.

Symptoms: loss of balance, loss of hearing, feeling of fullness on the side effected.

Also know as vestibular schwannoma.

Can be treated my radiation or micro surgery

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34
Q

What is Tinnitus?

A

The perception of noise or ringing in the ears

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35
Q

Vestibular organ?

A

The structure composed of the utricle, saccule, and three semicircular ducts of the membranous labyrinth of the inner ear.

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36
Q

What kinda of medications should be documented?

A

Sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics, general anesthesia, and AED’s

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37
Q

What is the voltage for rhythmic temporal theta in neonates?

A

25-120 uV and you should see this in neonates 24-34 weeks

It’s typically symmetric, and maximal between 29 and 32 weeks

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38
Q

Anterior dysrhythmia

A

A normal pattern seen in neonates that first appears at 32 weeks and persists until 44 weeks PMA.

Consist of 50-100 uV pp delta waves which may occur in isolation or. Tied runs for a few seconds over the frontal regions.

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39
Q

Encoches Frontales

A

Similar to anterior dysrhythmia and the two are often admired over the frontal region.

Encoches frontales occur between 34 and 44 weeks PMA and consist of 50-100 uV, broad dip has UC transients (0.5-0.75 sec)

They are often present in transitional sleep and most abundant in the transition from active to quiet sleep.

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40
Q

Cerebral embolism

A

The sudden blockage of an artery due to a clot from and foreign material (embolus)

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41
Q

Hypoglycemia

A

Low blood sugar

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42
Q

At what age should you start seeing a PDR?

A

By 6 months

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43
Q

What age range is Mu rhythm more common in?

A

Adolescents and young adults.. less commonly seen in elderly and children

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44
Q

What is Spina bifida?

A

A birth defect in which a developing baby’s spinal cord fails to develop properly.

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45
Q

What are extreme spindles?

A

Extreme high voltage (>200uV) generalized but anterior dominant fast activity appearing as continuous sleep spindles

Seen in children with mental retardation or cerebral palsy

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46
Q

What should the tech document if a neonate has a low-voltage or isoelectric EEG?

A

Knowledge of presence or absence of CNS depressants and hypothermia, both of which can lead to reversible isoelectricity.

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47
Q

What is BECOP?

A

Benign epilepsy of childhood with occipital paroxysms

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48
Q

What are sail waves?

A

An antiquated term for delta waves

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49
Q

In a broad sense, what does slow background activity and slow waves imply?

A

Cerebral dysfunction

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50
Q

In a broad sense what does paroxysmal slow activity imply?

A

Underlying seizure tendency

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51
Q

Is background activity less than 8hz during awake state normal or abnormal?

A

Abnormal, may be different for neonates

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52
Q

What would you see with a subdural hematoma?

A

Depressed background because of the distance to the electrode from the Cortez by the depressed cortex and increased impedance due to fluid collection

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53
Q

What is diffuse beta an indicator of?

A

An indicator that the patient is taking sedatives, hypnotics, anxiolytics

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54
Q

What is another reason you might see diffuse or localized beta?

A

May be seen in patients with gross anomalous brain such as lissencephaly or cortical dysplasia

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55
Q

What is polymorphic delta commonly associated with?

A

Focal brain dysfunction

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56
Q

IRDA usually indicates what?

A

Diffuse cerebral dysfunction

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57
Q

What is ADA?

A

Arhythmic delta activity

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58
Q

What is focal ADA a reliable indicator of?

A

Supratentorial lesion or dysfunction mainly involving white matter

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59
Q

What do focal theta slow waves imply?

A

Focal thetabslow waves have the same significance as focal ADA, but imply a lesser degree of severity.

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60
Q

The slower the frequency….

A

The greater the dysfunction

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61
Q

The slower the frequency….

A

The worst the cerebral function

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62
Q

What is it important for the technologist to record in an obtuned or semicomatose patient?

A

It is important for the tech to record at least a part of the EEG when the patient is at the highest level of consciousness; this may require stimulation in an attempt to arouse the patient.

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63
Q

What are leukodystrophies?

A

Disorders that cause degeneration of white matter in the brain.

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64
Q

What is PMR?

A

Photomyoclonic response

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65
Q

What is IED

A

Interictal epileptiform discharges

Attenuated in sleep

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66
Q

Dysplasia

A

the presence of cells of an abnormal type within a tissue, which may signify a stage preceding the development of cancer.

