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ECO > ECO Block 3 > Flashcards

ECO Block 3 Flashcards

1
Q

How many bands does EMSS search frequency spectrum? What are they?

A

Low, medium, high // 5 , 30 , 100 MHz

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2
Q

How many antennas are there per each quadrant?

A

5

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3
Q

What are ARFPs and how many are there?

A

Antenna radio frequency processors. They convert the RF signals received and produce phase and trigger Intermediate Frequency signals for processing. 6 total, 2 on each cheek. One for low and one for med/high on side.

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4
Q

What are the electronics racks and how many are there? What does each one consist of?

A

2, Foward one supports forward and side quadrants and aft is for the aft quadrant.

Aft contains frequency synthesizer, Intermediate frequency switch and intermediate frequency processor.

Forward contains local oscillator distribution unit in addition to all above.

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5
Q

What is the FS and what does it do?

A

Frequency synthesizer, generates the oscillator signal to implement the superheterodyne tuning technique. FS tunes to frequency commanded by software

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6
Q

What is the IF switch and what does it do?

A

Intermediate frequency switch, it provides amplification of the down converted signal from the ARFP. Signal is processed through a bandpass filter to select one of the 3 bandwidths.

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7
Q

What is the IFP and what does it do?

A

Intermediate frequency processor, has receiver circuitry for detecting pulse energy and measuring the freq, angle, pw and strength. Those are then digitized and transferred to the IU (interface unit)

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8
Q

What is the LOD and what does it do?

A

Local oscillator distribution unit, only in forward equipment. It distributes the oscillator signal from forward FS to the port, forward and starboard ARFPs on a/c.

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9
Q

What is the E51 cabinet and what does it do? What are the pieces in it?

A

Main cabinet for ESMS, houses display panel, power supply, IU and main processor. Display has power switch and switch to initiate the diagnostic program

Components are IU, CP and AFROM.

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10
Q

What does the IU do?

A

Receives the digitized pulses, appends time of intercept and routes digitized pulse to the CP for further processing. Routes messages to and from CP. Tells CPS to accept ESMOCP download.

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11
Q

What does CP do?

A

The computer processor provides data processing for the ESM sub system. CP performs the processing that analyzes and classifies the received data, maintains electronic data file of all emitters currently being received (AEF) and performs the identification.

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12
Q

What does the AFROM do?

A

Air frame read only memory is used to store alignment info for each ARFP wrt E-3 airframe. That info is used when transforming the emitter reports angle of arrival to a north oriented bearing.

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13
Q

Where are the circuit breakers?

A

p67 panel, control power supply

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14
Q

What is ESMG data destruct switch?

A

Clears memory of ESM computer. located at seat 13. Hold switch for at least 5 seconds to ensure complete.

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15
Q

what is CDMT ESMG controls

A

panel that houses cooling indicators and switch to control power supply to ESMS at CDMT position.

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16
Q

How is SCT set up?

A

starting point is the SRT .In 5 MHz buckets covering entire PDS spectrum 500-18000 MHz. Each bucket contains: initial dwell, ext dwell, band width, revisit count and FRU retrigger.

Next, system looks at PDS scan req TD. Then SCT is built. SCT determines the actual dwells needed to satisfy all the requirements in SRT.

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17
Q

What are some reasons we may not detect emitter?

A
  • unit may not be radiating or not radiating in our direction
  • Out of freq range
  • signal too weak to detect (seen as noise)
  • may not be listening in the portion of spectrum emitter is emitting.
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18
Q

What are the 3 methods system can use to determine the location of an emitter?

A

Triangulation, self-passive tracking, and cooperative-passive tracking.

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19
Q

What is triangulation?

A

Triangulates on a position through accurate measurement of the change in direction of arrival.

Efficient and quick.

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20
Q

What is quickest flight path to get measurements of emitter?

A

A perpendicular flight path to bearing of emitter.

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21
Q

What is the accuracy of a position determined by triangulation called?

A

CEP, circular error probable. Smallest ellipse will be with perpendicular E3 orbit to direction of arrival of signal.

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22
Q

The ESM database is composed of what 2 databases?

A

ODB and SLIK.

ODB - ELF, PLF, and TSF

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23
Q

What makes up the database files?

