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MTAP 2 FINAL SZN > EE CHEM > Flashcards

EE CHEM Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following lamps provides a continuous spectrum of radiant energy in
the visible, near IR, and near UV regions
of the spectrum?
A. Tungsten-filament
B. Hydrogen
C. Deuterium
D. Mercury vapor

A

A. Tungsten-filament

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2
Q

Which of the following isolates light
within a narrow region of the spectrum?
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Monochromator
C. Photovoltaic cell
D. Detector

A

B. Monochromator

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3
Q

Which of the following is not descriptive
of a photomultiplier tube?
A. Emits electrons proportionally to
initial light absorbed
B. Must be shielded from stray light
C. Cannot be used with a chopper
D. Amplifies the initial signal received

A

C. Cannot be used with a chopper

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4
Q

Which of the following is false about
a photomultiplier tube?
A. Converts radiant energy (light)
to electrical energy (current)
B. Amplifies the current significantly
C. Has a very rapid response time
D. Is composed of an iron plate and
a layer of selenium

A

D. Is composed of an iron plate and
a layer of selenium

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5
Q

Which type of photodetector employs
a linear arrangement that allows it to
respond to a specific wavelength resulting
in complete UV/visible spectrum analysis?
A. Photomultiplier tube
B. Phototube
C. Barrier layer cell
D. Photodiode array

A

D. Photodiode array

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6
Q

When performing spectrophotometer
quality assurance checks, what is the
holmium oxide glass filter used to assess?
A. Linearity
B. Stray light
C. Absorbance accuracy
D. Wavelength accuracy

A

D. Wavelength accuracy

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7
Q

In spectrophotometric analysis, what is the
purpose of the reagent blank?
A. Correct for interfering chromogens
B. Correct for lipemia
C. Correct for protein
D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

A

D. Correct for color contribution of the
reagents

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8
Q

In regard to bichromatic analysis, which
of the following is false?
A. Absorbance is measured at the
spectral absorbance peak for a blank
and the sample using the same
wavelength.
B. Eliminates background interferences
C. Sample concentration determined
from difference in two measured
absorbances
D. Functions as a reference blank for
each sample

A

A. Absorbance is measured at the
spectral absorbance peak for a blank
and the sample using the same
wavelength.

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9
Q

The bandpass of a spectrophotometer is
10 nm. If an instalment is set at 540 nm,
the wavelengths that are permitted to
impinge on the sample will be within what
wavelength range?
A. 530-540 nm
B. 530-550 nm
C. 535-545 nm
D. 540-550 nm

A

C. 535-545 nm

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10
Q

Which of the following formulas is an
expression of the Beer-Lambert law that is
routinely applied to spectrophotometric
analysis?
A. Au X Cs/As = Cu
B. Cu X Cs/As = Au
C. As X -Cs/Cu = Au
D. A = 2 - log %T

A

A. Au X Cs/As = Cu

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11
Q

In spectrophotometry, which of the
following is a mathematical expression
of the relationship between absorbance
and transmittance?
A. A = abc
B. Au/Cu = As/Cs
C. A = 2 - log %T
D. A = log %T

A

C. A = 2 - log %T

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12
Q

Which of the following is not a problem
inherent in turbidimetry?
A. Variation in particle size of samples
B. Variation in particle size of standards
C. Rate of aggregation or settling of
particles
D. Need to maintain a constant and
specific temperature

A

D. Need to maintain a constant and
specific temperature

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13
Q

Which of the following may be associated with reflectance spectrophotometry
as it relates to the dry reagent slide
technique?
A. Light projected to the slide at
180-degree angle
B. Dye concentration directly
proportional to reflectance
C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected
by photodetector
D. Reflectance values are linearly
proportional to transmission values

A

C. Unabsorbed, reflected light detected
by photodetector

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14
Q

Fluorometers are designed so that the
path of the exciting light is at a right
angle to the path of the emitted light.
What is the purpose of this design?
A. Prevent loss of emitted light
B. Prevent loss of the excitation light
C. Focus emitted and excitation light
upon the detector
D. Prevent excitation light from reaching
the detector

A

D. Prevent excitation light from reaching
the detector

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15
Q

Which of the following represents
a primary advantage of performing
fluorometric over absorption spectroscopic methods of analysis?
A. Increased specificity and increased
sensitivity
B. Increased specificity and decreased
sensitivity
C. Purity of reagents used not as critical
D. Ease of performing assays

A

A. Increased specificity and increased
sensitivity

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16
Q

Which of the following may be associated
with fluorescence polarization?
A. Plane-polarized light is used for
sample excitation.
B. Small molecular complexes show
a greater amount of polarization.
C. It is a heterogeneous technique
employed in fluorophore-ligand
immunoassays.
D. Polarized light detected is directly
proportional to concentration of ligand
in sample.