“a procedure to treat cervical dysplasia”

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67
Q

Foramen rotundum

A

The foramen rotundum is a circular hole in the sphenoid bone that connects the middle cranial fossa and the pterygopalatine fossa.

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68
Q

What is BECTS

A

Benign epilepsy of childhood with central midtemporal spikes

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69
Q

What are IGEs

A

Idiopathic generalized epilepsies

a group of epileptic disorders that are believed to have a strong underlying genetic basis.

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70
Q

What is a symptomatic epilepsy?

A

Symptomatic generalized epilepsy is caused by widespread brain damage

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71
Q

What is a cryptogenic epilepsy?

A

Cryptogenic means there is a likely cause, but it has not been identified.

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72
Q

What is another name for JME?

A

Myoclonc epilepsy of janz

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73
Q

What is LKS?

A

Landau - kleffner syndrome - also called infantile acquired aphasia, acquired epileptic aphasia or aphasia with convulsive disorder.

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74
Q

What is myoclonic epilepsy of janz

A

JME which is a common form of idiopathic generalized epilepsy, representing 5-10% of all epilepsy cases. Most patients also have generalized seizures that affect the entire brain and many also have absence seizures.

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75
Q

What is LGS

A

Lennox gestaut syndrome - a type of epilepsy with multiple different types of seizures, particularly tonic and atonic seizures. Intellectual development is usually, but not always, impaired.

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76
Q

What is RTTD?

A

Rhythmic temporal theta burst of drowsiness.

Normal finding in drowsy state. The temporal theta burst occur bilaterally or independently over the two hemispheres, or they show shifting emphases from side to side. It occurs predominantly during relaxed wakefulness and drowsiness and is seen mainly in adolescents and adults.

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77
Q

What is SREDA?

A

Subclinic rhythmic electrographic discharges in adults.

May occur at rest or during drowsiness, and occasionally occurs mainly during hyperventilation. Consist of mixed frequency components in the delta and theta frequency. SREDA usually occurs in widespread distribution with maximal amplitude over the parietal-posterior temporal head regions. The duration may range from 20 seconds to a few minutes. Average duration is 40-80 seconds. SREDA may have an abrupt onset in which the background activity is suddenly replaced by repetitive monophonic sharp waveforms.

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78
Q

What is CAD

A

Coronary artery disease: Impedance or blockage of one or more arteries that supply blood to the heart, usually due to atherosclerosis (hardening of the arteries). Abbreviated CAD. A major cause of illness and death, CAD begins when hard cholesterol substances (plaques) are deposited within a coronary artery.

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79
Q

What is TME?

A

Transmissible mink encephalopathy (TME) is a rare sporadic disease that affects the central nervous system of ranch-raised mink. It is classified as a transmissible spongiform encephalopathy, believed to be caused by proteins called prions.

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80
Q

During an awake EEG, what consistent frequency is considered abnormally slow?

A

Anything less than 8hz during an awake EEG is abnormally slow.

Except in children less than 3 or 4 years old.

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81
Q

What can FIRDA, IRDA, and OIRDA denote?

A

Diffuse enecephalopathy

ORIDA seen in children with absence.

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82
Q

What is a locked in state?

A

Patient can’t do anything, but move their eyes, and respond to commands with eyes.

Such as “open your eyes”

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83
Q

What is abulia and akinteic mutism

A

Patient is very slow and delayed, denotes a lesion of the frontal lobes

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84
Q

What is a persistent vegetative state?

A

Caused by diffuse cortical damage. Patients will appear wake, have sleep wake cycles, they can suck and chew, but can’t eat. Will turn to stimuli.

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85
Q

What is stupor

A

Requires a lot of stimuli, otherwise they’re not arousible at all.

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86
Q

GPD

A

Generalized periodic discharges

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87
Q

How many hertz in a sharp wave?

A

5-14hz

Duration = 70 - 200ms

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88
Q

How many hertz in a spike?

A

14-50hz

Duration = 20 - 70ms

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89
Q

When are you most likely going to see POSTS?

A

During drowsiness or stage 2 sleep

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90
Q

How do you calculate time constant?

A

Distance/paper speed

91
Q

The substansia nigra is affected in what disorder?

A

Parkinsonism

92
Q

A person with sensory aphasia will have difficulty doing what?

A

Comprehending the meaning of words or phrases

93
Q

What can cause locked in syndrome?

A

Brainstem injury

94
Q

What is the substantia nigra?

A

An area located in the midbrain &a plays a role in reward (dopamine) and movement.

