ECON 111 Mid term multiple choice questions Flashcards

1
Q

Opportunity cost is
A) the highest-values alternative that we give up to get something
B) the value of your favorite activity
C) the marginal benefit from an activity
D) the money you spend on food shelter and clothing

A

A

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2
Q

The relative price of a good is all of the following except
A) the ratio of one price to another.
B) an opportunity cost.
C) the same as the money price of a good.
D) the money price of the good divided by a price index.

A

C

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3
Q

Normal profit is the ____. Normal profit ____ part of a firm’s opportunity cost because ____.
A) return that an entrepreneur can expect to receive on the average; is; it is the cost of a foregone
alternative, which is running another firm
B) profit used by the Canada Revenue Agency to calculate tax owing; is; it includes depreciation
C) profit used by the Canada Revenue Agency to calculate tax owing; is; it is paid in cash
D) return that an entrepreneur can expect to receive on the average; is not; it is not paid in cash

A

A

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4
Q

Which market is an example of a market for services?
A) tennis lessons market
B) orange market
C) energy market
D) manufactured input market

A

A

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5
Q

The short run is a time frame in which
A) the firm is not able to hire more workers.
B) at least one factor of production is fixed.
C) the amount of output produced is fixed.
D) there is a shortage of most factors of production.

A

B

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6
Q

Which of the following statements by a restaurant owner refers to the law of diminishing marginal
returns?
A) “We can serve the same number of meals with fewer kitchen staff, but we would have to buy
more labour-saving kitchen equipment.”
B) “The higher the quality of the ingredients we use, the higher the cost of producing each
meal.
C) “We can serve the same number of meals with less kitchen equipment, but we would have to
hire more kitchen staff.”
D)”We can increase the number of meals we serve by just adding more kitchen staff, but each
additional worker adds less meals than the previous worker because traffic in the kitchen
will get worse.”

A

D

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7
Q

The change in total utility that results from a one-unit increase in the quantity of a good consumed is
A) average utility.
B) marginal utility per dollar.
C) fractional utility.
D) marginal utility.

A

D

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8
Q

Plant refers to those factors of production
A) which can be purchased only in fixed quantity lots.
B) that are fixed in the short run.
C) that must be held in storage for at least one year.
D) that have a decreasing marginal product as more of the factor is used.

A

B

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9
Q

A price elasticity of demand of 2 means that a 10 percent increase in price will result in a
A) 20 percent decrease in quantity demanded.
B) 2 percent increase in quantity demanded.
C) 2 percent decrease in quantity demanded.
D) 5 percent decrease in quantity demanded.

A

A

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10
Q

An indifference curve is
A) a line that shows combinations of goods among which a consumer is indifferent.
B) the boundary between what can be produced and what cannot be produced.
C) the boundary between what a consumer can afford and what he cannot afford.
D) a line with a positive slope.

A

A

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11
Q

Consider the market for housing illustrated in Figure 1 when the demand curve is Do . The
equilibrium in an unregulated market is
A) 1,750 rooms rented at $200 a month.
C) 1,500 rooms rented at $200 a month.
B) 2,000 rooms rented at $150 a month.
D 1,500 rooms rented at $150 a month.

A

D

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12
Q

Refer to Figure 1. If the demand for rental housing increases and the demand curve shifts
rightward from Do to D1, and the market is unregulated, the number of rooms rented is
A) 1,500, and the rent rises to $200 a month.
C) 1,750, and the rent rises to $200 a month.
B) 2,000, and the rent is at its initial level.
D 1,750, and the rent rises to $175 a month.

A

D

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13
Q

Refer to Figure 2. What is the equilibrium wage rate per hour in an unregulated market?
A) $3
B) $2
C) $5
D) $4

A

D

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14
Q

Refer to Figure 2. Suppose a $5 per hour minimum wage is in force. What is the lowest wage per
hour an unemployed person would be willing to accept?
(A)$3
B) $4
C) $5
D) $2

A

A

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15
Q

As more of a good is consumed its
A)marginal utility decreases.
B) marginal utility increases.
C) marginal utility remains unchanged.
D) total utility increases at an increasing rate

A

A

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16
Q

Refer to Figure.3. Rashid buys only books and albums. The figure shows his preferences. When
Rashid chooses the consumption point of 3 books and 2 albums, his marginal rate of substitution is ___.
A 3/2 books per album
B) 0.5 books per album
C)1 book per album
D) 2/3 books per album

A

C

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17
Q

Refer to Figure 3. When Rashid chooses the consumption point of 2 books and 6 albums, his marginal rate of substitution is ____.
A) 2 books per album
C) 1/3 books per album
B) 3 books per album
D) 0.5 books per album

A

D

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18
Q

The implicit rental rate
A) is the firm’s opportunity cost of using the capital it owns.
B) is paid with cash.
C) has two components: economic depreciation and foregone interest.
D both A and C are correct.