A

A. Plane-polarized light is used for
sample excitation.

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17
Q

Which of the following may be associated
with bioluminescence?
A. Light emission produced due to
enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
B. Less sensitive than direct fluorescent
assays
C. Electron excitation caused by radiant
energy
D. Employs a radioactive label

A

A. Light emission produced due to
enzymatic oxidation of a substrate

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18
Q

Nephelometry is based on the measurement of light that is
A. Absorbed by particles in suspension
B. Scattered by particles in suspension
C. Produced by fluorescence
D. Produced by excitation of ground-state
atoms

A

B. Scattered by particles in suspension

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19
Q

Which of the following instruments is
used in the clinical laboratory or in
reference laboratories to detect beta and
gamma emissions?
A. Fluorometer
B. Nephelometer
C. Scintillation counter
D. Spectrophotometer

A

C. Scintillation counter

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20
Q

Which of the following best describes
chemiluminescence?
A. Electron excitation caused by radiant
energy
B. Enzymatic oxidation of a substrate
produces light emission
C. Chemical energy excites electrons that
emit light upon return to ground state
D. Employs a fluorescent label that
produces light

A

C. Chemical energy excites electrons that
emit light upon return to ground state

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21
Q

In assaying an analyte with a single-beam
atomic absoiption spectrophotometer,
what is the instrument actually measuring?
A. Intensity of light emitted by the
analyte on its return to the ground state
B. Intensity of light that the analyte
absorbs from the hollow-cathode lamp
C. Intensity of light that the analyte
absorbs from the flame
D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow cathode lamp after it has passed
through the analyte-containing flame

A

D. Intensity of the beam from the hollow cathode lamp after it has passed
through the analyte-containing flame

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22
Q

What is the function of the flame in atomic
absorption spectroscopy?
A. Absorb the energy emitted from the
metal analyte in returning to ground
state
B. Supply the thermal energy needed to
excite the metal analyte
C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground
state
D. Supply the light that is absorbed by the
metal analyte

A

C. Bring the metal analyte to its ground
state

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23
Q

Most atomic absorption spectrophotometers
incorporate a beam chopper and a tuned
amplifier. The purpose of these components
is to avoid errors that would be caused by
A. Variations in flame temperature
B. Deterioration of the hollow-cathode
lamp
C. Stray light from the hollow-cathode
lamp
D. Measurement of light emitted by the
analyte

A

D. Measurement of light emitted by the
analyte

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24
Q

In potentiometry, which of the following
is considered the standard electrode?
A. Hydrogen electrode
B. Calcium electrode
C. Potassium electrode
D. Copper electrode

A

A. Hydrogen electrode

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25
Q

In an electrolytic cell, which of the
following is the half-cell where reduction
takes place?
A. Anode
B. Cathode
C. Combination electrode
D. Electrode response

A

B. Cathode

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26
Q

Mercury covered by a layer of mercurous
chloride in contact with saturated
potassium chloride solution is a description of which of the following types of
electrodes?
A. Sodium
B. Calomel
C. Calcium
D. Silver/silver chloride

A

B. Calomel

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27
Q

When a pH-sensitive glass electrode is not
actively in use, in what type of solution
should it be kept?
A. Tap water
B. Physiologic saline solution
C. The medium recommended by the
manufacturer
D. A buffer solution of alkaline pH

A

C. The medium recommended by the
manufacturer

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28
Q

When measuring K+ with an ion-selective
electrode by means of a liquid ionexchange membrane, what antibiotic will
be incorporated into the membrane?
A. Monactin
B. Nonactin
C. Streptomycin
D. Valinomycin

