EE2 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. In patients with infectious mononucleosis, which blood cells are infected by the causative agent?
A

C. B Lymphocytes

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about hairy cell leukemia is true?
A

C. Hairy cells contain tartrate-resistant acid phosphatase.

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3
Q
  1. Based on the WHO classification system, B cell ALL (FAB type L3) and represent different clinical presentations of the same disease entity.
A

A. Burkitt lymphoma

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4
Q
  1. The presence of both immature neutrophils and nucleated erythrocytes in the peripheral blood is most accurately called a
A

D. Leukoerythroblastic reaction

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5
Q
  1. In which anomaly is a failure of granulocytes to divide beyond the band or twolobed stage observed?
A

A. Pelger-Huet

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6
Q
  1. In which of the following are eosinophils not increased?
A

A. Cushing syndrome

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following represents the principal defect in chronic granulomatous disease (CGD)?
A

D. Oxidative Respiratory Burst

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8
Q
  1. The blood shown in Color Plate 11 • is from
A

B. A folate antagonist (e.g., methotrexate)

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9
Q
  1. A patient with normal hemoglobin and WBC count values, a persistently elevated platelet count (over 1000 X 109/L), increased marrow megakaryocytes, and a history of frequent bleeding and clotting episodes most likely has
A

C. Essential thrombocythemia

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10
Q
  1. An adult patient with massive splenomegaly has mild anemia, a slightly elevated WBC count, and an LAP score of 170. The blood smear shows teardrop erythrocytes and leukoerythroblastosis. These findings are most consistent with
A

B. Idiopathic myelofibrosis

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11
Q
  1. Which of the following infections does not reveal a blood picture as seen in Color Plate 12B?
A

B. Bordetellapertussis (whooping cough)

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12
Q
  1. The most common type of chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) in the United States involves the
A

A. Bcell

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13
Q
  1. Which of the following are characteristic findings in Waldenstrom disease?
A

D. Increased IgM and blood hyperviscosity

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14
Q
  1. Which of the following would not cause a total WBC count of 62.2 X 109/L (62.2 X 103/jjLL) and the blood findings seen in Color Plate 13B?
A

C. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

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15
Q
  1. The peripheral blood shown in Color Plate 14B is from a 69-year-old female. Her WBC count was 83.0 X 109 cells/L (83.0 X 103/(xL) and her platelet count was
    normal. Based on the cell morphology and this information, what is the most likely diagnosis?
A

B. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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16
Q
  1. In which of the following is progression to acute leukemia least likely?
A

D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL)

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17
Q
  1. A Gaucher cell is best described as a macrophage with
A

A. “Wrinkled” cytoplasm due to an accumulation of glucocerebroside

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18
Q
  1. Which of the following suggests a diagnosis of Hodgkin disease rather than other lymphoproliferative disorders?
A

D. Presence of giant binucleated ReedSternberg cells with prominent nucleoli

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19
Q
  1. In a patient with fever of unknown origin, which of the following findings is not consistent with an inflammatory process?
A

B. Increased albumin level

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20
Q
  1. The presence of the chromosomal abnormality t(15;17) and a high incidence of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIG) is diagnostic of
A

C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia (FAB type M3)

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21
Q
  1. Which of the following is not commonly found in acute myelogenous leukemias?
A

D. Lymphadenopathy

22
Q
  1. The child whose blast cells are shown in Color Plate 15> has acute lymphoblastic leukemia that is precursor B cell type and CALLA positive. Analysis by flow cytometry would likely show cells that immunophenotype for
A

B. CD10, CD 19

23
Q
  1. The patient whose bone marrow is shown in Color Plate 16 • most likely has a(n)
A

A. Acute Leukemia

24
Q
  1. Multiple myeloma is characterized by the presence in urine of large amounts of
A

C. IgG light chains

25
Q
  1. Which of the following is not classified as a myeloproliferative disorder?
A

C. Multiple myeloma

26
Q
  1. Which of the following gene mutations correlates with the t(9;22) that is present in Philadelphia chromosome positive chronic myelogenous leukemia?
A

