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EAWS Test Flashcards

0
Q

Who’s is the Drug/Alcohol Program Advisor (DAPA) on board USS ESSEX?

A

ISCS Stanton

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1
Q

Whois the Enlisted Advisor to the command on the formulation and implementation of polices pertinent to morale, welfare, job satisfaction, discipline, of all enlisted personnel?

A

Command Master Chief

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2
Q

True or false: Prevent Elevation is an objective of first aid.

A

False

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3
Q

What are 4 methods to control bleeding?

A
  1. ) Direct Pressure
  2. ) Elevation
  3. ) Pressure Points
  4. ) Tourniquet
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4
Q

What classification of burn causes red, blistered skin and severe pain?

A

Second Degree

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5
Q

What are the 2 types of heat injuries?

A
  1. ) Heat Stroke

2. ) Heat Exhaustion

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6
Q

What are the steps for CPR?

A

C.irculation
A.irway
B.reathing

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7
Q

How far away from the injury do you apply the tourniquet?

A

2-3 inches from the wound

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8
Q

How many pressure points are on the body?

A

22

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9
Q

Which ORM process is to eliminate hazards or reduce the degree of risk; engineering controls, admin controls, and personnel protective equipment?

A

Implement Controls.

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10
Q

Under the Naval Safety Program. What is the material property damage of mishap class B?

A

500,000 but less than 2 million

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11
Q

What are some types of PPE utilized in Naval Aviation?

A

Eye protection
Impact protection
Foot protection

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12
Q

What chemical warfare agent is liquid or solid that can cause inflammation, blisters, and general destruction of tissues which often result in temporary blindness or death?

A

Blister agent

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13
Q

What chemical warfare agent is gaseous that attacks the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream?

A

Blood agent

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14
Q

The MCU-2P protective mask uses what type of canister filter?

A

C2

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15
Q

In regards to radiological warfare, what is an air burst?

A

Fireball does not reach surface. The vacuum created collects debris caused by the severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout

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16
Q

What Mission Oriented Protective Posture (MOPP), decon supply staged at?

A

MOPP Level 2

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17
Q

What color jersey does an Aircraft Maintenance Personnel, Helicopter Landing Signal Enlisted man, and Photographers wear?

A

Green

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18
Q

What is the role of the yellow jersey on the flight deck/ Hangar bay?

A

Plane director

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19
Q

True of False: Windshield static grounding is necessary because during flight a high voltage 100,000 volts static discharge may build up and be stored in the windshield?

A

True

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20
Q

How many tie down chains are used during normal weather?

A

9

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21
Q

Which DEFCON condition is Increased in force readiness above normal?

A

3

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22
Q

In regards to NAMP, How long is a daily inspection good for?

A

72hrs

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23
Q

What maintenance personnel is assigned to Quality Assurance (QA)

A

QAR

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24
Q

What is not a type of audit QA performs?

A

Technical

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25
Q

What year was NATOPS established?

A

1961

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26
Q

According to NATOPS, what does “note” mean?

A

Identifies something that requires emphasis or special attention

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27
Q

According to NATOPS, what does “shall” mean?

A

Procedure is mandatory

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28
Q

According to NATOPS, what does “should” mean?

A

Procedure is recommended

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29
Q

According to NATOPS, the identification system for naval aircraft COMNAVAIRPAC the first character shall be_________; second character is_________?

A
  1. ) N-Z

2. ) A-Z

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30
Q

What year was the Navy’s first carrier USS Langley (CV-1) commissioned?

A

20 March 1922

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31
Q

What historical significance happened 3-5 June 1942?

A

Midway

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32
Q

What historical significance happend 13-15 November 1942

A

Guadalcanal

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33
Q

The first Navy jet that made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer (CV-21) is?

A

FJ-1 Fury

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34
Q

What year was the Essex’s “KEEL” laid?

A

March 20, 1989

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35
Q

According to the Physics of Flight. The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time is?

A

Speed

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36
Q

What is Newton’s First Law of Motion?

A

Inertia

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37
Q

What is Newton’s Third Law of Motion?

A

Action & Reaction

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38
Q

Which axis is an imaginary reference line running down the center of the aircraft between the nose and the tail?

A

Longitudinal axis

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39
Q

Which axis is an imaginary reference line running parallel to the wings?

