economics-micro Flashcards

1
Q

What is economics?

A

Economics is a social science that studies how humans make decisions when they face scarcity.

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2
Q

What does scarcity mean?

A

Scarcity means that our wants and needs are greater than the amount of available resources.

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3
Q

Economic agents make decisions based on:

A
  • Political Judgement<br></br><br></br>- Short term outcomes<br></br><br></br>- Moral Judgement<br></br><br></br>- Normative Statements
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4
Q

What is a positive statement?<br></br>

A

They are objective statements that can be proved by referring to evidence

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5
Q

What is a normative statement?

A

They are statements of opinion that contain a value judgement

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6
Q

What is a value judgement?

A

They are judgements about society that cannot be quantified and tested, found within a normative statement.

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7
Q

What does ceteris paribus mean?

A

all other things kept equal.

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8
Q

How is economics Similar to other sciences?

A
  • Develop theories and make models<br></br><br></br>- Use economic models to make predictions<br></br><br></br>
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9
Q

How is economics different to natural sciences?

A
  • Controlled approaches experiments cannot be conducted<br></br><br></br>- economist use the assumption ceteris paribus<br></br><br></br>
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10
Q

What is the basic economic problem?

A

There are not enough resources on earth to satisfy humans’ unlimited wants and needs.

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11
Q

What are the 3 foundations to economics decisions?

A

What to produce?<br></br><br></br>How to produce?<br></br><br></br>Who to produce for?<br></br><br></br>

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12
Q

What is a need?

A

something necessary for survival e.g food, water, shelter

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13
Q

What is a want?

A

Things people can live without but desire e.g luxury cars, designer clothes

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14
Q

What are the 4 factors of production?

A

land, labor, capital, enterprise

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15
Q

What is meant by land?

A

Finite and non-finite resources found on the planet, including animals, water and natural materials.

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16
Q

What is meant by labour? (2 things)

A

Human capital - the value human labour brings to the production process<br></br><br></br>Labour force - the population that can work.<br></br><br></br>

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17
Q

What is meant by capital?

A

Human made resources: technology machinery

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18
Q

What is meant by enterprise?

A

The entrepreneurs who take a risk to make a profit by creating things from the other factors of production.

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19
Q

What are the 3 main economics agents? What are their roles?

A
  • Producers: supply goods/services<br></br>- Consumers: purchase goods/services<br></br>- Governments: Establish rules in an economy
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20
Q

What decisions does a producer make?

A

Producers must decide what products to make and the selling price of products.

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21
Q

What decisions does a consumer make?

A

Consumers decide what products to purchase and how much they want to spend on products.

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22
Q

What is an opportunity cost?

A

The loss of potential gain from other alternatives when one alternative is chosen.<br></br><br></br>

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23
Q

What are some problems with opportunity cost?

A
  • Not all factors have alternatives<br></br>- Some alternatives are unknown<br></br>- Agents may lack information on alternatives
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24
Q

What is a trade-off?

A

sacrificing one good or service to purchase or produce another

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25
Q

Traditionally, what is the main incentive that firms base their decisions on?

A

Profit

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26
Q

What is a PPF curve?

A

A curve which shows the maximum amount of two goods or services an economy can produce.<br></br><br></br>-it explains the constraints experienced by society.<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br>

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27
Q

How is opportunity cost shown on the PPF curve?

A

As you move along the curve, to produce good X you have to sacrifise production of good Y.

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28
Q

Why is the PPF curved?

A

The law of diminishing returns:<br></br><br></br>- As we increase the production of Good X the more of Good Y has to be sacrificed

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29
Q

What do points on, inside and outside the PPF mean?

A

On =Productively efficient, all factors are being fully utilised Inside = Under utilisation of factors of production
Outside = Not currently possible to produce at this point.

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30
Q

What cause an outwards shift in the PPF?

A

Economic growth:<br></br><br></br>- Improvements in labour and technology<br></br>- Increased resources (increase in total number of workers)<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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31
Q

What causes an inwards shift in the PPF?

A

Negative economic growth:<br></br><br></br>- A loss of resources (e.g. natural disaster)<br></br>- Migration<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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32
Q

What is static efficiency?

A

Refers to the efficiency atany point in timeand can be separated into allocative and productive.

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33
Q

What is productive efficiency?

A

Any point on the PPF, when all resources are being used asefficiently as possible.<br></br><br></br>Products are produced at a level where average costs are at their lowest<br></br><br></br>

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34
Q

What does a linear PPF show?

A

Opportunity costs are constant<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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35
Q

How does the specialisation of factors of production change along the PPF curve?

A

Towards any end of the PPF, factors of production are specialised for the production of the good of the opposite end.<br></br><br></br>This is because your opportunity cost is greater towards the end of the PPF

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36
Q

What can cause a PPF to shift out in one direction?

A
  • When improvements in capital/labour can only benefit one good.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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37
Q

What is demand?

A

the willingness and ability of buyers to purchase goods at a given price within a particular time period.

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38
Q

What is price?

A

Price is what the buyer pays for a specific good or service.

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39
Q

What is the income effect?

A

achange in quantity demanded caused by a change in consumer income

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40
Q

What is the substitution effect?

A

When demand for the cheaper good increases demand for the costlier good decreases.

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41
Q

What is a complement good?

A

Goods that are often used together; when price increases both demands fall (PS4 and PS4 games)

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42
Q

What is a substitute good? (Competitive Demand)

A

Goods that are alternatives to eachother. An increase in price of good A would cause a rise in demand for good B and a fall for good A (McDonald’s Vs KFC)

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43
Q

What is a demand curve?

A

a curve that shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity of the product demanded<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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44
Q

What causes a contraction and extension in demand?

A

Change in price<br></br>Rise in price = Contraction<br></br>Fall in price = Extension<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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45
Q

What factors can cause a shift in the demand curve?

A

P - Population<br></br>I - Income<br></br>R - Related goods (subs and complements)<br></br>A - Advertisement<br></br>T - Tastes<br></br>E - Expectations (future price change)<br></br>S - Season

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46
Q

What effect does increased income have on the demand curve for normal goods vs inferior goods?

A

For normal goods, increased income will lead to increase in quantity demanded (Cars)<br></br><br></br>For inferior goods, increased increased income will lead to a fall in quantity demanded (Rice)

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47
Q

What is a Giffin good? How does its demand curve look?

A
  • A Giffin good is one for which as price increases demand increases e.g. necessities for low income earners<br></br><br></br>- Upwards sloping demand curve.<br></br><br></br><br></br><br></br>
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48
Q

What is a Veblen good? How does its demand curve look?

A
  • A Veblen good is one for which as price increases, demand increases e.g. expensive goods for celebrities<br></br><br></br>- Upwards sloping demand curve.
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49
Q

What is elasticity?

A

Elasticity measures the responsiveness of one variable to the change in another variable

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50
Q

What is the equation for percentage change?

A

(X2 - X1)/X1

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51
Q

What is Price elasticity of demand (PED)? What is the equation for it?

A

PED is a measure of how quantity demanded responds to a change in price.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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52
Q

What is elastic demand?

A

Elastic demand is when PED > 1. This means a % change in price will lead to a larger % change in quantity demanded.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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53
Q

What is inelastic demand?

A

Inelastic demand is where the 0 < PED < 1. This means a % change in price will lead to a smaller % change in demand.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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54
Q

What does unit elastic mean?

A

Unitary elasticity is where the PED = 1. % change in price will lead to an equal % change in quantity demanded.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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55
Q

What is perfectly elastic demand?

A

PED = ± infinity<br></br>Any price increase will cause demand to drop to zero.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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56
Q

What happens when you increase and decrease price when PED is perfectly elastic?

A
  • Increasing price means nobody is willing or able to purchase<br></br><br></br>- Decreasing price means firms are unable to cover costs.
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57
Q

What is perfectly inelastic demand?

A

PED = 0<br></br>Any price change won’t affect demand.<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br>

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58
Q

Why is PED always negative?

A

Because price and demand have an inverse relationship

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59
Q

What is income elasticity of demand (YED)? What is the equation for it?

A

YED measures how much demand changes with a change in real income.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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60
Q

What is the YED for normal necessitiy goods?

A
  • Normal necessity goods have a positive income elasticity, <br></br>- 0 < YED < 1<br></br>- (income rises, demand increases).
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61
Q

What is the YED for inferior goods?

A

Inferior goods have negative income elasticity, YED < 0 (income rises; demand decreases).<br></br><br></br>

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62
Q

What is cross elasticity of demand (XED)? What is the formula for it?

A

XED is a measure of how the quantity demanded of one good responds to a change in the price of another good.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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63
Q

What is the XED for substitute goods?

A

XED is positive for substitutes (XED > 0)

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64
Q

What is the XED for complementary goods?

A

XED is negative for complementary goods (XED < 0)

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65
Q

What is the XED for independent goods?

A

XED = 0, as independent goods are not related to each other.

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66
Q

What is total revenue?

A

Price per unit x Quantity<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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67
Q

If a product is price elastic, what does increasing and decreasing the price do?

A

Decreasing price = increases total revenue.<br></br>Increasing price = decreases total revenue.

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68
Q

If a product is price inelastic, what does increasing and decreasing the price do to total revenue?

A

Decreasing price = decreases total revenue.<br></br>Increasing price = increases total revenue.

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69
Q

How does the burden of an indirect tax differ when PED is elastic vs inelastic?

A
  • When PED is inelastic, most of the burden is passed onto consumers, since a change in price doesnt really affect demand<br></br><br></br>- When PED is elastic the firms will take up the burden, since increasing the price will cause a large fall in demand<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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70
Q

What factors influence PED? (6)

A
  • NASBIT<br></br>- Necessity Goods<br></br>- Addictive habit forming goods<br></br>- Substitutes<br></br>- Brand Loyalty<br></br>- Income % spent<br></br>- Time (SR vs LR)
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71
Q

What happens to PED when there are more substitutes?

A

Becomes more price elastic

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72
Q

What is PED like for cheap goods vs expensive goods?

A

Expensive - Price elastic<br></br>Cheap - Price inelastic

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73
Q

What is PED like in the long run?

A

Price elastic, as you have more time to find alternatives

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74
Q

How does elasticity change along a demand curve?

A

At zero demand/high price : price elastic<br></br>At midpoint : unit elastic<br></br>At zero price/high quantity : price inelastic<br></br>PED of ± 1 = maximised total revenue.<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br>

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75
Q

What is supply?

A

Supply is the quantity of a good or services that producers are willing and able to produce at a given price at a particular time.

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76
Q

What is a supply curve?

A

A curve that shows the relationship between the price of a product and the quantity of the product supplied.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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77
Q

What is the law of supply?

A

as price increases, quantity supplied increases all other factors constant.

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78
Q

What causes an extension and contraction in a supply curve?

A

Increase price - extension<br></br>Decrease price - contraction<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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79
Q

Why does a rise in price lead to an increase supply of that good?

A

The increase in price incentivises firms to increase output to make more profits.

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80
Q

When does the supply curve shift?