B. BCR/ABL

27
Q
  1. Which of the following statements does not correctly describe the WHO (World Health Organization) classification of hematopoietic neoplasms?
A

B. Diagnosis is based on cellular morphology and cytochemistry.

28
Q
  1. Which of the following would be least helpful in distinguishing chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML) from a neutrophilic leukemoid reaction?
A

A. An extreme leukocytosis with increased neutrophilic bands, metamyelocytes, and myelocytes

29
Q
  1. The cytoplasmic inclusion present in the cell shown in Color Plate !?•
A

C. Stains positive with myeloperoxidase (MPO)

30
Q
  1. Which of the following is a typical finding in chronic leukemias at onset?
A

D. Elevated leukocyte count

31
Q
  1. In what condition would an LAP score of 10 most likely be found?
A

D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with neutrophilia?
A

C. Infectious hepatitis

33
Q
  1. In which of the following would an absolute monocytosis not be seen?
A

D. Infectious mononucleosis

34
Q
  1. Coarse PAS positivity may be found in the leukemic cells of
A

B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia (FAB type LI)

35
Q
  1. Which of the following is not among the diagnostic criteria used for classifying the myelodysplastic syndromes?
A

D. Hypocellular bone marrow with 25% blasts

36
Q
  1. Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase (specific) is usually positive in cells, and alpha naphthyl acetate esterase (nonspecific)is useful for identifying blast cells of lineage
A

A. Granulocytic; monocytic

37
Q
  1. The familial disorder featuring pseudoDohle bodies, thrombocytopenia, and
    large platelets is called
A

A. May-Hegglin anomaly

38
Q
  1. Alder-Reilly anomaly is an abnormality of
A

D. Mucopolysaccharide metabolism

39
Q
  1. What is the initial laboratory technique for the diagnosis of monoclonal gammopathies?
A

C. Serum and urine protein electrophoresis

40
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about Hodgkin disease is false?
A

C. Stage IV has the best prognosis.

41
Q
  1. The blast cells shown in Color Plate 18 • are CD14 and CD33 positive, Sudan black B positive, specific esterase positive, and nonspecific esterase positive. Which type of acute leukemia is most consistent with the immunophenotyping and cytochemical staining results?
A

C. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

42
Q
  1. Which type of leukemia is associated with the best prognosis for a cure?
A

B. Acute lymphoblastic leukemia in children

43
Q
  1. What is the key diagnostic test for Hodgkin lymphoma?
A

B. Lymph node biopsy

44
Q
  1. A bone marrow with 90% cellularity and myeloid:erythroid (M:E) ratio of 10:1 is most characteristic of
A

A. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

45
Q
  1. A 60-year-old patient presents with extreme fatigue. Her blood and bone marrow findings are as follows: severe anemia with a dual RBC population, 3% marrow blasts, and numerous ringed sideroblasts. This information is most consistent with
A

B. Refractory anemia with ringed sideroblasts (RARS)

46
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a mechanism by which neutropenia may be produced?
A

C. Recent strenuous exercise

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a characteristic finding in polycythemia vera?
A

C. Increased erythropoietin level

48
Q
  1. In what disorder is significant basophilia most commonly seen?
A

D. Chronic myelogenous leukemia

49
Q
  1. Acute erythroleukemia (FAB type M6) is characterized by increased
A

C. Marrow erythroblasts and multinucleated red cells

50
Q
  1. The blood findings present in Color Plate 20 • are from a patient with complaints of fatigue and severe lower back pain. Which of the following would not be typical of this disease?
A

D. Normal sedimentation rate

51
Q
  1. Myeloid metaplasia refers to
A

C. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

52
Q
  1. Which of the following statements about non-Hodgkin types of lymphoma is true?
A

A. Lymphadenopathy is the most common presenting symptom.