95
Q

What do you need to know if your calculating duration?

A

The width of the wave, which is measured in mm, and you have to know the paper speed.

Width of wave / paperspeed

96
Q

How do you calculate frequency?

A

One second (1000 ms) / duration

97
Q

How do you calculated duration?

A

One second (1000 ms) / frequency

98
Q

What is the mnemonic for the cranial nerve functions

A

Some say marry money but my brother says big boobs matter most

99
Q

Define an infarct

A

A small localized area of dead tissue resulting from failure of blood supply.

100
Q

What can cause PLEDS?

A

Herpes simplex encephalitis, neoplastic lesions, brain abscess, CVA, & encephalitis

101
Q

60mm/sec is how many seconds per page?

A

5 second / page

102
Q

What could cause BIPLEDS

A

Anoxic encephalopathy, and herpes simplex encephalitis.

103
Q

What is meningism?

A

Menigism is the triad of “nuchal rigidity, photophobia, & headache”

It is a sign of irritation of the meninges

104
Q

What is scotoma?

A

Area visual loss.

Macular degeneration, taking place in the retina.

105
Q

What will you see on an EEG with a patient that has CJD?

A

You will see biphasic and triphasic PSWC’s every 1-2 seconds & a disorganized background.

106
Q

30mm / sec is how many seconds per page?

A

10 seconds / page

107
Q

What can cause alpha coma?

A

Cerebral anoxia, brainstem lesions, & drug overdose.

Poor prognosis for brainstem lesions & cerebral anoxia.

108
Q

What is. Something you will see with classic triphasic waves?

A

60-120 msec phase lag

The occipital area will be as much as 120msec shifted from the anterior head region.

109
Q

15mm / sec is how many seconds per page?

A

20 seconds / page

110
Q

What is asphyxia

A

A condition arising when the body is deprived of oxygen, causing unconsciousness or death; suffocation

111
Q

What are nosocomial infections?

A

Hospital acquired infection.

112
Q

What effect will high levels of lithium have on the EEG.

A

Studies have showed that at levels exceeding 1.98, it produces diffuse theta and delta waves, and attenuates alpha.

113
Q

What’s the most prominent clinical feature of Dilantin toxicity?

A

Ataxia

114
Q

Cerebral hypoxia

A

Oxygen deficiency to the brain

115
Q

Hypocapnia

A

Reduced carbon dioxide in the blood

116
Q

Neoplasm

A

an abnormal growth of tissue, and, when it also forms a mass, is commonly referred to as a tumor. This abnormal growth (neoplasia) usually but not always forms a mass.

117
Q

What is anastomosis?

A

Anastomosis (an.ass.ta.moe.sis)

Is a cross connection between adjacent channels, tubes, fibers, or other parts of a network.

118
Q

What is a stroke?

A

And interruption of blood flow to the brain.

119
Q

What would make a Storke a CVA as opposed to and TIA?

A

CVA is more than 24 hours of interruption of blood flow and a TIA is less than 24 hours of interruption

120
Q

What is an ischemic stroke?

A

And ischemic stroke can be caused by plaque which can rupture and create thrombosis, which results in and emboli, which can travel and go to the MCA

121
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke?

A

When a vessel rupture and blood spills everywhere.

Hemorrhagic stroke usually occur and anterior cerebral communicating artery, posterior cerebral communicating, and branches of the middle cerebral and Beseler arteries.

122
Q

Where do the vertebral arteries travel?

A

Travels up the neck through the transverse of foramen C1-6

123
Q

What are the two main blood supplies of the brain?

A

The vertebrals, and the internal carotid

124
Q

What do the pontines supply?

A

Pan teen supply the pons, The pond is part of the brainstem and your brain stem’s function is to keep you alive. So if you have a pontine infarct, you may have a brainstem infarct.

125
Q

What is the PCA?

A

Posterior cerebral artery

126
Q

What is the motor cortex made up of?

A

The motor cortex is made up of gray matter.

127
Q

Explain the homoncolus from inferior to superior

A

Head, hands, feet

128
Q

How can a motor pathways be divided?

A

The motor pathways can be divided into two main pathways. The lateral pathway and the anterior medial pathway.

129
Q

What is the lateral pathway responsible for?

A

The lateral pathway is responsible for voluntary movements

130
Q

What is a tract?

A

A bundle of nerve fibers having a common origin, termination, and function and especially one with the spinal cord or brain.

131
Q

What does the central nervous system consist of?