A

When the quantity supplied increases/decreases at every price level.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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81
Q

What factors cause a shift in the supply curve?

A

P - Productivity<br></br>I - Indirect taxes<br></br>N - Number of firms<br></br>T - Technology<br></br>S - Subsidies<br></br>W - Weather<br></br>C - Costs of production<br></br><br></br>OR<br></br><br></br>A change in the cost, quality or quantity of factors of production.

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82
Q

What is price elasticity of supply (PES)? What is the formula for it?

A

Price elasticity of supply measures how the quantity supplied of a good response to a change in its price.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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83
Q

What is elastic supply?

A

PES > 1. A percentage change in price will lead to a greater percentage change in quantity supplied.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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84
Q

What is inelastic supply?

A

0 < PES < 1. A percentage change in price will lead to a smaller percentage change in quantity supplied<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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85
Q

What is unit elastic supply?

A

PES = 1. Percentage change in price will lead to and equal percentage change in quantity supplied.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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86
Q

What is perfectly elastic supply?

A

PES = ± Infinity. Any quantity demanded can be met without changing price, but if price changes quantity supplied falls to 0<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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87
Q

What is perfectly inelastic supply?

A

PES = 0. Supply is fixed regardless of any change in price. Change in demand cannot be met easily.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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88
Q

Why is a high PES important to firms?

A

A high PES means firms are able to respond quickly to any changes in price and demand

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89
Q

What can a firm to do make their supply elastic?

A
  • Spare production capacity<br></br>- Improve technology<br></br>- Flexible working patterns
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90
Q

What is the short run?

A

<br></br>Refers to a period of time in when at least one factor of production is fixed, usually capital.

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91
Q

What is the long run?

A

Refers to a period of time when all factors of production can be variable

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92
Q

What is the elasticity of supply like in the short run vs the long run?

A

Short run = Inelastic. Capital is fixed and it takes time to increase factors of production, making it it difficult to react to changes in price.<br></br><br></br>Long run = Elastic. Firms can increase capacity as all factors are variable and have longer to react.

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93
Q

What factors effect PES? (5 factors)

A
  • Levels of stock<br></br>- Spare production capacity <br></br>- Artifcial Limits <br></br>- Factor mobility <br></br>- Time
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94
Q

Why do we see an elastic supply during Recessionary periods?

A

because if a firm tried to expand their production, they would have a larger pool of labour to hire. Their ability to attract this labour is also high as people need jobs.

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95
Q

What is market equilibrium?

A
  • Supply = Demand<br></br><br></br>- This is the only price where the amount consumers want to buy is equal to the amount producers want to sell.
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96
Q

What is disequilibrium?

A

Disequilibrium is when the market supply and demand is not equal.

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97
Q

What happens when the market is not at equilibrium?

A

Functions of the price mechanism will ration away excess supply/demand

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98
Q

How does disequilibrium occur?

A

When there is excess supply or demand

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99
Q

What happens when there is excess supply?

A

Excess supply will force producers to cut the price. Supply would contract and demand would extend until the equilibrium price is reached again.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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100
Q

What happens when there is excess demand?

A

Excess demand will signal to producers that they can generate more profit by raising the price, and will do so. Demand will contract and supply will extend until the equilibrium price is reached again.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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101
Q

What 3 assumptions does the equilibrium model have?

A
  • Ceteris Paribus<br></br>- Supply and demand are independent from each other<br></br>- All markets are perfectly competitive
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102
Q

What does market forces mean?

A

The free interaction of supply and demand

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103
Q

What effect will a shift in the demand curve (but not in the supply curve) have on equilibrium?

A
  • An increase in demand will cause an increase in price. Supply will extend and form a new equilibrium.<br></br>- A decrease in demand will cause the price to fall. Supply will contract and form a new equilibrium.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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104
Q

What effect will a shift in the supply curve (but not in the demand curve) have on equilibrium?

A
  • An increase in supply will cause a decrease in price. Demand will extend and form a new equilibrium.<br></br>- A decrease in supply will cause an increase in price. Demand will contract and form a new equilibrium.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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105
Q

If PED/PES is inelastic, what do shifts in the demand/supply curve have the greatest impact on?

A

Price

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106
Q

If PED/PES is elastic, what do shifts in the demand/supply curve have the greatest impact on?

A

Quantity

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107
Q

How do the functions of the price mechanism change equilibrium in a free market?

A
  1. Signal to firms price is to high/low<br></br>2. Firms incentivesed to change price<br></br>3. Rations away excess demand/supply<br></br>4 Allocates resources effectively
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108
Q

What is joint demand?

A

two goods are in joint demand if they are complementary e.g. ps4 and ps4 games

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109
Q

What is derived demand?

A

When the demand for one good leads to the demand for another e.g. an office and office furniture

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110
Q

What is composite demand?

A

Goods that have a number of uses in the production process. e.g. steel

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111
Q

What is joint supply?

A

A production process that can yeild 2 or more outputs e.g. cows milk and beef

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112
Q

What does productivity measure?

A

Productivity measures the output efficiency of firms and economies.

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113
Q

What does input mean?

A

The 4 factors of production:<br></br>- Land<br></br>- Labour<br></br>- Capital<br></br>- Enterprise

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114
Q

What is the equation for labour productivity?

A

Output produced in a given time ÷ total number of workers/total hours worked.

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115
Q

How can labour be improved?

A
  • Better technology<br></br>- More training<br></br>- More education
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116
Q

What is meant by division of labour?

A

Division of labour involves dividing the workforce and allocating specific individuals to specific tasks.

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117
Q

What is specialisation?<br></br>

A

Is when workers/firms focus on specific tasks to gain a greater degree of efficiency

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118
Q

What are the advantages of specialisation?

A
  • Leads to economies of scale which can reduce long run average costs<br></br>- Reduce cost of training<br></br>- Increase labour productivity
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119
Q

What are the disadvantages of specialisation?

A
  • lack of flexible labour (immoblie workers)<br></br>- bored workers<br></br>- over reliant on 1 firm
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120
Q

What is the law of diminishing returns?

A

If one variable factor of production is increased while the others stay fixed marginal product will initially rise then fall.

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121
Q

What is marginal product(returns)?

A

The extra output from adding one extra factor input

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122
Q

What is total product(returns)?

A

The total output from all factor inputs

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123
Q

What is average product(returns)?

A

Total product / number of inputs

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124
Q

Why does the law of diminishing returns only apply in the short run?

A

Because at least one factor of production stays fixed, usually capital.

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125
Q

Explain what happens when MP initially rise then falls. (4 steps)

A
  • Rises initially because of specialisation/utilisation of capital<br></br><br></br>- then falls because fixed factors of production constrain production<br></br><br></br>- for example a pizza shop with 5 ovens wouldn’t benefit from from adding 6 <br></br>or 7 or 8 workers<br></br><br></br>- this all happens because of the law of diminishing returns
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126
Q

Why is total product maximised when marginal product = 0?

A
  • If MP is positive, each factor input employed increases output, if MP is negative each factor employed decreases output.<br></br>- Total product is maximised when adding an extra factor input doesn’t change output in any way
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127
Q

How can productivity be improved?<br></br>

A
  • Better training<br></br>- Better management<br></br>- Improved technology
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128
Q

What is the relationship between MP and MC?

A

When MC rises, MP is falling<br></br>When MC falls, MP is rising

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129
Q

What is marginal costs (MC) and the equation for it?

A

Marginal costs is the extra cost of producing one more unit of output<br></br><br></br>MC = change in TC ÷ change in quantity

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130
Q

Why is the marginal cost curve U-shaped?

A

Law of diminishing returns<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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131
Q

How does marginal cost affect average costs?

A

When marginal cost < average cost = average cost is decreasing.<br></br><br></br>When marginal cost > average cost = average cost is increasing.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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132
Q

Why does MC cut AC at its lowest point?

A

When marginal cost < average cost, average cost is decreasing.<br></br><br></br>When marginal cost > average cost, average cost is increasing.<br></br><br></br>So MC can only cut AC when the AC is neither increasing or decreasing, the lowest point. (MC=AC - Productive efficiency)

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133
Q

What is the difference between fixed and variable cost?

A
  • Fixed cost do not vary with output<br></br>- Variable cost vary with output
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134
Q

How is average cost calculated?

A

AC = TC ÷ Q

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135
Q

Why is the AC curve U shaped?

A
  1. AC is AFC + AVC <br></br><br></br>2. Initially AFC is falling as TFC is spread across more output and AVC is falling as workers specialise and begin to take advantage of underutilised capital<br></br><br></br>3. When LoDM kicks in my AVC rises as fixed factor cause a contraint to my variable factors<br></br><br></br>4. This will offset the effects of my AFC falling and cause AC to rise, explaining why it is ‘U’ shaped<br></br><br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br>
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136
Q

Why are AFC always falling?

A

Total fixed cost can be spread across greater output<br></br><br></br>So you dividing a constant number by a number that is always increasing<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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137
Q

<br></br>What is economies of scale?

A

economies of scale is a reduction in average cost due to operating on a larger scale<br></br><br></br>(cost benefits of operating on a larger scale)

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138
Q

What is purchasing economies of scale?

A
  • Large firms have bargaing power with suppliers and can gain discounts for buying in bulk
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139
Q

What is risk-bearing economies of scale?

A
  • When a firm becomes larger, they can expand their production range so they can spread the cost of uncertainty. <br></br>- If one part is not successful, they have other parts to fall back on. can help lower average costs<br></br>eg<span>Major pharmaceuticals companies, such pfizer inc, all undertake research in developing new drufe</span>
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140
Q

What is managerial economies of scale?<br></br>

A
  • Large firms are able to employ specialist managers who can make better decisions and have more experience<br></br><br></br>
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141
Q

What is marketing economies of scale?

A
  • Larger firms can divide their marketing budgets across larger outputs, so the average cost of advertising per unit is less than that of a smaller firm.
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142
Q

What is financial economies of scale?

A
  • large firms can often borrow more money at a lower rate of interest as they are seen as less risky
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143
Q

What is technical economies of scale?

A
  • Large firms can afford to invest in specialist equipment which can help to reduce average cost
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144
Q

What are external economies of scale?<br></br>

A

<span>External economies of scale occur when a whole industry grows larger and firms benefit from lower long-run average costs.</span>

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145
Q

What are some real life examples of external economies of scale?

A
  • New technology firms have concentrated along the M4 motorway, partly because of access the Heathrow airport, but also because of agglomeration economies<br></br>-<span>Silicon Valley outside San Francisco has become a hotspot for IT related industries. This attracts skilled workers. Firms have to spend less on recruiting skilled labour<br></br></span>- Ruhr valley in Germany has many chemical firms, meaning that are supplies and transport links related to the industry
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146
Q

What is diseconomies of scale?