A

D

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19
Q

As soon as diminishing returns set in, a firm’s
A) marginal cost decreases.
C) total cost decreases.
B) marginal cost increases.
D) average fixed cost decreases.

A

B

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20
Q

Refer to Figure 4 which illustrates Tania’s total product curve. Which one of the following statements is false?
A) All the points below the curve are inefficient.
B) The cost of producing at point B equals the cost of producing at point C.
C) All the points on the curve are attainable.
D) All the points above the curve are unattainable.

A

B

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21
Q

If ATC is falling, then MC must be
A) equal to ATC.
B) falling.
C) above ATC.
D) below ATC.

A

D

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22
Q

Marginal cost equals
A) Q/TVC
B) Q/TVC
C) TriangleTC/TriangleQ
D) TriangleTFC/TriangleTC

A

C

23
Q

Refer to Figure 5, which illustrates short-run average and marginal cost curves. Which one of the following statements is false?
A) Line B comes closer to line C as output increases because of a decrease in average fixed cost.
B The vertical gap between curves B and C is equal to average variable cost.
C) Curve D is the marginal cost curve.
D) Average fixed cost decreases with output.

A

B

24
Q

Refer to Figure 5, which illustrates the short-run average and marginal cost curves. The average variable cost curve is curve
A) A
B) B
C) C
D) D

A

B

25
Q

If constant returns to scale are present
A) the LRAC curve is downward sloping.
B) average total cost is decreasing.
C) the LRAC curve is upward sloping.
D) the LRAC curve is horizontal.

A

D

26
Q

The range over which average variable cost is decreasing is the same as the range over which.
A) average product is increasing.
B) marginal product is decreasing.
C) marginal cost is increasing.
D) average fixed cost is decreasing.

A

A

27
Q

The MC curve shifts upward if
A) more workers are hired.
B) factor prices rise.
C) a new technology is introduced.
D) all of the above.

A

B

28
Q

The demand curve for a good is the same as the
A) consumer surplus curve of that good.
B) marginal benefit curve for that good.
C) marginal cost curve of that good.
D) production possibilities frontier (PPF).

A

B

29
Q

Refer to Figure 6, which illustrates the long-run average total cost curve. Which one of the
following statements is false?
A) Diseconomies of scale exist at quantities greater than Q2 units of output.
B) Constant returns to scale exist between Q0 and Q1 units of output.
C) Diseconomies of scale exist between 0 and Q1 units of output.
D) Economies of scale exist between 0 and Q0 units of output.

A

C

30
Q

Refer to Figure 6, which illustrates the long-run average total cost curve. Given an increase in
output from Q1 to Q2,
A) average total cost is increasing.
B) constant returns to scale exist.
C) economies of scale exist.
D) diseconomies of scale exist.

A

C

31
Q

According to the marginal principle (and the rational rule), economic surplus is maximized when
A. total cost equals total benefit.
B. average cost equals average benefit.
C. marginal cost equals marginal benefit.
D. producers make as much as possible.

A

C

32
Q

The individual demand curve follows the law of demand. This means which one of the following?
A. When the price of the good rises, its quantity demanded rises.
B. When the price of the good falls, its quantity demanded rises.
C. When the price of the good falls, its quantity demanded remains the same.
D. There is no relationship between the price of the good and its quantity demanded.

A

B

33
Q

Suppose your marginal benefit of your first cup of coffee is $4, of your second is $3, and of your third
is $2. If the price of coffee is $5, how many cups of coffee will you buy?
A. 0 cups
B. 1 cup
C. 2 cups
D. 3 cups

A

A

34
Q

Suppose you and your 99 classmates all have identical marginal benefits for coffee: the marginal
benefit of the first cup is $4, of the second is $3, and of the third is $2. If the price of coffee is $2,
what is the quantity demanded in the market?
A. 300 cups
B. 200 cups
C. 100 cups
D. 0 cups

A

A

35
Q

Which one of the following pairs lists goods that are NOT substitutes?
A. hamburger and veggie burger
B. pen and pencil
C. bus and train
D. car and gas

A

D

36
Q

Which of the following would change market demand curves without shifting individual demand
curves?
A. the number of buyers
B. buyers’ beliefs about the future
C. the income of buyers
D. the preferences of buyers

A

A

37
Q

Which of the following would decrease the quantity demanded (move along the demand curve)?
A. an increase in the price of a complement
B. an increase in the number of buyers
C. an increase in the expected future price
D. an increase in the current price