A

The CNS consist of the brainstem, cerebrum, and the spinal cord.

132
Q

Where is the gray matter?

A

The cerebral cortex that covers the brain service is gray matter

133
Q

Where is the white matter?

A

White matter is located underneath the cerebral cortex and outside at the Thalamus and basil ganglia

134
Q

What are the frontal and parietal separated by?

A

The Rolandic fissure

135
Q

What separates the parietal and frontal lobe from the temporal lobe?

A

The sylvian fissure.

136
Q

What are the parietal and occipital lobe separated by?

A

The parietal-occipital Fissure.

137
Q

What is motor aphasia?

A

When a person can understand what is being said to them, but cannot articulate the words back and express themselves. This is also known as brocas aphasia

138
Q

What is sensory or receptive aphasia?

A

When a person can speak, but I cannot understand what is being said to them.

139
Q

What is sensory Agnosis?

A

When a person can fill an object with the hand, but is unable to interpret or identified object.

140
Q

What is visual agnosia?

A

When an object can be seen, but not recognized.

141
Q

What is Alexia?

A

Unable to read lesion at the angular gyrus in the posterior parietal lobe.

142
Q

What is agraphia?

A

Unable to write, due to a lesion in the angular gyrus in the posterior parietal lobe

143
Q

What is astereognosis?

A

Unable to appreciate texture, size, and farm by touching objects, due to a lesion in the superior parietal lobe

144
Q

What is apraxia?

A

Unable to perform for purposeful and learned acts such as driving a car, playing the piano, etc. Due to the legion of various associated cortex, especially at dominant hemispheres.

145
Q

Define amnesia

A

Loss of memory, due to lesion at hippo campus.

146
Q

What is Rasmussen’ syndrome?

A

Rasmussen’s syndrome aka rasmussen’s encephalitis. Inflammation of one hemisphere of the brain. Inflamation may stop without treatment, but damage is irreversible. Rasmussen’s syndrome is associated with intractable unilateral seizures, progressive hemiparesis or weakness on one side and intellectual dysfunction. Seizures are often the first symptom to appear.

Typically the onset is between 14 months and 14 years of age.

147
Q

What is the medial lemniscus?

A

Also known as reil’s band or reil’s ribbon, is a large ascending bundle of heavily myelinated axons that cross “decussate” in the brain stem, also carries the ascending sensory fibers for proprioceptive and vibratory sensations.

148
Q

Oculomotor and thochlear control what?

A

Eyes 👀

149
Q

Trigeminal controls what?

A

Facial sensation & controls masticatory muscles 💪🏿 (chewing muscles) 😬

150
Q

Abducens controls?

A

Eye movements 👁

151
Q

What does the Facial nerve control?

A

Facial muscles

152
Q

What does the Acoustic nerve control?

A

Receives hearing

153
Q

What does the glossopharyngeal control?

A

Oropharyngeal muscles

154
Q

What does the Spinal accessory control?

A

Sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscles

155
Q

What does the hypoglossal nerve control?

A

Tongue movements 👅

156
Q

What does the vagus control?

A

Autonomic functions

157
Q

What does the olfactory nerve control?

A

Smell 👃

158
Q

What does the optic nerve control?

A

Sight 👀

159
Q

Where is the cerebellum located?

A

The cerebellum is located in the posterior fossa

160
Q

What will happen if a person damages one side of the cerebellar hemispheres?

A

Damage to one of the cerebellar hemispheres causes a disturbance of voluntary movements called ataxia on the same side of the body; the muscle group fails to work harmoniously, and the patient may have difficulty in picking up an object, writing, etc.

161
Q

Explain the six major sinuses.

A

There are six major sinus is that collect venous drainage from the various veins.

Superior sagittal sinus

Inferior sagittal sinus

Straight sinus

occipital sinus

transverse sinus

sigmod sinus

162
Q

Where do the six major sinuses join together?

A

All sinuses join together at Sigmod sinus, which connects the internal jugular vein, returning venous blood to the heart.

163
Q

What is the anterior system?

A

The carotid system

164
Q

What is the posterior system?

A

The vertebrobasilar system.

165
Q

What is the aorta

A

The aorta is attached to the heart and receives blood directly from the left ventricle a.k.a. the main pumping chamber.

166
Q

What are the four parts of the aorta?

A

The ascending aorta

Aortic arch

Thoracic aorta

The abdominal aorta

167
Q

How many vertebrae in the neck?

A

7 cervical vertebrae

168
Q

How many vertebrae in the back?