A

D. Valinomycin

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29
Q

Which of the following is false about
ion-selective electrode analysis of sodium?
A. Uses a glass membrane
B. Errors occur from protein buildup on
the membrane.
C. Membrane coated with valinomycin
D. Principle based on potentiometry

A

C. Membrane coated with valinomycin

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30
Q

What are the principles of operation for a chloride analyzer that generates silver ions as part of its reaction mechanism?
A. Potentiometry and amperometry
B. Amperometry and polarography
C. Coulometry and potentiometry
D. Amperometry and coulometry

A

D. Amperometry and coulometry

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31
Q

When quantifying glucose using an
amperometric glucose electrode system,
which of the following is not a component
of the system?
A. Product oxidation produces a current
B. Hydrogen peroxide formed
C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose
D. Platinum electrode

A

C. Hexokinase reacts with glucose

32
Q

To calibrate the pH electrode in a pH/
blood gas analyzer, it is necessary that
A. The barometric pressure be known
and used for adjustments
B. Calibrating gases of known high and
low concentrations be used
C. The calibration be performed at room
temperature
D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be
used

A

D. Two buffer solutions of known pH be
used

33
Q

The measurement of CO2 in blood by means
of a PCO2 electrode is dependent on the
A. Passage of H+ ions through the
membrane that separates the sample
and the electrode
B. Change in pH because of increased
carbonic acid in the electrolyte
surrounding the electrodes
C. Movement of bicarbonate across the
membrane that separates the sample
and the electrode
D. Linear relationship between PCO2 in
the sample and measured pH

A

B. Change in pH because of increased
carbonic acid in the electrolyte
surrounding the electrodes

34
Q

The measurement of oxygen in blood by
means of a PO2 electrode involves which
of the following?
A. Wheatstone bridge arrangement of
resistive elements sensitive to oxygen
concentration
B. Direct relationship between amount of
oxygen in the sample and amount of
current flowing in the measuring system
C. Change in current resulting from
an increase of free silver ions in solution
D. Glass electrode sensitive to H+ ions

A

B. Direct relationship between amount of
oxygen in the sample and amount of
current flowing in the measuring system

35
Q

hich of the following blood gas parameters are measured directly by the blood gas
analyzer electrochemically as opposed to
being calculated by the instrument?
A. pH, HCC-3, total CO2
B. PCO2, HCOJ, PO2
C. pH, PCO2, K)2
D. PO2, HCOf, total CO2

A

C. pH, PCO2, K)2

36
Q

Which of the following statements is
false about anodic stripping voltammetry
(ASV)?
A. Based on potentiometry
B. Occurs in an electrochemical cell
C. Involves preconcentration of the
analyte by electroplating
D. Used to measure lead

A

A. Based on potentiometry

37
Q

Which of the following methods allows
for the separation of charged particles
based on their rates of migration in an
electric field?
A. Rheophoresis
B. Electrophoresis
C. Electroendosmosis
D. Ion exchange

A

B. Electrophoresis

38
Q

Which of the following techniques is
based on electro-osmotic flow?
A. Capillary electrophoresis
B. Zone electrophoresis
C. Iontophoresis
D. Isoelectric focusing

A

A. Capillary electrophoresis

39
Q

Which of the following is not a type of
support media used for serum protein
electrophoresis?
A. Agarose gel
B. Cellulose acetate
C. Acrylamide
D. Celite

A

D. Celite

40
Q

In serum protein electrophoresis, when a
buffer solution of pH 8.6 is used, which of
the following characterizes the proteins?
A. Exhibit net negative charge
B. Exhibit net positive charge
C. Exhibit charge neutrality
D. Migrate toward the cathode

A

A. Exhibit net negative charge

41
Q

Which of the following characteristics will
a protein have at its isoelectric point?
A. Net negative charge
B. Net positive charge
C. Net zero charge
D. Mobility

A

C. Net zero charge

42
Q

What dye may be used for staining protein
bands following electrophoresis?
A. Fat red 7B
B. Sudan blackB
C. Ponceau S
D. Oil redO

A

C. Ponceau S

43
Q

When electrophoresis is performed, holes
appear in the staining pattern, giving the
stained protein band a doughnut-like
appearance. What is the probable cause
of this problem?
A. Protein denatured and will not stain
properly
B. Ionic strength of the buffer was too
high
C. Protein reached its isoelectric point
and precipitated out
D. Protein concentration was too high