A

An increase in average costs as a result of operating on a large scale

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147
Q

Types of internal diseconomies of scale?<br></br>

A
  • Wastage and loss can increase, as materials may seem in plentiful supply.<br></br><br></br>- Communication becomes more difficult, with an increasing number of staff<br></br><br></br>- Worker alienisation: Wokers may feel unomotivated in a large workforce, leading to decreased productivity<br></br><br></br>- Managers may be less able to control as workforce increases
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148
Q

Types of external diseconomies of scale

A

<span>1- Human resource competition, driving wages up</span><br></br><span>2- Physical resource competition, driving raw material prices up</span><br></br><span>3- Infrastructure competition eg transport congestion<br></br></span>Think hip

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149
Q

How could economies of scale lead to monopolies forming?

A
  • If average costs keep decrease firms can pass these reduced costs on to consumers in the form of lower prices undercutting competition and gaining a bigger market share<br></br><br></br>- This can force other firms out of business and cause a monopoly
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150
Q

What is returns to scale?

A

Returns to scale describes the effect on increasing the scale of production/output

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151
Q

What is increasing returns to scale?

A
  • When % change in output > % change in input.<br></br>- Increasing all factors of production leads to a more than proportional increase in output.
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152
Q

What is decreasing returns to scale?

A
  • When % change in output < % change in input<br></br>- increasing all factors of production leads to a less than proportional increase in output
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153
Q

What is constant returns to scale?

A
  • When % change in output = % change in input<br></br>- Increasing factors of production will lead to a proportional increase in output
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154
Q

What is the link between economies of scale and returns to scale?

A
  • Increasing returns to scale contributes to economies of scale<br></br>- Decreasing returns to scale contributes to diseconomies of scale<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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155
Q

What is the minimum efficient scale of production (MES)?

A
  • MES is the lowest level of output needed to be productively efficient<br></br>- This is the lowest level of output where full EoS can be exploited and after this point a firm no longer receives EoS
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156
Q

What is a LRAC curve? (Envelope Curve)

A
  • A curve thats shows the minimum possible average cost at each level of output.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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157
Q

Why is the LRAC curve made up of multiple SRAC curves?

A
  • Initially a firm is confined by fixed factors of production<br></br>- Eventually they can increase their factors of production until they are confined again by a fixed level of factors of production<br></br>- this continue and makes multiple SRAC curves which make up the LRAC curve
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158
Q

What can cause an upward / downward shift in the LRAC curve?

A

External economies and diseconomies of scale.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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159
Q

Why do some economists argue the LRAC curve is ‘L’ shaped?

A
  • They argue although diseconomies of scale will occur with increasing output this will be offset with continued reduction in average costs.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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160
Q

Why is the LRAC curve U-shaped?

A
  • In the long run all factors are variable so a firm is able to increase all its factors, reducing average costs.<br></br><br></br>- However as they continue to increase factors of production become harder to manage and coordinate properly, so average costs increase<br></br><br></br><img></img>
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161
Q

Why is the LRAC curve only below or equal to the SRAC curve?

A
  • For a firm to operate on its LRAC curve it must be using the most appropriate mix of factors of production<br></br><br></br>- So in the short run cost can be reduced to this minimum level as some factors are fixed
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162
Q

What is TR and the equation for it?

A

Total amount from a firms sales<br></br><br></br>TR = Q x P

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163
Q

What is AR and the equation for it?

A

revenue per unit sold<br></br><br></br>AR = TR ÷ Q

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164
Q

What is MR and the equation for it?<br></br>

A

Extra revenue incurred from selling an additional unit of a good<br></br><br></br>MR = change in TR ÷ change in Q

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165
Q

Why does AR = Price ?

A

AR = TR ÷ Q<br></br><br></br>= P x Q ÷ Q<br></br><br></br>= P

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166
Q

How do the curves for AR and MR look when there is perfect competition?

A

AR = MR = D<br></br><br></br>- The curve is horizontal when there is perfect competition as the firm is a price taker so demand is perfectly elastic<br></br><br></br>- The firm must take the price set by the market and any increase in price will cause quantity sold to drop to 0

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167
Q

How does TR look when there is perfect competition?

A
  • TR is a diagonal straight line going from bottom left to top right<br></br><br></br>- So when AR is constant TR increases proportionally with sales.
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168
Q

Why does AR = D ?

A
  • Average revenue is Total Revenue ÷ Quantity<br></br>- total Revenue = Price x quantity of output<br></br>- each point on the curve represents the price of the product in the market.<br></br>- Price determines the demand for a product, hence average revenue curve is also demand curve.<br></br><br></br>
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169
Q

Why is MR twice as steep as AR?

A
  • When a firm drops its prices is not just dropping its prices for the next unit sold but all the units its selling, even the units its already sold so MR will drop twice as fast as AR
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170
Q

Why is MR = 0 when TR is maximised?

A
  • When MR is positive every additional sale bring additional revenue so TR increasing<br></br>- When MR is negative every additional sale brings less revenue so TR is decreasing<br></br>- TR can only be maxed when MR is neither increasing or decreasing so it is maxed when MR = 0
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171
Q

What is normal profit and when does it occur?

A

Normal profit is the minimum level of profit required to keep opperating in the long run, but not enough to attract other firms into the market<br></br><br></br>Normal profit is when AC = AR (0 opportunity cost)

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172
Q

What is subnormal profit and when does it occur?

A

Any economic profit below normal profit<br></br><br></br>AC > AR

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173
Q

In a perfectly competitive industry, what type of profit can be made?

A

Only normal profit can be made

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174
Q

In the long run, what type of profit is required for a business be sustainable?

A

Normal profit at the very minimum

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175
Q

What does the existence of supernormal profits signal?

A

Signals to other firms to enter the market, but barriers to entry and competition must be considered

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176
Q

What is the profit equation?

A

Profit = Total Revenue - Total Cost

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177
Q

What is supernormal profit?

A

Any economic profit above normal profit and represents that a firm is making more money than in its next best alternative market<br></br><br></br>AR > AC

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178
Q

When is profit maximised? Why is this

A
  • when MC=MR <br></br><br></br>- If marginal cost is less than marginal revenue, the firm could increase profit by expanding production.<br></br><br></br>- If marginal cost is greater than marginal revenue, the firm could increase profit by reducing output.
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179
Q

How is economic profit different to accounting profit?

A

Economic profit cosiders both explicit (FC VC) and implicit (opportunity costs) costs<br></br><br></br>Accounting profit only considers explicit costs.

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180
Q

Price takers can only make what type of profit in the long run?

A

Normal<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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181
Q

What is key about a price making firm?

A

Supernormal profits can be made<br></br><br></br><img></img>

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182
Q

Why are no supernormal profits made in perfect competition in the long run?

A
  • Although in the short run supernormal profits can be made, this will signal to firms to enter the market, so these supernormal profits will be shared among multiple firms
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183
Q

In the long run why will a firm shut down?

A

If it cant make a normal profit

184
Q

Why wont a loss making firm close immediately in the short run?

A
  • In the short run firms have fixed cost to pay even if they don’t produce and cannot sell assets<br></br>- so they will continue to produce with prices below AC as long as they cover AVC so fixed cost can start to be payed off
185
Q

When will production be ceased immediately and why?

A

If in the short run the market price doesn’t cover variable costs as this will only increase debts

186
Q

What is the difference between an invention and innovation?

A
  • An invention is an advancement in knowledge.<br></br><br></br>- An innovation involves putting that advancement to use in a new product or service.
187
Q

What is creative destruction?

A
  • First introduced by economist Joseph Schumpeter<br></br>- It describes the continuous process of innovation and change in a<strong>capitalist economy,</strong>where new technologies and business models disrupt and replace older ones, leading to the destruction of existing companies and industries.<br></br>- For example, the rise of online retailers like Amazon has led to the closure of many brick-and-mortar stores, but has also created new jobs and consumer benefits such as lower prices and greater convenience.<br></br>
188
Q

What decisions does a government make?

A

Governments decide how much they should intervene in the production and consumption process.

189
Q

What is the law of demand?

A

The law of demand states that there is an inverse relationship between price and quantity demanded, all other factors constant.

190
Q

What is YED for normal luxury goods?

A
  • Normal luxury goods have a positive income elasticity<br></br>- YED > 1
191
Q

Why does MP cross AP at its highest point?

A

Ifmarginal productis lessthan average product, thenaverage productdeclines. Ifmarginal product is greater than average product, thenaverage productrises.<br></br><br></br><img></img>

192
Q

In simple terms what does PES mean?

A

How well can demand be met

193
Q

Why does MR=AR in perfect competition?

A

MR = AR because each extra unit sold brings the same revenue as all the others<br></br>

194
Q

How are MR and AR related?

A

MR is twice as steep as MR

195
Q

What is a deadweight loss? How can this be shown on a diagram?

A
  • is a measure of lost economic efficiency when the socially optimal quantity of a good or a service is not produced.<br></br><br></br><img></img>
196
Q

What are some examples of ways firms can extract consumer surplus from consumers?

A
  • Monopolies: high prices redue consumer surplus<br></br>- Price discrimination<br></br>- Creating a more inelastic demand
197
Q

An increase in supply is likely to have what impact on consumer surplus?

A
  • Consumer surplus increases
198
Q

A decrease in supply is likely to have what impact on consumer surplus?

A
  • Consumer surplus decreases
199
Q

An increase in demand is likely to have what impact on producer surplus?

A
  • Producer surplus increases
200
Q

A decrease in demand is likely to have what impact on producer surplus?

A
  • Producer surplus decreases
201
Q

How can the change in consumer surplus be represented on the diagram?<br></br><br></br><img></img>

A

By shading the region P1,F,E,Pe<br></br><br></br><img></img>

202
Q

How can the change in producer surplus be shown on the diagram?<br></br><br></br><img></img>

A

By shading the region P1,Y,Z,Pe<br></br><br></br><img></img>

203
Q

If demand for a good is perfectly elastic what will consumer surplus be? Why?

A

When the demand for a good or service isperfectly elastic, consumer surplus is zero because the price that people pay matches exactly what they are willing to pay.

204
Q

What is meant by market failure?

A
  • When the price mechanism leads to a misallocation of resources. <br></br>- This means the price mechanism leads to a price and quantity that isnt best for society.
205
Q

What are the 7 reasons for market failures from the AQA spec?

A

<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br><br></br>M(^2)PIIE

206
Q

What is the difference between a complete and partial market failure?

A
  • A complete market failure occurs when a market simply does not supply products at all and we end up with missing products e.g. streetlights<br></br><br></br>- A partial market failure occurs when a market supplies a good, but at the wrong quantity and/or the wrong price e.g. education
207
Q

What is a public good? What is the key distinction between public goods and other goods?

A
  • They are goods that are provided by the government <br></br>- The are non-excludable & non-rival
208
Q

What is meant by non-excludable?

A
  • You cannot exclude or stop someone from consuming a good <br></br>- e.g. if I pay to use a streetlight, I cant stop someone walking behind me from using it aswell<br></br>
209
Q

What is meant by non-rival?

A
  • The quanitiy of the good does not diminish apon consupmtion<br></br>- e.g. if I pay to use a beach, it doesnt reduce the quantity available to others
210
Q

What is the free rider problem? What happens as a result of the free rider problem?