A

12 thoracic vertebrae in the upper back.

169
Q

How many vertebrae in the lower back.

A

5 lumbar vertebrae in the lower back.

170
Q

What is sciatic neuritis?

A

Pain radiating along the sciatic nerve, which runs down one or both legs from the lower back.

171
Q

What is radciulopathy?

A

A disease of the root of a nerve, such as from a pinched nerve or a tumor.

172
Q

What is PICA?

A

Posterior inferior cerebellar artery.

Also supplies the lateral service of the medulla oblongata

173
Q

What does the basil ganglia consist of?

A

Globus pallidus

Caudate nucleus

Putamen

Subthalamus

Substantia nigra

174
Q

What is Ménière’s disease

A

An inner ear disorder that causes episodes of vertigo

175
Q

What is vertigo

A

Sensation of feeling off balance; a dizzy spell.

176
Q

What are jackknife seizures?

A

Arms fling out as the knees are pulled up and the body bends forward.

These are normally associated with west syndrome.

177
Q

What are TWs?

A

Triphasic waves (>70 uV), positive sharp transients that are preceded and followed by negative waves of relatively lower amplitude.

They are diffuse and bilaterally synchronous with bifrontal predominance. They often repeat periodically at a rate of 1-2 Hz.

178
Q

What are TWEs?

A

Triphasic wave encephalopathy, associated with a wide range of toxic, metabolic, and structural abnormalities.

179
Q

What is Clouding of consciousness?

A

a very mild form of altered mental status in which the patient has inattention and reduced wakefulness.

180
Q

What is Confusional state?

A

a more profound deficit that includes disorientation, bewilderment, and difficulty following commands.

181
Q

What is Obtundation?

A

Obtundation is a state similar to lethargy in which the patient has a lessened interest in the environment, slowed responses to stimulation, and tends to sleep more than normal with drowsiness in between sleep states.

182
Q

What is FAS?

A

Fetal alcohol syndrome

183
Q

What is FAE

A

Fetal Alcohol Effects

184
Q

What is Medial temporal lobe epilepsy

A

Medial temporal lobe epilepsy often begins within a structure of the brain called the hippocampus or its surrounding structures. It accounts for almost 80% of all temporal lobe seizures.

185
Q

What is static encephalopathy?

A

Prenatal exposure to drugs and alcohol can cause this..

Static Encephalopathy, as defined by Easter Seals: “Permanent or unchanging brain damage. The effects on development depend on the part of the brain involved and on the severity of the damage. Developmental problems may include any of a range of disabilities such as cerebral palsy, learning disabilities, mental retardation, autism, PDD, speech delays, attention deficits, hearing & vision impairments, oral motor problems, etc.” Find out more about Static Encepahlopathy and related neurological disabilities at Easter Seals.

186
Q

What are posterior nerve root functions?

A

Posterior nerve root carries sensory information and enters the posterior part of the spinal cord

187
Q

What is the anterior nerve roots function?

A

The anterior nerve root carries motor root information & exits from the anterior part of the spinal cord.

188
Q

What is PDS?

A

Paroxysmal depolarization shift.

This is seen in epileptic condition; cortical neurons change dramatically as the membrane potential changes from a resting state to sustained depolarization, thereby producing a group of action potentials.

The sustained depolarization is the slow wave you see during spike and wave complexes.

189
Q

What pattern will you see in a neonate that is a moment of quiescence and <25 uV?

A

Trace discontinu

Trace discontinu is an important EEG maturational milestone, inasmuch as it is the first EEG pattern to emerge that differentiates wakefulness from sleep in the premature infant. By 32-34 weeks conceptional age, the trace discontinu pattern is well developed.

Trace discontinu remains the EEG pattern of quite sleep until 36 weeks of conceptional age, when the IBI amplitude exceeds 25 uV, which defines the more mature pattern of quite sleep, trace alternant.

190
Q

What is IBI?

A

Inter-burst interval

191
Q

You see ____ from 32-34 weeks CA & you see _____ from 34-36 weeks CA.

A

Trace discontinu from 32-34 weeks CA and trace alternant from 34-36 weeks CA

192
Q

What is hypotonia?

A

commonly known as floppy baby syndrome, is a state of low muscle tone (the amount of tension or resistance to stretch in a muscle), often involving reduced muscle strength.

193
Q

What is the difference between trace discontinu and trace alternant?

A

The fundamental distinction between Trace discontinu and trace alternant lies in the amplitude of the IBI.