A

D. Protein concentration was too high

44
Q

What is the purpose of using ampholytes
in isoelectric focusing?
A. Maintain the polyacrylamide gel in
a solid state
B. Maintain the protein sample in
a charged state
C. Maintain the pH of the buffer
solution
D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

A

D. Establish a pH gradient in the gel

45
Q

Which of the following is not associated
with silver stains?
A. Reactive to nanogram concentrations
of proteins
B. Polypeptides stain a variety of colors
C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant
blue
D. Preconcentration of CSF not
necessary

A

C. Not as sensitive as Coomassie brilliant
blue

46
Q

Which of the following is not associated
with isoelectric focusing?
A. Continuous pH gradient
B. Migration of proteins with net charge
of zero
C. Separation dependent on isoelectric
point
D. Zone electrophoresis

A

B. Migration of proteins with net charge
of zero

47
Q
  1. Which of the following is an electrophoretic technique employing a pH gradient that separates molecules with similar isoelectric points?
    A. Zone electrophoresis
    B. High-resolution electrophoresis
    C. Isoelectric focusing
    D. Immunoelectrophoresis
A

C. Isoelectric focusing

48
Q

Given the following information on
a particular compound that has been
visualized by means of thin-layer
chromatography, calculate the /Rf of
the compound.

Distance from origin to spot center = 48 mm
Distance from spot center to solvent
front = 93 mm
Distance from origin to solvent front = 141 mm
A. 0.29
B. 0.34
C. 0.52
D. 0.66

A

B. 0.34

49
Q

To achieve the best levels of sensitivity
and specificity, to what type of detector
system could a gas chromatograph be
coupled?
A. UV spectrophotometer
B. Bichromatic spectrophotometer
C. Mass spectrometer
D. Fluorescence detector

A

C. Mass spectrometer

50
Q

Which of the following instruments has
a sample-introduction system, solventdelivery system, column, and detector
as components?
A. Atomic absorption spectrometer
B. Mass spectrometer
C. High-performance liquid chromatograph
D. Nephelometer

A

C. High-performance liquid chromatograph

51
Q

Which type of elution technique may be
used in high-performance liquid chromatography?
A. Amphoteric
B. Isoelectric
C. Gradient
D. Ion exchange

A

C. Gradient

52
Q

Which of the following statements best
describes discrete analysis?
A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled
separately in its own reaction vessel.
B. Samples are analyzed in a flowing
stream of reagent.
C. Analyzer must be dedicated to
measurement of only one analyte.
D. It does not have random access
capability.

A

A. Each sample-reagent mixture is handled
separately in its own reaction vessel.

53
Q

Which of the following chromatography
systems may be described as having a
stationary phase that is liquid absorbed on
particles packed in a column and a liquid
moving phase that is pumped through a
column?
A. Thin-layer
B. High-performance liquid
C. Ion-exchange
D. Gas-liquid

A

B. High-performance liquid

54
Q

Which of the following chromatography
systems is characterized by a stationary
phase of silica gel on a piece of glass and
a moving phase of liquid?
A. Thin-layer
B. Ion-exchange
C. Gas-liquid
D. Partition

A

A. Thin-layer

55
Q

Which of the following does not apply to
gas-liquid chromatography?
A. Separation depends on volatility of the
sample.
B. Separation depends on the sample’s
solubility in the liquid layer of the
stationary phase.
C. Stationary phase is a liquid layer
adsorbed on the column packing.
D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped
through the column.

A

D. Mobile phase is a liquid pumped
through the column.

56
Q

Ion-exchange chromatography separates
solutes in a sample based on the
A. Solubility of the solutes
B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge
C. Adsorption ability of the solutes
D. Molecular size

A

B. Sign and magnitude of the ionic charge

57
Q

Which parameter is used in mass
spectrometry to identify a compound?
A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio
B. Molecular size
C. Absorption spectrum
D. Retention time

A

A. Ion mass-to-charge ratio

58
Q

Which chromatography system is
commonly used in conjunction with mass
spectrometry?
A. High-performance liquid
B. Ion-exchange
C. Partition
D. Gas-liquid

A

D. Gas-liquid

59
Q

Which of the following may be a
sampling source of error for an
automated instrument?
A. Short sample
B. Air bubble in bottom of sample cup
C. Fibrin clot in sample probe
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