A
  • Since consumers are all waiting for someone to buy the public good so they can use it for free, nobody actually demands the goods, so producers dont supply them as they wont make any profit<br></br>- This could lead to a complete market failure as the market would not provide the public good
211
Q

What is a quasi-public good?

A

Public goods that show some characteristics of privates goods

212
Q

How can some goods posses characteristics of private and public goods?

A
  • Roads can be non-excludable, but if toll booths are put in making people pay to use the roads they can be excludable<br></br><br></br>- If there is alot of traffic on a road it can become rival as the road has been used by the other drivers
213
Q

What are some examples of quasi-public goods?

A
  • Roads<br></br>- Parks<br></br>- Beaches
214
Q

What is tragedy of the commons?

A
  • Private producers will act according to their self interest and unsutainably keep exploiting common access resources, leading to a depletion of that resource<br></br><br></br>
215
Q

What is a natural public good (common access resource/commons)?

A

Natural resources for which no private ownership has been established

216
Q

Explain the tragedy of the commons using an example

A
  • For example in the 1960’s English and French fishermen would travel to the east coast of canada to fish for cod. Since they couldnt be stopped and fish were reproducing faster than they were fishing the fish could be considered as non-excludable non-rival goods.<br></br><br></br>- Then when the American and Canadians developed new boats that allowed them to carry more fish, the amount of fish they caught was greater than the rate that the fish were reproducing<br></br><br></br>- Today there is only 1% of the total cod that there was in the 70’s
217
Q

Why should the government not provide public goods? (Evaluation points)

A
  • Lack of competition + no profit motive means poor quality of services e.g. bin collectors, potholes in roads<br></br><br></br>- If the government are the only providers this reduces choice and quanitity, which can result in productive, allocative and dynamic inefficiency leading to government failure<br></br><br></br>- Vast opportunity cost the government suffer<br></br>- Lack of profit motive can lead to X-ineffiecny and diseconomies of scale<br></br>- In some cases, might be effienent for the government to fund but the private sector toprovide certain public goods eg. prisons<br></br>
218
Q

Why should the government provide public goods? (Evaluation points)

A
  • Government can provide goods on a much larger scale compared to the private sector + they have the lowest borrowing rates, which can allow them to gain economies of scale benefits and achieve productive efficiency. Lower long run cost per user<br></br><br></br>- They make sure that essential public goods such as healthcare and education are provided as they provide positive externalities. The free market may struggle to provide these goods due to the free rider problem leading to a market failure<br></br><br></br>- Lack of pofit motive makes public goods affordable- this is important for equity<br></br><br></br>- Helps develop long term growth and economic development through the provision of infastructure
219
Q

What are negative externalities?

A

Costs which affect third-parties <b>outside</b> the price mechanism

220
Q

What is a negative consumption externality?

A

A negative affect on a third party as a result of consuming a good

221
Q

What is a negative production externality?

A

A negative affect on a third party as a result of producing a good

222
Q

Why is demand = marginal benefit?

A

Its because the demand curve tells you the highest a consumer would be willing and able to pay for a good and that price is equal to MB since you wouldnt pay more than the benefit you get from something

223
Q

Why is supply = marginal cost?

A

It because the supply curve tells you the lowest price a producer would be willing and able to supply a good for, and that lowest price is equal to marginal cost since you woudnt sell a good for less than what is cost to produce

224
Q

What is a social cost? What is the formula for social costs?

A

The cost experienced by the whole of society<br></br><br></br>Social costs = Private costs + External cost

225
Q

What is social benefits? What is the formula for social benefits?

A

The benefits experienced by society as a whole<br></br><br></br>Social benefits = Private benefits + External benefits

226
Q

How is net welfare worked out?

A

Net welfare = Social benefits - Social costs

227
Q

Draw a negative externalities in production diagram, showing overproduction and a welfare loss

A

<img></img>

228
Q

What is the difference between these 2 curves? <br></br><br></br><img></img>

A

On the left external costs are the same for each unit produced<br></br>On the right external costs are increasing for each unit produed

229
Q

This red circle is know as the …………<br></br><br></br><img></img>

A

Socially effecient equilibrium

230
Q

Draw a negative externalities in consumption diagram, showing overconsumption and a welfare loss

A

<img></img>

231
Q

How can regulation solve negative externalities market failures?

A
  • Completley ban certain goods that have high external costs e.g. class A drugs, guns<br></br>- Reduce consumption of goods by having legal ages e.g. alchol, smoking<br></br>- Reduce production of goods if they do not meet certain criteria e.g. cars
232
Q

What are positive externalities?

A

Benefits which affect third parties outside the price mechanism

233
Q

What is a positive consumption externality?

A

Benefits to a third party as a result of a consumption of a good

234
Q

What is a positive production externality?

A

Benefits to a third party as a result of the production of a good

235
Q

Draw a positive consumption externalities diagram, showing underconsumption and the potential welfare gain

A

<img></img>

236
Q

Draw a positive production externality diagram showing underproduction and the potential welfare gain

A

<img></img>

237
Q

What is a merit good?

A

Merit goods are goods which areunderconsumedbecause of eitherpositiveexternalities orinformation gap.

238
Q

What is a demerit good?

A

Demerit goods are goods which areoverconsumed or over-consumedbecause of eithernegativeexternalities orinformation gap.

239
Q

What are the 2 types of information failure?

A
  • Incomplete information (Overconsumption and underconsumption)<br></br>- Asymmetric information
240
Q

What is incomplete information?

A

Incomplete information is when someone doesn’t have full information about the benefits or costs of their decisions.

241
Q

Why can incomplete information lead to overconsumption?

A
  • Consumers will be unaware of the full costs that consuming certain goods may have e.g. smoking, alchol, fizzy drinks
242
Q

Why can incomplete information lead to underconsumption?

A
  • Consumers will be unaware of the full benefits that consuming certain goods may have e.g. education, healthy food
243
Q

What is asymmetric information?

A

When one party knows more than the other in a transaction

244
Q

What does symmetric information mean?

A

All parties know as much as eachother in a transaction

245
Q

How can asymmetric information lead to market failures?

A

If one knows more than the other in a transaction, they can easily be exploited, leading to a misallocation of their resources

246
Q

What are some examples of markets where there is a high presence of asymmetric information?

A
  • Used car markets<br></br>- Used phones<br></br>- Private healthcare
247
Q

How can monopoly power lead to market failure?

A

Monopolies charge higher prices and produce lower quantities, exploiting consumers and leading to a misallocation of resources

248
Q

Why might a monpoly not lead to market failures?

A

Since monopolies make long run supernormal profits, they can reinvest into R&D and new tech. <br></br>If this outways the high prices consumers pay in the short run there will be no marlet failure.

249
Q

What is occupational immobility? Why can it lead to market failure?

A
  • Occupational immobility is when workers cant move between different jobs because they lack the skills needed<br></br>- Occupational immobility leads to structual unemployment, which can cause a labour market failure
250
Q

How can the government intervene to prevent occupational immobility?

A
  • Subsidising education and apprentiships
251
Q

What is geographical immobility? Why can it lead to market failures?

A
  • Geographical immobility is whenwokersstruggle to move to theareawhere the jobs are located.<br></br>- Without government intervention it can lead to unemployment, a labour market failure
252
Q

How can the government intervene to prevent geographical immobility?

A
  • Relocation subsidies<br></br>- Improving transport
253
Q

What is regulation?

A

Imposition of rules by the government backed by penalties that are intended to modify the behaviour of economic agents

254
Q

What is the price mechanism?

A
  • The interaction of supply and demand to determine prices.
255
Q

What are the 3 functions of the price mechanism?

A
  • Signalling<br></br>- Incentivising<br></br>- Rationing
256
Q

Explain how the price mechanism works

A

1) Signals are sent to producers that their prices are too high/low<br></br>2) There are incentives to increase/decrease supply depending on if there is excess demand/supply<br></br>3) This increase/decrease in supply will ration away excess demad/supply taking us back to equilibrium

257
Q

What are some advantages of the price mechanism?

A
  • Can result in allocative effeciency as producers are supplying what consumers demand<br></br>- Can opperate without the cost of people to regulate it <br></br>- Prices are kept low as resources are used as effeciently as possible
258
Q

What are some disadvatages of the price mechanism?

A
  • Under provision of public goods<br></br>- Inequality in incomes and wealth as only those with purchasing power benefit from the price mechanism<br></br>*add to this
259
Q

Who are the CMA?

A

The Competition and Markets Authority is a non-ministerial government department, responsible for strengthening business competition and preventing and reducing anti-competitive activities.

260
Q

What are the 4 key types of regulation the the CMA use?

A
  • Merger policy<br></br>- Price regulation<br></br>- Profit regulation<br></br>- Performance targets and quality standards
261
Q

What is meger policy? How does it work?

A
  • When the CMA block merging that might give firms too much market power<br></br><br></br>- The CMA will carry out an investigation if a firm merging gives 25% or more market share or £70 Million in revenue. They will only be blocked from mergeing if they think they will negatively harm consumers<br></br>
262
Q

What is price regulation? What are the 2 types of price regulation?

A
  • A limit to how much firms can increase their prices<br></br>- RPI + K & RPI - X
263
Q

What is the difference between RPI + K & RPI - X?

A
  • RPI + K allows for firms to increase their prices by the rate of inflation + k which is an additional amount so they can increase their supernormal profits<br></br><br></br>- RPI - X allows for firms to increase their prices by the rate of inflation - x which is used to punish firms if they think they can be more effecient
264
Q

What is regulatory capture? What are examples of this?

A

When regulators begin to favour the companies that they are regulating e.g. setting quality standards too low or allowing firms to increase prices by too much

265
Q

What is profit regulation? What are the benefits of this?

A
  • When the government can take 100% of a firms profit in taxes after they reach a certain profit limit<br></br>- This can encourage firms to reinvest in new capital since then they cannot be taxed
266
Q

What are some examples of performance targets and quality standards?

A
  • Performance targets include, ScotRail, who have the performance target of 91.3% of its trains running on time and the NHS, each hospital has the performance target of responding to accident and emergency patients in less than 4 hours.<br></br><br></br>- The Food Standards Agency (FSA) give out a quality standard as do the British Standards Institute (BSI) (childrens toys).<br></br>
267
Q

What are ways that the CMA can promote contestability to tackle monpolistic firms? (4)

A
  • Deregulation<br></br>- Privitisation<br></br>- Helping small firms grow<br></br>- Stopping anti competitive practises
268
Q

How can deregulation and privitisation lead to more contestable markets?

A
  • When regulation are removed they can lower barries to entry. This can lead to more firms entering the market which forces existing firms to lower prices, improve customer services and increase effeciency in order to survive<br></br><br></br>- By privitising firms the government create more competiton as now there is incentive form firms to make profit, forcing them to be effecient
269
Q

What is competitive tendering? How does it work?

