ECON202 - Exam 1 - Review Flashcards

1
Q

The relationship between quantity supplied and price is _____ and the relationship between quantity demanded and price is _____.

A

direct, inverse

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2
Q

If average income increases, all else equal, then there will be:

A

a shift of the demand curve.

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3
Q

The law of supply indicates that:

A

producers will offer more of a product at high prices than they will at low Pric e prices.

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4
Q

A fall in the price of milk, used in the production of ice cream, will:

A

increase the supply of ice cream, causing the supply curve of ice cream to shift to the right.

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5
Q

A market for a product is in equilibrium when:

A

quantity supplied equals quantity demanded.

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6
Q

If the supply and demand curves for a product both decrease, then equilibrium:

A

quantity must decline, but equilibrium price may either rise, fall, or remain unchanged.

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7
Q

The price elasticity of demand coefficient indicates:

A

buyer responsiveness to price changes.

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8
Q

The basic formula for the price elasticity of demand coefficient is:

A

percentage change in quantity demanded/percentage change in price.

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9
Q

The demand for a product is inelastic with respect to price if:

A

consumers are largely unresponsive to a per unit price change.

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10
Q

The larger the coefficient of price elasticity of demand for a product, the:

A

smaller the resulting price change for an increase in supply.

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11
Q

Utility refers to the:

A

satisfaction that a consumer derives from a good or service.

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12
Q

To maximize utility a consumer should allocate money income so that the:

A

marginal utility obtained from the last dollar spent on each product is the same.

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13
Q

Which of the following statements is correct?

A

A product may yield utility, but not be functionally useful.

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14
Q

Total utility may be determined by:

A

summing the marginal utilities of each unit consumed.

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15
Q

Marginal utility can be:

A

positive, negative, or zero.

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16
Q

The law of diminishing marginal utility states that:

A

beyond some point additional units of a product will yield less and less extra satisfaction to a consumer.

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17
Q

Suppose that MUx/Px exceeds MUy/Py. To maximize utility the consumer who is spending all her money income should buy:

A

more of X and less of Y.

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18
Q

To the economist total cost includes:

A

explicit and implicit costs, including a normal profit.

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19
Q

Which of the following definitions is correct?

A

Economic profit = accounting profit - implicit costs.

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20
Q

To economists the main difference between the short run and the long run is that:

A

in the long run all resources are variable, while in the short run at least one resource is fixed.

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21
Q

Which of the following best expresses the law of diminishing marginal returns?

A

As successive amounts of one resource (labor) are added to fixed amounts of other resources (property), beyond some point the resulting extra output will decline.

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22
Q

A fixed cost is:

A

any cost which a firm would incur even if output was zero.

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23
Q

Marginal cost is the:

A

change in total cost that results from producing one more unit of output.

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24
Q

Which of the following is correct as it relates to cost curves?

A

Marginal cost intersects average total cost at the latter’s minimum point.

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25
Q

Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of pure competition?

A

considerable nonprice competition

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26
Q

The demand curve in a purely competitive industry is ______, while the demand curve to a single firm in that industry is ______.

A

downsloping, perfectly elastic

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27
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller’s demand curve?

A

Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.

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28
Q

In the short run a purely competitive firm that seeks to maximize profit will produce:

A

where total revenue exceeds total cost by the maximum amount.

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29
Q

The MR = MC rule can be restated for a purely competitive seller as P = MC because:

A

each additional unit of output adds exactly its price to total revenue.

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30
Q

In the short run a purely competitive firm will always make an economic profit if:

A

P > ATC.

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31
Q

Suppose you find that the price of your product is less than minimum AVC. You should:

A

close down because, by producing, your losses will exceed your total fixed costs.

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32
Q

If a purely competitive firm shuts down in the short run:

A

it will realize a loss equal to its total fixed costs.

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33
Q

A purely competitive firm’s short-run supply curve is:

A

upsloping and equal to the portion of the marginal cost curve that lies above the average variable cost curve.

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34
Q

Which of the following conditions is true for a purely competitive firm in long-run equilibrium?

A

P = MC = minimum ATC.

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35
Q

What do economies of scale, the ownership of essential raw materials, and patents have in common?

A

They are all barriers to entry.

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36
Q

A pure monopolist is:

A

a one-firm industry.

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37
Q

Price discrimination refers to:

A

the selling of a given product at different prices that do not reflect cost differences.

38
Q

Which of the following is not a precondition for price discrimination?

A

The commodity involved must be a durable good.

39
Q

If a regulatory commission imposes upon a nondiscriminating natural monopoly a price that is equal to marginal cost and below average total cost at the resulting output, then:

A

the firm must be subsidized or it will go bankrupt.

40
Q

The dilemma of regulation refers to the idea that:

A

the regulated price which achieves allocative efficiency is also likely to result in losses.

41
Q

A decrease in quantity demanded (as distinct from a decrease in demand) is depicted by a:

A

move from point y to point x.

42
Q

A decrease in demand is depicted by a:

A

shift from D2 to D1.

43
Q

If the price of X and Y are $2 and $4 per unit, respectively, and this consumer has $10 in income to spend, to maximize total utility this consumer should buy:

A

1 units of X and 2 units of Y.

44
Q

The total cost of four units of output is:

A

$310.

45
Q

If the firm closed down and produced zero units of output, its total cost would be:

A

$50.