60
Q

Checking instrument calibration,
temperature accuracy, and electronic
parameters are part of
A. Preventive maintenance
B. Quality control
C. Function verification
D. Precision verification

A

C. Function verification

61
Q

For which of the following laboratory
instalments should preventive maintenance
procedures be performed and recorded?
A. Analytical balance
B. Centrifuge
C. Chemistry analyzer
D. All the above

A

D. All the above

62
Q

Which of the following is not the reason
that preventive maintenance schedules
are required?
A. Keep instrument components clean
B. Replace worn parts
C. Extend the life of the equipment
D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

A

D. Keep personnel busy when the laboratory work is slow

63
Q

Which globin chains compose hemoglobin Aj?
A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains
B. Two alpha chains and two delta chains
C. Two alpha chains and two gamma
chains
D. Two beta chains and two delta chains

A

A. Two alpha chains and two beta chains

64
Q

Which hemoglobin may be differentiated from other hemoglobins on the basis
of its resistance to denature in alkaline
solution?
A. A,
B. A2
C. C
D. F

A

D. F

65
Q

Hemoglobin S is an abnormal hemoglobin
that is characterized by a substitution of
which amino acid?
A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6
on the beta chain
B. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6
on the alpha chain
C. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6
on the beta chain
D. Lysine for glutamic acid in position 6
on the alpha chain

A

A. Valine for glutamic acid in position 6
on the beta chain

66
Q

When performing electrophoresis at pH
8.6, which hemoglobin molecule migrates
the fastest on cellulose acetate toward the
anode?
A. A1
B. A2
C. F
D. S

A

A. A1

67
Q

Because of similar electrophoretic mobilities, several hemoglobins cannot be
differentiated on cellulose acetate medium.
Electrophoresis of hemoglobins at pH 6.2
on agar gel may be useful in differentiating which hemoglobins?
A. A1 from A2
B. A1from D
C. A1 from E
D. C from A2

A

D. C from A2

68
Q

In addition to performing hemoglobin
electrophoresis, a solubility test may be
performed to detect the presence of what
hemoglobin?
A. A1
B. C
C. F
D. S

A

D. S

69
Q

Which of the following is not quantified
using an immunoassay method?
A. Vitamins
B. Hormones
C. Electrolytes
D. Drugs

A

C. Electrolytes

70
Q

Which of the following is a homogeneous
immunoassay where separation of the
bound from the free labeled species is not
required?
A. Radioimmunoassay
B. Enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay
C. Immunoradiometric assay
D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique

A

D. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique

71
Q

The substance to be measured reacts with
a specific macromolecule of limited
binding capacity. Which of the following
assays does not employ this principle?
A. Chemiluminescence immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique
C. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
D. High-performance liquid chromatography

A

D. High-performance liquid chromatography

72
Q

Which of the following is not associated
with the enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique (EMIT)?
A. Is a homogeneous enzyme immunoassay
B. Determines antigen concentration
C. Employs a labeled reactant
D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum
sample

A

D. Enzyme reacts with drug in serum
sample

73
Q

When using EMIT, the enzyme is coupled
to
A. Antibody
B. Antigen
C. Substrate
D. Coenzyme

A

B. Antigen

74
Q

The enzyme activity measured in the
EMIT is the result of the reaction between
the substrate and coenzyme with
A. Free antibody
B. Free unlabeled antigen
C. Free labeled antigen
D. Labeled antigen-antibody complexes

A

C. Free labeled antigen

75
Q

Singlet oxygen reacting with a precursor
chemiluminescent compound to form a
decay product whose light energizes a
fluorophore best describes
A. Fluorescent polarization immunoassay
B. Enzyme-multiplied immunoassay
technique
C. Electrochemiluminescence immunoassay
D. Luminescent oxygen channeling
immunoassay

A

D. Luminescent oxygen channeling
immunoassay

76
Q

Which of the following stimulates the
production of singlet oxygen at the surface
of the sensitizer particle in a luminescent
oxygen channeling immunoassay?
A. Radiant energy
B. Heat energy
C. Enzymatic reaction
D. Fluorescent irradiation

A

A. Radiant energy

MTAP 2 FINAL SZN (7 decks)

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