In trace discontinu, it is less than 25 µV, whereas in trace alternant is greater than 25 µV.

194
Q

What is CSWS

A

Continuous slow wave sleep

195
Q

When should you stop seeing trace alternant?

A

By 38 to 40 weeks

196
Q

What is DCML?

A

Posterior column–medial lemniscus pathway

a sensory pathway of the central nervous system that conveys localized sensations of

fine touch

vibration

two-point discrimination

proprioception (position sense) from the skin and joints.

197
Q

What is Proprioception?

A

The bodies ability to recognize where it is in space and time.

198
Q

When two waves are mixed in frequency what do you call the higher frequency and the lower frequency?

A

The higher frequency multiple is called the harmonic frequency

The lower frequency is called the fundamental frequency, occasionally called the subharmonic

199
Q

How is the amplifier gain measured?

A

Mm/uV

The gain is the strength of an EEG signal. One reasonable way to describe the gain of an EEG would be to quote how many millimeters Kt can make an EEG pen deflect for each microvolt (mm/uV)

200
Q

What is craniosynostosis?

A

Craniosynostosis is a congenital anomaly caused by early closure of one or more of these sutures, resulting in limited or distorted head grown. Craniosynostosis is also called synostosis or cranial stenosis

201
Q

What does neuralgia mean?

A

A neuropathic pain

202
Q

What is the basic unit for measuring current flow?

A

Ampere

203
Q

What is a normal or near normal background activity a characteristic of?

A

Normal or near normal background activity is characteristic of idiopathic epilepsy.

204
Q

What is slowing of background activity or multifocal epileptiform activity suggestive of?

A

Slowing of background activity or multifocal epileptiform activity is suggestive of symptomatic epilepsy.

205
Q

What is the anterior lateral system? (ALS)

A

The ALS is Aka the spinothalamic tract. Another ascending sensory pathway that deals with pain and temperature. Travels up the spine to the thalamus and then to sensory strip.

206
Q

What will acute IV administration of benzodiazepines and barbiturates do to an EEG and IED’s?

A

Benzodiazepines and barbiturates consistently decrease IED’s

207
Q

What will Valproate do to an EEG?

A

Valproate suppresses generalized spike-wave burst and photoparoxysmal response.

208
Q

Normal or near-normal background activity is a characteristic of what?

A

Idiopathic epilepsy

209
Q

Slowing of background activity or multifocal epileptiform activity is suggestive of what?

A

Symptomatic epilepsy

210
Q

When do rolandic spikes tend to decrease?

A

Rolandic spikes tend to decrease progressively with age an eventually disappear by the midteen years

211
Q

Are Rolandic discharges usually unilateral or bilateral?

A

Rolandic discharges are usually unilateral, but one third of the patients have bilateral independent foci.

212
Q

What are SIRPIDS?

A

Stimulus-induced rhythmic, periodic, or ictal discharges.

When critically ill (stupor or comatose) patients display ictal discharges after external stimuli.

213
Q

What will you see on an EEG with a patient that has SSPE?

A

Periodic discharges consisting of generalized multiphasic high-voltage slow waves, often associated with sharp components and myoclonic jerks.

214
Q

What kind of effect would you see on the EEG if a patient is taking clozapine?

A

Diffuse slowing

215
Q

What will you see if a patient is taking phenytoin?

A

Diffuse slow waves in the data range

216
Q

What kind of patterns do you see in neonate EEGs in contrast to adult and adolescent EEGs?

A

You will see a lot of discontinues patterns and irregular frequencies

217
Q

What is cephalgia?

A

A distinctive syndrome of headaches, also known as cluster headache or migraine is neuralgia.

218
Q

What is Tay Sachs disease?

A

A disease that presents with an acoustic startle response within the first few months of life:

219
Q

What is another name for Dilantin? And what will you see on the EEG when medication is at toxic levels?

A

Phenytoin, and at toxic levels you will see diffuse slowing in the theta range.

220
Q

Which of the following medications can commonly cause increased theta and beta activity at therapeutic doses?

A

Antidepressants

221
Q

What will happen if the basilar artery is occluded?

A

An occlusion of the basilar artery at the junction of the two posterior cerebral arteries will result in total blindness, as the posterior cerebral attired supply the visual cortex

222
Q

What is leukocytosis?

A

High white blood cell count

223
Q

What are GPED’s?

A

Generalized periodic epileptic discharges

EEG (2 decks)

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