A
  • Competitive tendering is when the government outsources specific job contracts to the private sector.<br></br><br></br>- Private sector firms bid to win the contract, by offering the best deal - the highest quality for the lowest cost. The government then chooses the firm which offers the best value for money - and awards them the contract!
270
Q

What are the types of anti competitive practises the CMA can prevent? What do they each mean?

A
  • Predatory pricing, when firms charge aggresivly below AVC to cut their competiton out of the market<br></br><br></br>- Vertical intergration (forwards or backwards) is when firms take over other firms at different stages of the supply chain of the same product. By firms doing this they can create barriers to entry whereby other firms may struggle to access suppliers or retailers<br></br><br></br>- Price collusion, when 2 or more firms agree to restrict competiton
271
Q

What are the 3 main ways that the government helps small businesses to grow?

A
  • Access to loans<br></br>- R&D tax breaks<br></br>- Subsidies
272
Q

What is privitisation?

A
  • The transfer of the ownership of a firm from the public sector to the private sector
273
Q

What are some advantages of privitisation?

A
  • Government revenue from selling firms<br></br>- Increased competiton means improved efficiency and reduces x-inefefficiency<br></br>- Competiton may result in lower prices for consumers
274
Q

What are some disadvantages of privitisation?

A
  • Natural monopolies: Sometimes it makes sense for one firm to be the sole supplier of a good. Privitising these types of firms can lead to undesired competition and wasteful duplication of resources<br></br>- Government lose out on potential dividends since most privitised firms are often profitable<br></br>- Regulation to stop private monopolies
275
Q

Privitisation may depend on? (Evaluation points)

A
  • The type of industry: healthcare education VS Telecoms<br></br>- Quality of regulation<br></br>- If the market is contestable and competitive
276
Q

What is nationalisation?

A

The process of taking assets from private to public ownership.

277
Q

What are some advantages of nationalisation?

A
  • Greater economies of scale potential since the government can produce more output than the private sector, which can lead to productive effeciency<br></br><br></br>- Public sector is more likely to focus on welfare and provision of services<br></br><br></br>- Less likely to be market failures that arise from externalties
278
Q

What are some disadvantages of nationalisation?

A
  • Lack of supernoramal profits + Higher prices due to low competiton<br></br>- Complacent and wasteful production = X-ineffeciency<br></br>- Expensive to run state companies and therfore there is a burden on tax payers<br></br>- Moral Hazard
279
Q

What is moral hazard? How is it a disadvantage of nationalisation?

A
  • Moral hazard is the idea that when someone pays for you problems your likely to take less care to avoid those problems<br></br>- Politicians who make the decisions to nationalise firms will not suffer the burden if something goes wrong, taxpayers will
280
Q

Nationalisation depends on (Evaluation points)

A
  • Are PPPs (public private partnerships) or competitve tendering better alternatives<br></br>- If there is good regulation of private sector industries<br></br>- Level of competition: Nationalisation may not be needed if there is high levels of competition
281
Q

What are some advantages of deregulation?

A
  • Reduced barriers to entry mean more competition is promoted = more choice for consumers = allocative effeciency<br></br>- Higher incentive to minimise cost with more competition created, which leads to productive and X effeceincy
282
Q

What are some disadvantages of deregulation?

A
  • If there is a natural monopoly then deregualtion allows for more firms to enter the market which can lead to a loss of the natural monopoly, increasing average costs and leading to productive ineffeciency<br></br><br></br>- Formation of oligopolies and local monopolies
283
Q

Deregulation depends on? (Evaluation points)

A
  • Short run VS Long run outcomes: If deregulation leads to local monopolies and oligopolies then in the long run this reduces contestability<br></br><br></br>- Just because legal barriers to entry are removed doesnt always make a market more contestable > consider strategic and technical barriers<br></br><br></br>- Levels of regulation on anti competitive behaviour<br></br>
284
Q

What is governent failure?

A

Government failure is when the government intervenes to correct a market failure but makes the allocation of resources even worse than before

285
Q

What are the 4 main causes of government failure?

A
  • Law of unintended consequences<br></br>- Information gaps<br></br>- Distortion of the price mechanism<br></br>- Administration cost
286
Q

Explain how distortion of the price mechanism can lead to government failure (maximum price)

A

E.g. In the New York housing market maximum prices are set so that homes are affordable to consumers. However these lower prices reduces the incentive for producers to supply which lead to excess demand and a shortage of houses.

287
Q

Explain how distortion of the price mechanism can lead to government failure (minimum price)

A

E.g in the 1970’s the EU introduced minimum prices on argicultural foods to incentivise farmers to produce more but this only lead to excess supply and a contraction in demand. This resulted in food being wasted and disposed of creating pollution and damaging agricultrual soils

288
Q

Give examples of how law of unitended consequences can lead to government failure

A
  • Speed bumps: they intend to slow traffic down but ambulance need to be places fast. It is estimated for every person that is save by a speed bump 85 die as a result of ambulances not being quick enough<br></br><br></br>- Illegalising goods creates black markets
289
Q

What is the law of unintended cosequences?

A

All government interventions have some unintended consequences

290
Q

Explain how information gaps can lead to government failure

A

e.g. Rio Olympics; the government run £1.6 Billion over because they didnt have full information about the costs<br></br><br></br>- In 2002 the government wanted to make an NHS online database to improve effeciency, but 9 years later they didnt complete it because they lacked full information on the costs and technology. They ended up scrapping the project altogether wasting £11 billion in tax payers money

291
Q

How can administration costs lead to government failure?

A

When the government impose laws and policies there are also costs of regulating. If these costs exceed the benefits of government intervention this can lead to government failure<br></br><br></br>e.g. £21 Billion makes up the NHS’s admin costs and it is estimated that 750 extra lives could be save every month if they could afford more medical supplies, despite a £150 billion budget<br></br>

292
Q

What are some disadvantages of regulation?

A
  • Encourages black markets and law breaking<br></br>- Reduces innovation and dynamic effeciency<br></br>- Regulatory costs
293
Q

What are some advantages of regulation?

A
  • Quick to implement and can reduce negative externalities e.g smoking bans, age limits on drinking<br></br><br></br>- Effective for inelastic goods<br></br><br></br>- Government regulations are generally imposed to benefit the greater society = allocative effeciency and welfare gains
294
Q

What is the effect of minimum prices to solving market failures? Show this on a diagram.

A
  • Increase the price of goods that may have negative externalities in consumption. Demand will contract as a result<br></br><br></br><img></img>
295
Q

What are some negatives to using minimum prices? (2)

A
  • Not effective if demand is price inelastic<br></br>- Consumers may turn to black markets
296
Q

Minimum pricing depends on (evaluation points)

A
  • Does it affect everybody equally (inequitable/regressive)<br></br>- How effective is the minimum price (50p per unit of alchol)
297
Q

What is the effect of maximum prices to solving market failures? Show this on a diagram.

A
  • Reduces the price of goods which have positive externalities in consumption. This causes demand to extend and supply to contract<br></br><br></br><img></img>
298
Q

What are some problems that arise from maximum prices?

A
  • Creates a shortage of goods with excess demand = government failure<br></br>- Black markets where consumers may be exploited by paying higher prices<br></br>- Low prices may mean lower quality goods<br></br>- Enforcement costs
299
Q

What are the advantages of maximum prices?

A
  • Can be a cause for merit goods to become cheaper<br></br>- Stops monopolies from exploiting consumers<br></br>- Increase in consumer surplus
300
Q

Maximum prices may depend on? (Evaluation points)

A
  • Are alternatives better? (Subsidies)<br></br>- Are they going to impact everyone equally (equitable)
301
Q

What are the disadvantages of indirect taxes to solve market failures?

A
  • Not effective for price inelastic goods<br></br>- Regressive on lower income earning families<br></br>- Black markets/Tax evasion
302
Q

What are the advantages of indirect taxes to solve market failures?

A
  • Often on everyday goods, which can significantly increase government revenue<br></br>- Increases the price of demerit goods, which discourages their consumption<br></br>- Encourages firms to change their behaviour e.g. making less sugary drinks
303
Q

How to you work out the revenue gained by an indirect tax/cost of a subsidy to the government?

A

Go to the new equilibrium, find the vertical distance and create a box from there<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br><br></br>

304
Q

How do the diagrams of an indirect tax differ when the tax is specific VS Ad Valorem?

A

Specific Tax = Parallel shift<br></br>Ad Valorem Tax = Pivotal shift<br></br><br></br><img></img>

305
Q

What are some disadvantages of using subsidies to solve market failures? (2)

A
  • High cost which means there is a huge opportunity cost<br></br>- Moral hazard: firms might get complacent and wasteful <br></br>
306
Q

What are some advantages of using subsidies for solving market failures?

A
  • Reduces cost of merit goods = Increases welfare in society<br></br>- Subsidies encourage investment = diverse products for consumers<br></br>- Prices are kept low for consumers
307
Q

Explain how TPP’s work?

A

1) The governemt sets a cap of how much pollution can be emmited in a given year<br></br>2) Government allocate permits based on the size of firm (Larger firm = more permits)<br></br>3) Will distibute permits until 10% of permits remain, which are then auctioned of to other firms<br></br>4) A firm must now either become more eco friendly or buy permits of other firms

308
Q

What are the disadvantages of TPP’s?

A
  • High costs of regulation<br></br>- Pollution can be hard to measure = pollution cap may be wrong<br></br>- Relocation of firms to countries with low pollution regulation
309
Q

What are the advantages of using TPP’s?

A
  • Incentives firms to reduce pollution (so they can potentially sell permits)<br></br>- Market based = effecient allcation of permits<br></br>- Equitable for firms as it allows them to make choices
310
Q

Draw the short run shutdown diagrams for a firm that should leave and stay in the market

A

<img></img>

311
Q

Draw the shutdown diagram for a firm that should close in the long run

A

<img></img>

312
Q

What is a monopoly?

A

A single firm that has full control of the market

313
Q

What is the difference between a legal monopoly and a pure monopoly?

A

Pure monopoly = A theoretical extreme whereby 1 firm has 100% market share<br></br><br></br>Legal monopoly = When a firm has 25% or more market share on there own and has the ‘power’ to act like a monopoly

314
Q

What assumptions does the monopoly market structure have? (5)

A
  • Firms profit maximise<br></br>- High barriers to entry/exit<br></br>- Imperfect information<br></br>- Differentiated product <br></br>- Firms are price makers<div>(Delete)</div>
315
Q

Draw a monopoly diagram

A

<img></img>

316
Q

What efficiency conclusions can be derived from monopoly?<br></br><br></br>

A

Productively inefficeint<br></br>Allocatively inefficeint<br></br>X-inefficeint <br></br>Dynamically efficient

317
Q

What are some disadvantages of monopoly?

A
  • Allocative inefficiency: consumers have less choice with monopoly and pay high prices leading to reduced consumer surplus and a deadweight welfare loss<br></br><br></br>- Productive inefficiency: they do not produce where MC=AC either due to a lack of competitive drive meaning they dont necessarily have to, or diseconomies of scale whereby a monopoly grows too large<br></br><br></br>- X-inefficiency: complacent and wasteful production due to a lack of competitive drive<br></br><br></br>- Inequalities that arise in neccesity markets
318
Q

What are some advantages of monopoly?