46
Q

By producing output level Q:

A

both productive and allocative efficiency are achieved.

47
Q

The above diagram implies that whenever a firm’s demand curve is downsloping:

A

marginal revenue is less than price.

48
Q

If a monopolist were to produce in the inelastic segment of its demand curve:

A

marginal revenue would be negative.

49
Q

To maximize profits or minimize losses this firm should produce:

A

E units and charge price A.

50
Q

Refer to the above diagram for a pure monopolist. If a regulatory commission seeks to achieve the most efficient allocation of resources to this line of production, it will set a price of:

A

P2.

51
Q

If columns (1) and (3) of the demand data shown above are this firm’s demand schedule, the profit-maximizing level of output will be:

A

8units.

52
Q

Suppose that entry into the industry changes this firm’s demand schedule from columns (1) and (3) shown above to columns (2) and (3). Economic profit will:

A

decline to zero.

53
Q

Which of the above diagrams correctly portray a nondiscriminating pure monopolist’s demand (D) and marginal revenue (MR) curves?

A

B

54
Q

Refer to the above data for a nondiscriminating monopolist. This firm will maximize its profit by producing:

A

4 units.

55
Q

Refer to the above data for a nondiscriminating monopolist. At its profit-maximizing output, this firm’s total profit will be:

A

$82

56
Q

The profit-maximizing output of a pure monopoly is economically inefficient because in equilibrium:

A
57
Q

If the supply and demand curves for a product both decrease, then equilibrium:

A

quantity must decline, but equilibrium price may either rise, fall, or remain unchanged.

58
Q

Refer to the above diagram, which shows demand and supply conditions in the competitive market for product X. Other things equal, a shift of the supply curve from S0 to S1 might be caused by a(n):

A

increase in the wage rates paid to laborers employed in the production of X.

59
Q

The demand for commodity X is represented by the equation P = 10 - 0.2Q and supply by the equation P = 2 + 0.2Q. If demand changed from P = 10 - .2Q to P = 7 - .3Q, the new equilibrium price is:

A

$4.

60
Q

If government set a minimum price of $50 in the above market, a:

A

surplus of 21 units would occur.

61
Q

If the price elasticity of demand for a product is 2.5, then a price cut from $2.00 to $1.80 will:

A

increase the quantity demanded by about 25 percent.

62
Q

Most demand curves are relatively elastic in the upper-left portion because the original price:

A

from which the percentage price change is calculated is large and the original quantity from which the percentage change in quantity is calculated is small.

63
Q

Suppose Al’s Pizzeria currently faces a linear demand curve and is charging a very high price per pizza and doing very little business. Al now decides to lower pizza prices by 5 percent per week for an indefinite period of time. We can expect that each successive week:

A

demand will become less price elastic.

64
Q

Refer to the above data. Total fixed cost is:

A

$50.00.

65
Q

Refer to the above data. The average total cost of five units of output is:

A

$78.

66
Q

Refer to the above data. The total cost of four units of output is:

A

$310.

67
Q

Refer to the above data. If the firm closed down and produced zero units of output, its total cost would be:

A

$50.

68
Q

Refer to the above data. The marginal cost of the fifth unit of output is:

A

$80.

69
Q

Refer to the above data. If the firm decided to increase its output from 6 to 7 units, its total costs would rise by:

A

$120.00.

70
Q

Which of the following is not a basic characteristic of pure competition?

A

considerable nonprice competition

71
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of a purely competitive seller’s demand curve?

A

Price and marginal revenue are equal at all levels of output.

72
Q

Assume the XYZ Corporation is producing 20 units of output. It is selling this output in a purely competitive market at $10 per unit. Its total fixed costs are $100 and its average variable cost is $3 at 20 units of output. This corporation:

A

is realizing an economic profit of $40.

73
Q

Refer to the above data. This firm is selling its output in a(n):

A

purely competitive market.

74
Q

Refer to the above data. If the firm’s minimum average variable cost is $10, the firm’s profit- maximizing level of output would be:

A

3.

75
Q

Refer to the above data. At the profit-maximizing output the firm’s total revenue is:

A

$48.

76
Q

Refer to the above data. At the profit-maximizing output the firm’s total cost is:

A

$32.

77
Q

Refer to the above data. The firm’s:

A

economic profit is $16.

78
Q

A firm finds that at its MR = MC output, its TC = $1000, TVC = $800, TFC = $200, and total revenue is $900. This firm should:

A

produce because the resulting loss is less than its TFC.

79
Q

The lowest point on a purely competitive firm’s short-run supply curve corresponds to:

A

the minimum point on its AVC curve.

80
Q

Refer to the above data. If there were 1,000 identical firms in this industry and total or market demand is as shown below, equilibrium price will be:

A

$36.

81
Q

Refer to the above diagram. The firm will realize an economic profit if price is:

A

P4.

82
Q

Refer to the above diagrams. Firm A is a:

A

pure competitor and Firm B is a pure monopoly.

83
Q

The MR = MC rule:

A

applies both to pure monopoly and pure competition.

84
Q

Which of the following statements is incorrect?

A

A monopolist’s 100 percent market share ensures economic profits.

85
Q

Refer to the above diagram. At the profit-maximizing level of output, the firm will realize:

A

an economic profit of ABHJ.

86
Q
A
87
Q
A
88
Q
A
89
Q
A
90
Q
A
91
Q
A