A

D

38
Q

Suppose that when the price is $10, a deli is willing to sell 200 sandwiches. If the price falls to $8, how
many sandwiches would the deli be willing to sell?
A. 400
B. 300
C. 200
D. 100

A

D

39
Q

Suppose a shoe store has fixed costs of $100. Its marginal cost for the first pair of shoes is $10, for the
second is $20, and for the third is $30. How many shoes will it supply if the price is $30?
A. three pairs
B. two pairs
C. one pair
D. zero pairs

A

A

40
Q

Suppose the shoe store from the previous question is one of 100 identical shoe stores. What is the
market quantity supplied if the price is $20? Remember that the marginal cost for the first pair of
shoes is $10, for the second pair is $20, and for the third pair is $30.
A. 300 pairs
B. 200 pairs
C. 100 pairs
D. 2 pairs

A

B

41
Q

Which of the following would cause an increase in supply?
A. The number of sellers falls.
B. The profit of a substitute-in-production rises.
C. The input prices fall.
D. The expected price next year rises.

A

C

42
Q

You own and operate a trendy burger joint. You notice that instead of charging $15 for your basic
burger, you can charge $18. What’s going to happen to your supply of basic burgers?
A. Your supply of burgers shifts to the right.
B. Your supply of burgers remains the same.
C. Your quantity supplied of burgers increases.
D. Your supply of burgers shifts to the left. Who’s going to pay that much for a burger?

A

C

43
Q

Which of the following scenarios depicts a market with a shortage of the good being purchased and
sold?
A. Cody owns a bakery. At the end of the day, he still has more than a dozen blueberry muffins left,
so he donates them to a local food pantry.
B. Jordan goes to DSW to purchase new running shoes. Because the shoes are on sale, she buys the
same pair for her sister.
C. Mia goes online to preorder a new phone but discovers that the phone was sold out an hour ago.
D. Austin goes to purchase concert tickets for himself and a friend. He gets a discount because there

A

C

44
Q

Suppose that the price of a good rises by 20%, causing the quantity demanded to fall by 5%. What is
the value of the price elasticity of demand?
A. 4
B. 0.25
C. −0.25
D. −4

A

B

45
Q

When the price of shoes falls from $50 to $40, the quantity demanded rises from 100 to 110. Using
the midpoint method, what is the value of the price elasticity of demand?
A. 2.32
B. - 0.43
C. 0.5
D. 0.43

A

D

46
Q

Suppose that you and all of your classmates become economics tutors (so there are many
substitutes). If you want to increase your revenue, should you increase or decrease your price?
A. Increase price because demand is elastic.
B. Increase price because demand is inelastic.
C. Decrease price because demand is elastic.
D. Decrease price because demand is inelastic.

A

C

47
Q

When the price of hamburgers increased by 10%, the quantity of hot dogs sold increased by 20%.
What is the cross-price elasticity of demand for hot dogs? Are hot dogs and hamburgers substitutes or
complements?
A. 0.5; substitutes
B. 0.5; complements
C. 2; substitutes
D. 2; complements

A

C

48
Q

Suppose incomes rise by 10% and the quantity of fast food purchased rises by 15%. What is the
income elasticity of demand? Is fast food a normal or inferior good?
A. 1.5; normal
B. −1.5; inferior
C. 0.67; normal
D. − 0.67; inferior

A

A

49
Q

Suppose that when the price of t-shirts rises from $10 to $15, the quantity suppliers are willing to sell
rises from 200 to 250. Using the midpoint formula, what is the price elasticity of supply?
A. 1.8; elastic
B. 1.67; elastic
C. 0.6; inelastic
D. 0.56; inelastic

A

D

50
Q

Suppose that the demand for candy is less elastic than the supply of candy. If a tax is imposed on
sellers of candy, which of the following is true?
A. Sellers will bear all of the tax burden.
B. Sellers will bear a larger share of the tax burden since the tax is imposed on them.
C. Sellers will bear a smaller share of the tax burden because supply is more elastic than demand.
D. Sellers will bear none of the tax burden.

A

C

51
Q

Reading this textbook will require time. The time you will spend could have been spent on other activities, such as studying for another exam or spending time with
friends

A

Opportunity Cost Principle

52
Q

Ultimately, your decision to read this textbook will be determined by the benefits you receive and the costs you incur.

A

Cost-Benefit Principle

53
Q

This is an example of dependencies through time. Decisions that you make today, in this case, the decision to read this textbook, will have implications for outcomes in
the future.

A

Interdependence Principle

54
Q

The decision to read this textbook can be broken up into a “how many” question.

A

Marginal Principle