A
  • Dynamic efficiency = supernormal profits made in the long run which can be reinvested into r&d and new tech which can bring about benefits for consumers <br></br><br></br>- Greater economies of scale potential as monopolies are larger in size and as result we may see lower prices than in competitve outcomes<br></br><br></br>- Natural monopoly = If natural monopoly markets are regulated then they give society more desirable outcomes than if there was competition since it makes sence for that firm to dominate the market<br></br><br></br>
319
Q

What are some evaluation points for monopoly?

A
  • Does dynamic efficiency really hold in the real world: profits may be spent by owners, payed to shared holders and workers rather than reinvested<br></br><br></br>- Objective of the firm = The theory states that the monopoly will profit maximise but what if they have other objectives that intend to bring about welfare in society<br></br><br></br>- Type of good/service = Necessity goods will have more extreme consequences if sold by a monopolist
320
Q

Draw a diagram comparing monopoly outcomes and competitive outcomes

A

<img></img>

321
Q

Draw a diagram showing the economies of scale potential a monopoly has compared to competitve firms

A

<img></img>

322
Q

What is a natural monopoly?

A

a natural monopoly is when it is most efficient for 1 firm to be in the market e.g. TFL have 100% market share of London transport

323
Q

What is the argument for natural monopolies?

A
  • High sunk costs (for TFL estimated £129 billion pounds)<br></br>- Huge economies of scale + first movers advantage<br></br><br></br>Any firms entering these markets would create undesired competition and a wasteful duplication of scare resources
324
Q

Draw a natural monopoly diagram

A

<img></img>

325
Q

When does productive efficiency occur?

A

MC=AC

326
Q

When does allocative efficiency occur?

A

When welfare in society is maximised<br></br><br></br>MC = AR

327
Q

When does x-inefficiency occur?

A

For a given level of output a firm is opperating above its average cost curve

328
Q

When does dynamic efficiency occur?

A

When firms make long run supernormal profits to invest in research and development

329
Q

What are legal barriers to entry?

A

Any patents, copyrights or trademarks that stop new firms using ideas from an incumbent firm

330
Q

What are sunk costs?

A

Costs which cannot be recovered when a firms leaves the market

331
Q

How does economies of scale create barries to entry?

A

New smaller firms will be unable to compete with larger firms with economies of scale advantages as they will have much lower costs

332
Q

How does brand loyalty create barries to entry?

A

New firms will unable to make sales as consumers will stay loyal to incumbent firms

333
Q

What are the 5 types of barries to entry? (Uplearn)

A

LEBAS<br></br><br></br><img></img>

334
Q

What is meant by a constestable market?

A

Contestable markets are markets where there are potential threats of competition (may not be actual competition)

335
Q

What is hit and run competition?

A

This occurs when new firm hit the market by undercutting incumbent firms and stealing their supernormal profits<br></br><br></br>Then the incumbent firm will set it price to AC so only normal profit is made causing the new firm to ‘run’ and leave the market

336
Q

What are examples of barriers to exit?

A
  • High redundancy costs = costs payed to workers as a reuslt of shutting down<br></br>- Sunk costs<br></br>- Penalties for leaving contracts early
337
Q

Why is it important to look a theoretical extreme markets like perfect competition?

A

By looking at these types of markets it helps us undertsand what is wrong with real life markets when they have undesirable outcomes

338
Q

What are the features of a perfectly competitve market? (5)

A
  • 0 Barriers to entry/exit<br></br>- Firm is a profit maximiser<br></br>- Many buyers and sellers (infinite)<br></br>- Perfect information of market conditions<br></br>- Homogenous goods
339
Q

Draw the market and firm for a perfectly competitive market (short run)

A

<img></img> <br></br><br></br>

340
Q

Why cant supernormal profits be made in the long run in perfect competition?

A

Supernormal profits signal to firms that they should enter the market and since there are no barriers to entry and exit they will do so until only normal profits are made

341
Q

Draw the market for a perfectly competitve firm (Long run)

A

<img></img>

342
Q

What efficiency conclusions can be made about perfect competition?

A
  • Static efficiency (productive and allocative)<br></br>- X-efficiency<br></br>- Dynamically inefficient<br></br>
343
Q

What are the characteristics of contestable markets?

A
  • Low barriers to entry /exit<br></br>- Large pool of potential entrants to the market<br></br>- Good information of market conditions<br></br>- Incumbent firms are subject to hit and run competition
344
Q

How has technology increased contestability?

A
  • Lowers barriers to entry/exit e.g. businesses moving online reducing start up costs<br></br><br></br>- Increases the pool of potential entrants: firms can created new products and services disrupting current markets (uber, air bnb)<br></br><br></br>- Increased information : this allows for firms to learn about costs and market conditions
345
Q

Why will a monopoly reduce their prices in contestable markets?

A
  • By reducing price they take away any incentive for new firms to join the market
346
Q

What are some advantages of contestable markets?

A
  • Movement towards static efficiency + x-inefficiency as contestable markets move firms towards competitve outcomes<br></br><br></br>- Creation of jobs
347
Q

What are some negatives of contestable markets?

A
  • Cost cutting in dangerous areas e.g. environmental standards, health and safety, wages<br></br><br></br>- Creative destruction: new firms destroy old markets due to advancements in technology leading to job loss<br></br><br></br>- Anti competitve strategies may aries reducing contestability
348
Q

What are some evaluation points for contestable markets?

A
  • How long is the market contestable for?<br></br><br></br>- Role of technology (will it be used for good or bad, say to collect data on consumers which allows firms to practise price discrimination)<br></br><br></br>- Regulation<br></br><br></br>
349
Q

What are the characteristics of oligopoly markets?

A

Dominated by a few large firms (3-7)<br></br>High barriers to entry/exit<br></br>Interdependence<br></br>Non-Price competition<br></br>Differentiated goods (Similar but slightly different)

350
Q

What are some examples of sunk costs?

A
  • Advertisements<br></br>- R&D
351
Q

What is price collusion?

A

When 2 or more firms agree to limit competition

352
Q

What is the difference between overt collusion and tacit collusion

A

Overt collusion is when 2 firms formally agree to limit competition e.g. contracts, spoken agreements and happens as a result of price agreements<br></br><br></br>Tacit collusion is when firms limit competition without directly stating or formally agreeing and happens as a result of price leadership

353
Q

Why has the CMA blocked overt and tacit collusion?

A

Collusion generally leads to higher prices which reduce consumer surplus and negatively harm consumers

354
Q

What are 3 ways that firms will compete on price?

A
  • Price wars = when firms try to undercut each other with lower prices to steal the other firms’ consumers<br></br><br></br>- Predatory pricing = charging way below AVC to force other firms out of the market<br></br><br></br>- Limit pricing = when an incumbent firm sets prices so that other firms do not enter the market
355
Q

What are some ways firms will compete based on non-price competition?

A
  • Advertising<br></br>- Loyalty Cards (Tesco clubcard, Nandos Card)<br></br>- Branding<br></br>- Quality
356
Q

Why is uncertainty significant in oligopoly markets?

A
  • Decisions by one firm in the industry impact all of the other firms. Since it is hard topredictthe decisions of other firms, this can lead to considerableuncertainty.
357
Q

What distiguishes collusive and non-collusive oligopolies?

A
  • Non-Collusive = Will comptete with eachother<br></br>- Collusive = Will agree to restrict competition
358
Q

What is the difference between collusion and cooperation?

A

Collusion is illegal whereas cooperation is allowed<br></br>

359
Q

Describe the shape and elasticities of the kinked demand curve

A
  • On the top section demand in elastic. This is because if a firm raises is price demand will fall sigificatlly as consumers will switch to cheaper substitutes.<br></br><br></br>- On the bottom section demand is inelastic. This is because if a firm lowers its price competitors will also match them hence demand doesnt change that much<br></br><br></br><img></img><br></br>
360
Q

Draw a complete kinked demand curve

A

<img></img>

361
Q

Model a theoretical payoff maytrix for coca-cola and pepsi (game theory)

A

<img></img><br></br><br></br>

362
Q

How are n-concentration ratios calculated?

A

Adding up the market share of ‘n’ number of firms.

363
Q

What are some advantages of oligopoly markets? (2)

A
  • Cooperation in oligopolies may lead to improvements in industry standards<br></br><br></br>- Oligopolies make supernormal profits which may mean they reinvest in R&D which can yield positive externalities<br></br><br></br>
364
Q

What are some disadvantages of oligopolies?

A
  • The kinked demand suggests that there is high prices and low output which could lead to a misallocation of resources<br></br><br></br>- When firms collude it may lead to a loss of consumers welfare since prices are raised and output is reduced<br></br><br></br> - The absence of competition could mean that there is a loss of efficiency gains
365
Q

What is the difference between natural (technical) and artificial (stategic and legal) barriers to entry?

A

Natural barriers are naturally present and cannot be circumvented e.g. EoS (MES), start up costs, sunk costs<br></br><br></br>Artificial barries are created by the incumbent firm in order to reduce competition into the market e.g. predatory pricing, limit pricing vertical intergration

366
Q

What are the characteristics of monopolistic competition?

A
  • Many small buyers and sellers<br></br>- Slightly differentiated goods (some price making power)<br></br>- Good information of market conditions<br></br>- Low Barriers to entry/exit
367
Q

What does the long run position look like on a diagram for monpolistic competition and why?

A

In the long run, with low barriers to entry and firm attracted by supernormal profits, they will enter the market and compete the profits away until there is only normal profit to be made<br></br><br></br><img></img>

368
Q

What are some advantages of monopolistic competition?

A
  • Models a more realistic market compared to perfect competition<br></br>- Consumers get a wide variety of choice + competition drives prices low<br></br>- Short run supernormal profits may be enough to reinvest and bring small dynamic effeciency gains
369
Q

What is the main disadvantages of monopolistic competition?

A
  • In the long run no efficiency gains are achieved
370
Q

How can we evaluate monpolistic competition?

A
  • Although the theory states that allocative effeciency is not achieved, high levels of competition could lead to lower prices which can increase consumer surplus<br></br><br></br>- Although dynamic effeciency is not achieved in the long run, high levels of competition may mean that normal profits are reinvested in order to survive
371
Q

What is meant by efficiency?

A

Efficiency considers how well we use inputs to achieve outputs.

372
Q

Why may a firm choose to profit maximise?

A
  • Reinvest<br></br>- Dividends for shareholders<br></br>- Reward for entreprenership
373
Q

A firms business objectives are influenced by what 4 key stakeholders?

A
  • Consumers<br></br>- Workers<br></br>- Managers/CEO’s<br></br>- Shareholders
374
Q

Why may a firm not profit maximise?

A
  • Lack of knowledge of MR=MC<br></br>- To avoid scrutiny by regulators, market authorities<br></br>- Key stakeholder is harmed as a result
375
Q

What is profit satisficing?