A

ELF, PLF, TSF and SLIK and search strategy

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24
Q

How many associated emitters can each platform in the library have?

A

25 Max

25
Q

What is ELF?

A

Emitter library file, collection of data on all emitters that might be detected during a particular mission

26
Q

What is TSF

A

Tactical site file, file of parameters of ground based sites that might be encountered during particular mission. Position and parameters are known.

27
Q

What is AEF?

A

Active emitter file, collection of emitters that are currently being detected?

28
Q

What does the SCT establish?

A

Search strategy and Id’s freqs to be scanned

29
Q

When an emitter is detected, an AEF report is created, what is the parametric data first matched to.

A

ELF

30
Q

What is file of known emitter locations called?

A

TSF

31
Q

After emitter id, where does ESMS check for the platform ID

A

PLF

32
Q

What libraries are stored in ESMS database?

A

ELF, PLF, TSF

33
Q

The hierarchies are divided into what two maj elements?

A

Emitter and Platform

34
Q

How many nodes or children can be immediately under a parent?

A

20

35
Q

What is max lvl of hierarchy?

A

7

36
Q

What would the code PGHMG stand for?

A

Platform ground hostile missile guidance

37
Q

of the ELF, PLF and TSF which can be updated during mission planning

A

All

38
Q

Which ones can be updated in the air?

A

All

39
Q

What is a restriction of the AOCP in regards to loading programs?

A

AOCP can load only one system at a time, must coordinate with MCC before initiating

40
Q

Why must you be careful with the sensor mode control switch action?

A

It is the SA used by ASO to control radar and IFF, you could place another system in standby or turn it off.

41
Q

What mode does ESMS go into following successful load of the SCT?

A

Standby mode

42
Q

If load is unsuccessful, what are the actions?

A

Reinitiate download or work with CDMT.

43
Q

What actions are required before you can download ESMOCP software?

A

CDMT reports ESM is powered on ,ESM download coordinated by MCC with ECO and ASO, no other subsystem is accessing the RMA and E51 is powered up.

44
Q

What is effect of adjusting frequency min/max in scan req TD?

A

Identifies the portion of spectrum where additonal scan requirements will be applied

45
Q

What is effect of adjusting freq revisit count in SR TD?

A

Establishes how often this part of the spectrum is to be searched within a single pass of an SCT

46
Q

What is effect of adjusting initial dwell time?

A

The time needed to get single pulse, if it isn’t long enough it may cause emitter to be missed

47
Q

What is effect of adjusting extended dwell time?

A

The min time that the ESMS will sit on a freq waiting to detect add’l pulses beyond the first pulse. If not long enough, the system may not have enough time to detect add’l pulses to ID emitter. Input may not have effect if parameters in the ELF are longer.

48
Q

What is effect of adjusting bandwidth?

A

Identifies the bw that will be looked at. If too many small bandwidths are requested, cycle time will go up.

49
Q

What is effect of adjusting the frequency resolution unit?

A

Enables the sampling of detected frequency within a pulse to detect some kinds of emitter modulation types.

50
Q

What happens if you set freq sensitivity to less than default?

A

It directly reduces range of detected of the system.

51
Q

When do you need to force a recalculation of the scan control table?

A

-After adjusting parameters in the PDS scan req TD
and the EMI control TD

  • excluding/including a platform, emitter or hierarchy
  • adding an emitter to library.
52
Q

What determines how long the system dwell in a certain bucket?

A

The emitter with the longest PRI in that bucket

53
Q

What is default initial dwell?

A

1.1 times the longest PRI in that scan bucket

54
Q

What does the PDS emitter bearing/triangulation SD display?

A

Fixes and lines of bearing , provides location data

55
Q

What 2 ID environments will be forced on your SD?

A

Missile or Threat

56
Q

T or F, when you bring up the bearing wedge TD, it will have the values in the PDS console defaults TD

A

True

57
Q

What is the color of the red/blue conflict LOB? Unknown/Neutral?

A

Blue / Amber

58
Q

Why is it a good idea to used the frequency priority feature on the ring/highlight TD?

A

Setting the priority to at least, or greater than your pds bearing wedge td, allows you to open up the unknowns.

ECO (3 decks)

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