A

Sacrifising profit to satisfy as many key stakeholders as possible.

376
Q

Other than profit maximising, what are some other objectives firms may have?

A
  • Revenue Max<br></br>- Sales Max<br></br>- Profit satisficing
377
Q

Why may a firm choose to reveue max?

A
  • Economies of scale potential is greater than at the profit max quantity<br></br>- Increase market share, since market share is measured by revenue<br></br>- Principle agent problem
378
Q

What is the divorce of ownership and control and how does this lead to the principle agent problem?

A
  • As firms grow bigger, owners will sell shares to raise finances but in turn end up loosing majority of ownership in their company.<br></br><br></br>- This can lead to the principle agent problem when the agent (e.g. the manager who runs andcontrolsthe business) pursues different objectives to the principal (e.g. the shareholders whoownthe business)<br></br><br></br>- Generally shareholders will want to profit max while owners will want to revenue/sales max for bigger bonuses and to control a larger firm
379
Q

When does sales max occur? Why may a firm choose to sales max?

A

AC=AR is when sales max occurs without making losses<br></br><br></br>- Limit pricing / Loss leader<br></br>- Economies of scale<br></br>- Principle agent problem<br></br>- Flood the market (develop loyalty then raise prices)

380
Q

What is price discrimination?

A

When a firm charges different prices to different consumers for an identical good/service with no differences in costs of production

381
Q

What are the 3 conditions necesarry for price discrimination?

A
  • Price making ability (monopoly power)<br></br>- Information to seperate the market into elastic and inelastic consumers<br></br>- Prevention of resales (market seepage)
382
Q

What is the difference between first second and third degree price discrimination?

A

1st = When consumers are charged the exact price they are willing to pay, and all consumer surplus is converted into monopoly profit<br></br>eg at an auction<br></br><br></br>2nd = This involves charging different prices depending upon the choices of consumer. For example quantity, time period, collecting coupons<br></br>eg. family discounts at theme parks<br></br><br></br><br></br>3rd = When the market is segmented into elastic and inelastic consumers

383
Q

Draw a diagram to represent first degree price discrimintation

A

<img></img>

384
Q

Draw a diagram to represent second degree price discrimintation

A

<img></img>

385
Q

Draw a diagram to represent third degree price discrimintation

A

<img></img>

386
Q

What are the disadvantages of price discrimination?

A
  • Allocative inefficiency<br></br>-Strengthens the monopoly power of firms<br></br>- Inequalities<br></br>-It might cost a firm to divide a market, which might limit the profit that they can make in the long term<br></br>- Anti competitve practises
387
Q

What are the advantages of price discrimination?

A
  • Dynamic efficiency- is achieved as firms can make more profit<br></br>- Economies of scale- as firm can expand market<br></br>- Some consumers benefit (2nd 3rd degree)- Cross subsidisation<br></br>
388
Q

What is significant about the point where AP and MP meet?

A
  • This is the point where AP is maximised<br></br><br></br>- This is also productive efficiency
389
Q

What is marginal revenue product (MRP)?<br></br><br></br>How is it calculated?

A

How much extra revenue an extra worker will bring to a firm<br></br><br></br>MR x MP (MPP)

390
Q

In labour markets why is demand = MRP?

A

A rational profit maximising firm will demand labour based on how high MRP is

391
Q

What is the difference between goods markets and labour markets?

A
  • In goods markets, firms supply goods and we demand goods from firms<br></br><br></br>- In labour markets, we supply labour, and firms demand our labour
392
Q

Why is the labour market supply curve upwards sloping?

A

When wages go up people realise that they can make more money, so more people will be willing to work increasing the quantity supplied of labour

393
Q

Describe what happens when wages are above equilibrium and explain how the market will correct itself

A
  • When there are higher wages firms will demand less labour at the same time more workers will be willing to supply their labour<br></br><br></br>- This will lead to an excess supply of labour aka unemployment<br></br><br></br>- For those unemployed they will have no choice but to accept lower wages so that they can remain in work<br></br><br></br>- So wages will decrease, quantity supplied of labour will fall, quantity demand for labour will increase and the market will return to equilibrium
394
Q

Describe what happens when wages are below equilibrium and explain how the market will correct itself

A
  • When wages are below equilibrium, there are less workers that are willing to work, but firms will be willing to hire more workers since wages are lower, leading to an excess demand of labour<br></br><br></br>- For firms to hire workers, they must offer hire wages as a result<br></br><br></br>- This will lead to higher wages, quantity demaded of labour will fall and quantity supplied will increase<br></br><br></br>
395
Q

What is meant by elasticity of demand for labour?

A

How responsive demand for labour is to changes in wages

396
Q

What is meant by elastic labour demand?

A

A small % change in wages will lead to a bigger % change in labour demand<br></br><br></br>e.g. Mcdonalds til workers wanted higher wages they would significantly reduce QD, and replace them with self service machines

397
Q

What is meant by inelastic labour demand?

A

Any % change in wages would lead to a smaller % change in labour demanded<br></br><br></br>e.g. If superstar football players demand higher wages, teams need these players so they wont be very responsive in reducing demand

398
Q

What are the 4 factors that influence ED for labour?

A

Think ‘SECT’<br></br><br></br>1) Substitutes (labour & capital)<br></br>2) PED for the product<br></br>3) % Of total Cost <br></br>4) Time

399
Q

How do substitutes affect the ED for labour?

A

For example, if it easy to substitute or replace workers when there wages go up, demand for labour will be elastic<br></br><br></br>But if it is harder then demand for labour will be inelastic<br></br><br></br>

400
Q

How does % of total cost affect ED for labour?

A

When wages make up a small % of a firms total cost, demand for labour will be more inelastic e.g. in a big car company, where machines and parts make up most of the costs, if wages went up by alot firms wouldnt care because they make up a small % of total costs<br></br><br></br>When wages make up a lager % of a firms total cost demand for labour will become more elastic e.g. in a tutoring firm, tutors make up the majority of there costs, so if wages increased by alot, those firms would be significanlty effected since wages make up majority of there costs.

401
Q

How does time (SR vs LR) affect ED for labour?

A

In the short run, there wont be enough time for a firm to find substitutes when wages increase, making there demand for labour inelastic<br></br><br></br>In the long run there is enough time for a firm to find substitutes when wages increase, making demand for labour elastic

402
Q

What is meant by inelastic supply of labour?

A

A large % increase in wages will lead to a smaller increase in quantity of labour supplied<br></br><br></br>e.g. If there was a large increase in wages for heart surgeon, supply would only increase by a bit since it is so heart to become a heart sugeon

403
Q

What is meant by elastic labour supply?

A

A % change in wages leads to a larger % increase in the quantity supplied<br></br><br></br>e.g. if Mcdonalds increased wages there would be a significant increase in the quantity of labour supplied since it doesnt require much to work at Mcdonalds

404
Q

What are the factors that influence elasticity supply of labour?

A
  • Skills & Qualifications<br></br>- Unemployment levels<br></br>- Time
405
Q

How do skills and qualifications influence the elasticity supply of labour?

A

The more skills and qualifications you need the more inelastic the supply of labour is<br></br><br></br>The less skills and qualifications you need the more elastic the supply of labour is

406
Q

How do unemployment levels influence the elasticity of supply of labour?

A

Higher unemployment means that when there is an increase in wages, there will be a greater % increase in the number of people willing and able to work since alot of people wont have jobs i.e elastic supply<br></br><br></br>Lower unemployment means that when there is an increase in wages, there will be a smaller % increase in the number of people willing and able to work since most people will have jobs i.e inelastic supply

407
Q

How does time influence the elasticity supply for labour?

A

In the short run, there wont be enough time for workers to apply/and train for jobs at short notice, so if wages increased quantity supplied of labour wouldnt increase by alot i.e inelastic supply<br></br><br></br>In the long runsupply will become elastic because there’s lots of time to apply and train for the job so if there is an increase in wages workers are likely to be more responsive

408
Q

What does the labour demand curve show us?

A

It shows us how many workers will be hired at a given wage rate, in a given period of time

409
Q

Why does the MRP curve rise initially and then fall?

A

Law of diminishing returns (Same reasons as MP)

410
Q

What are some criticisms of MRP theory?

A

1) In certain professions it may be harder to measure productivity, e.g. teachers because the output that a teacher produces isnt marketed (no numerical value so you cant work out MRP)<br></br><br></br>2) Self employed goes against the theory<br></br><br></br>3) MRP takes the assumption that labour markets are perfectly competitive, trade unions may bargain for higher wages, which has nothing to do with a workers MRP or monospsony with lower wages

411
Q

What are the factors that can shift the labour demand curve?

A

Think ‘ PDPC’<br></br> <br></br>- Change in the final price of the product labour is making<br></br>- Change in demand for the for the final product<br></br>- Change in labour productivity<br></br>- Change in the price in capital

412
Q

How can a change in the final price of a product shift the demand curve for labour?

A

If the price increases, then a workers MRP is going to increase as a result, (this makes alot of assumptions), this will shift demand to the right

413
Q

How can a change in demand for the final product cause a shift in labour demand?

A

If there is an increase in the demand for a good or service, there will be a derived demand for labour, so demand for labour will shift to the right

414
Q

How can changes in labour productivity cause a shift in labour demand?

A

An increase in labour productivity is going to increase the marginal revenue product of labour (Since MRP = MP x MR) so demand for labour will shift to the right <br></br>

415
Q

How can a change in the price of capital impact labour demand?

A

Since in the long run a firms factors are variable if the price of capital is lower than for labour, we may see less demand for labour (substitutes)

416
Q

How does the PED of a product impact the elasticity of the labour demand curve?

A

E.g. If demand for a good is inelastic and wages go up, they are not likely to cut there workforce significantly as they can pass the cost on to consumers<br></br><br></br>If demand for a good is elastic and wages go up, they cant pass these costs on to consumers since this will cause TR to fall, so more workers may be fired i.e. reduced demand for labour

417
Q

Draw an individual workers labour supply curve, explaining its shape

A

<img></img><br></br><br></br><br></br>- When wages rise from a low level, an individuals supply of labour increases since an individual is more willing to work at higher wages to improve there standard of living (+ income effect, + sub effect)<br></br><br></br>- As wages rise, the opportunity cost of lesiure time rises, but individuals begin to reach a level of income that they are happy with, so num of hours worked reduces (- income effect)<br></br><br></br>- When the curve bends back on itself, we assume at this point individuals have reached their target income, so even with higher wages they wont be willing to work more and give up leisure time.

418
Q

Draw labour supply curve for an entire industry

A

<img></img>

419
Q

For an individual firm, show the 2 different supply curves for labour ie perfect comp. vs monopsony

A

<img></img>

420
Q

Why is an individuals supply for labour curve backwards bending but the industry supply curve upwards sloping?

A
  • We assume that people trained in a given profession but work elswhere + those retired, will enter into this market
421
Q

What are some factors that will cause the labour supply curve to shift? (5)

A

Think ‘SOIND’<br></br><br></br>- Size of the working population<br></br><br></br>- Overtime <br></br><br></br>- Improvements in occupational mobility of labour<br></br><br></br>- Non pecuniary benefits (fringe benefits, long holidays, employee discounts)<br></br><br></br>- Different wages in substitute occupations

422
Q

What are some of the characteristics of perfectly competitive labour markets? (5)

A
  • There are many potential workers and employers<br></br><br></br>- Labour is homogenous<br></br><br></br>- There is perfect information (workers know the wages, firms know how good workers are)<br></br><br></br>- Firms are wage takes<br></br><br></br>- No barriers to entry/exit
423
Q

What is the benefit of studying perfectly competitive labour markets?

A
  • It gives us a bench mark to compare real world labour markets<br></br><br></br>- If we dont get wage differntials in perfectly competitve labour markets, then we can learn that there must be things going wrong with real world labour markets
424
Q

What are the characteristics of imperfect labour markets?

A

1) Labour is not homogenous (Different MRP, Different supplies of labour, Discrimination)<br></br><br></br>2) Labour is not perfectly mobile (Geographical, occupational, lack of information) <br></br><br></br>3) Non-monetary considerations (In perfectly competitive labour markets the assumption is that workers base the choice to work one wages alone)<br></br><br></br>4) Trade unions and supply restriction<br></br><br></br>5) Monopsonies and wage setting ability

425
Q

What are wage differentials?

A
  • The differences in wages between different groups of workers in similar occupations<br></br>
426
Q

What is a monopsony?

A
  • The sole/dominant employer of labour in a given profession<br></br><br></br>- e.g. Teachers, Nurses (UK) Mcdonalds, Walmart
427
Q

What are the characteristics of a monopsony? (3)

A
  • Wage makers (ability to set there own wages)<br></br><br></br>- Hire up to where MRP=MC(L)<br></br><br></br>- Reduce employment & Wages
428
Q

Draw a monopsony diagram comparing competitive labour market outcomes to monopsony labour market outcomes

A

<img></img>

429
Q

Why is the MC (L) twice as steep as the AC(L) for a monopsonist?

A

Although a monopsonist has wage making power, if it wants to change wages, its not just changing the wage for each additional worker, it for all the workers that came before<br></br><br></br>This implies that the MC(L) will be greater than the AC(L)

430
Q

What are the 2 main things we can derive from the monopsony diagram?

A
  • Wages and Employment are significanlty reduced<br></br><br></br>- Workers are payed a wage (Wm) much lower than there MRP
431
Q

What is a trade union?

A
  • An organisation thats formed to represent the best interest of a group of workers, and bargain for higher wages
432
Q

What is meant by a closed shop trade union?

A

All the workers are part of 1 trade union, i.e, there are no other trade unions

433
Q

Describe the impact using a diagram that a trade union will have on competitve labour markets

A

<img></img><br></br><br></br><br></br>1) The trade union will bargain for a higher wage, above the competitive wage<br></br><br></br>2) At that wage there is a limit to the number of workers happy with the wage rate, shown by the existing supply curve<br></br><br></br>3) This is because all the workers below that point would of already been happy with a wage below the TU wage since thats what they had been working for <br></br><br></br>4) Beyond that point the employer would have to raise wages in order to attract in more workers<br></br><br></br>5) Wages will rise and there will be excess supply of labour (unemployment)

434
Q

What are the disadvantages of trade unions on competitve labour markets? (2)

A
  • They raise costs for firms<br></br><br></br>- They increase unemployment, real wage unemployment
435
Q

How can we evaluate trade unions on competitve labour markets?

A
  • Although they make efficient labour market outcomes worse, for a monopsony labour market they could be making things better<br></br><br></br>- Depends on the strength of the trade union (how large the union is)<br></br><br></br>- The real world shows us that trade union strength is actually very limited
436
Q

Give examples of how in the real world the power of trade unions is very limited

A
  • 1970 trade union act: Closed shop trade unions are illegal, vote for strikes in secret, can only strike if 75% of the trade union agree<br></br><br></br>- Restructuring of the UK economy: Movement away from large manufacturing jobs where people would work under 1 firm, to service sector jobs, which makes it alot harder to organise trade unions<br></br><br></br>- Competitve pressures: Firms can reject trade union wages in order to keep their costs low and remain competitive<br></br>
437
Q

Explain using a diagram the impact a trade union will have on a monopsony

A

<img></img><br></br><br></br><br></br>1) Trade unions will bargain for a wage above Wm<br></br><br></br>2) The monopsonist becomes a wage taker up until a limit, because there is a limit to the number of workers willing to work at that new wage rate<br></br><br></br>3) The supply curve will also become the MC(L) and AC(L) until that limit<br></br><br></br>4) At that limit the monopsony must increase wages to attract more workers. But the key is thats not just for the next worker its for every other worker that follows, so the MC(L) will revert back its shape<br></br><br></br>5) Employment and wages will increase as a result of this TU<br></br><br></br>

438
Q

What is the UK national minimum wage?

A

An act first introduced in 1999 to stop firms setting wages so low that there workers couldnt afford a good standard of living<br></br><br></br>For 23 and over it will increase in April 2024 to £11.44 an hour (from £10.18). This will account for a £1800 increase a year for 2.7 million workers.

439
Q

Show the impact of a minimum wage on a perfectly competitve labour market and a monopsony labour market

A

<img></img>

440
Q

What are some advantages of minimum wages?

A
  • Creates incentive for people to work<br></br><br></br>- Fiscal benefit to the government (Reduced benefits payments + Tax revenue from people working)<br></br><br></br>- Boost in morale > workers become more productive<br></br><br></br>- Improve inequality, reducing the gap between the rich and the poor
441
Q

What are some disadvantages of minimum wages? (4)

A
  • Can create unemployment (real wage unemployment)<br></br><br></br>- Can cause cost-push inflation because of increased production cost<br></br><br></br>- Unattractive to FDI if NNW is too high, since there is no point of outsourcing in the UK with higher costs<br></br><br></br>- Can cause other pay groups to request higher wages, further increasing costs, and leading to wage push inflation
442
Q

Minimum wage depends on (Evaluation points)

A
  • Elasticities of demand/supply for labour: the more elastic the greater the impact of unemployment from a minimum wage, the more inelastic the lesser the effect<br></br><br></br>- Is it high enough to incentivise those on benefits to join the labour force<br></br><br></br>Add to<br></br><br></br>
443
Q

What is meant by monopsony power?

A

The ability to change wages

444
Q

Why is that firms in perfect competition are more likely to be profit maximising than a monopoly?

A
  • In perfect competition have no choice but to profit maximise in order to survive in the market<br></br><br></br>- A monopoly can choose any price and output between MR=MC and normal profit
445
Q

Explain why the divorce of ownership and management can happen in a firm?

A
  • In smaller firms, managers are generally the owners<br></br><br></br>- As a result the day to day running of the firm is done by the owners seeking profit<br></br><br></br>- But as a firm wishes to expand production, they will need to raise shares. <br></br><br></br>- Firms will sell shares to raise funds and expand, but in the process the ownership gets diluted<br></br><br></br>- As a result larger firms will become dependent on specialist managers who are employed to run the business on behlaf of the shareholders<br></br><br></br>
446
Q

Define minimum efficient scale

A

<span>The Minimum Efficient Scale (MES) is the level of production at which a firm achieves the lowest possible long-run average cost per unit of output. It is the point at which economies of scale are fully utilised, and any further increase in production would result in diseconomies of scale.</span>

447
Q

Example of a firm having sales maximisation as their main sales objective

A

<span>Amazon aimed to increase their market share in the e-reader market, by trying to sell as many Kindles as possible. They did this at a loss in the short run, but they gained customer loyalty and now they are a leading e-reader producer.</span>

448
Q

Examples of collusion

A

In 2002/3 supermarkets such as Sainsbury’s and Asda colluded with diary supplies to raise the price of diary products in supermarkets. Fined a total of £116m. Prices of milk in supermarkets went up by three pence per pint of milk, but the income received by farmers did not go up. Tried to justify that higher prices were needed in order to prevent firms going out of business, as foot and mouth disease had lead to falling farm incomes

449
Q

What is a cartel?

A

<span>an association of manufacturers or suppliers with the purpose of maintaining prices at a high level and restricting</span><span>competition</span>

450
Q

Examples of a cartel

A

Quebec maple syrup producers- regulates the production and marketing of maple syrup from Quebec. They control around 70% of world maple syrup production.<br></br><div>One of the most famous cartels in the world is OPEC who control the production of oil. In the 1970s, OPEC was able to triple the price of oil in response to events in the Middle East. They could do this because they controlled over 70% of the world’s oil supply.</div><div><a></a><br></br></div>

451
Q

Cartel diagram

A

<a><img></img></a><a><img></img></a>

452
Q

Draw the diagram for a contestable market

A

<img></img>

453
Q

How has the transport workers union, RMT, managed to recently influence wages?

A

Strikes have lead to a backdated pay rise of 5% from 2022-23, as well as job security guarantees. However talks with the RMT over future pay deals will continue.<br></br>The union claims strikes in 2023 cost the economy £5bn, with the the lesuire sector taking the greatest impact from the loss of sales.<br></br>£700m revenue lost from the rail industry<br></br>

454
Q

Draw a diagram exaplining how discrimination in a labour market leads to lower wages

A

<a><img></img></a> Employers peceive the discriminated group to have a lower MRP than the favoured group

455
Q

Policies to reduce discrimination in the labour market

A

<ol><li>Long-term investment in education and training to prepare people better for the labour market.</li><li>Structural reforms to promote stronger and more sustainable economic growth which can boost demand for workers, creating a more competitive environment that forces managers to drop discriminatory hiring and promotion practices.</li><li>Specific anti-discrimination legislation backed up by effective enforcement.</li><li>Enforcement agencies should be empowered, even in the absence of individual complaints, to investigate companies and sanction employers when they find evidence of discrimination</li></ol>

<div><div></div></div>

<br></br>

456
Q

Uk legistation on discrimination

A

<ul><li><b>The Equality Act 2010</b>The Equality Act brought together different acts outlawing different types of discrimination – age, sex, disability, religion, sexual orientation.<b><br></br></b></li></ul>

<div>In 2017, the UK government passed a law which made companies of more than 250 employers publish data on their gender pay gap. The government hoped that public pressure may nudge firms to push more women into top jobs.</div>

457
Q

Evualution- why might policies to reduce discrimination be ineffective?

A

<h3><span>The market can fail to end discrimination if:</span><br></br></h3>

<ul><li>Government legislation enforces discrimination (apartheid laws US, South Africa)</li><li>Discrimination occurs amongst consumers too.</li><li>If firms have monopoly power – despite higher costs of discrimination, barriers to entry prevent new non-discriminatory firms from entering the market.</li><li>Discrimination – pre-labour market. One major cause of wage differentials is not discrimination by employers but different life chances and education of people entering the labour market. If black-Americans have fewer qualifications than average, economic theory would predict that even with non-discriminatory employers, average wages would be lower for certain groups.</li></ul>