A

Lateral axis

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40
Q

At the Organizational level, OOMA resides on a computer server referee to as the________ tier?

A

Foundation

41
Q

How many characters are in a Job Control Number (JCN)?

42
Q

How long does the completed and approved Automated Aircraft Discrepancy Book (AABD) remain in OOMA?

A

10 flights

43
Q

In regards to OOMA. What is a número or alpha numeric code that identifies the system or subsystem of the malfunction?

A

Work Unit Code

44
Q

What aircraft has a primary mission of anti submarine and anti surface warfare, and secondary roles of logistics and rescue?

A

Helicopter Maritime Strike (HSM)

45
Q

What aircraft has a primary mission providing basic and advanced training of student Naval Aviators in rotary aircraft?

A

Helicopter Training (HT)

46
Q

The largest hangar bays in the fleet are on aircraft carriers. How long are they?

47
Q

Which division is responsible for handling of all aircraft on the flight deck?

48
Q

Which division is responsible for handling of all aircraft in the hangar bay?

49
Q

Who exercises overall supervision of the handling of embarked aircraft on the flight deck and hangar bay?

A

Aircraft Handling Officer

50
Q

What flight deck status light color is Rotor engagement / AV-8 run up?

51
Q

What flight deck status light color is “HERO”

52
Q

How many tie down chains are required for a Permanent tie down for an AV-8?

53
Q

True or False: EOD team members wear a cranial with 2 orange stripes?

54
Q

The A/S 32-P25 tank capacity of water is________, _________ of AFFF?

A

750 gallons

60 gallons

55
Q

Aviation Fuels division is broken into 3 separate parts, what is not a part of there division?

A

Production Control

56
Q

The Final Controller is responsible for controlling aircraft on the final approach until the pilot reports?

57
Q

Who is responsible for the control of aircraft conducting ship-to-shore movement of troops, supplies and air support during an amphibious assault?

A

Assault Controller

58
Q

What type of Case launches/recovers for helicopters is 500 ceiling/ 1 nautical mile visibility?

59
Q

This 2D radar system is used by the Air Traffic controllers to Marshall and vector aircrafts?

60
Q

What work center is not apart of AIMD IM-1 division?

61
Q

What level of maintenance is responsible for the daily maintenance, upkeep, and servicing of aircraft and their systems?

A

Organizational

62
Q

Who establishes overall standards of the Naval Aviation Maintenance Program?

63
Q

Which rate maintains service, adjusts, and replaces aircraft engines and accessories?

64
Q

True or False: Illustrated Parts Breakdown contains instructions for O-levels, I-level, or D-level maintenance and servicing of a specific weapons system and relegated airborne equipment, including SE?

65
Q

What are the following components of a basic hydraulic system?

A

Reservoir
Pump
Selector Valve
Actuator

66
Q

What are the following components of a jet engine?

A 
Intake
Compression
Combustion
Turbine
Exhaust
67
Q

The “PR” acronym stands for?

A

Aircrew Survival Equipmentman

68
Q

True or False: A circuit breaker is “blown” when excess current flows through them?

69
Q

In regards to the following avionics terms. The force that moves electrons through a conductor is?

70
Q

The purpose of the following statement. Self propelled objects that are unable to alter their their direction of flight is?

71
Q

The mobile electronic power plant provides what type of voltage AC & DC?

A

115VAC / 28VDC

72
Q

What is not a part of the Supply Response Section?

73
Q

Which is not a part of the Component Control Section (CCS)?

74
Q

How many numbers are in an NSN?

75
Q

What does the acronym AMMRL stand for?

A

Aviation Maintenance Material Readiness List

76
Q

Which weapons division is in charge of Magazines / Bomb Assembly?

77
Q

Which surface search radar is used for surface search surveillance and low flying aircraft?

78
Q

What is the MAX range of the CIWS?

79
Q

What type of missile does the NATO Seasparrow Missile System use?

80
Q

How many missiles does the NATO Sea Sparrow System hold?

81
Q

What does the acronym AIM stand for

A

Air-Launched, Aerial-Intercept, Guided-Missile

82
Q

What does the acronym AGM stand for?

A

Air-Launched, Surface Attack, Guided Missile

83
Q

How many weapons elevators are on board Essex?

84
Q

State the purpose of the color-coding in regards to ammunition Incendiary ammunition is what color?

85
Q

State the purpose of the color-coding in regards to ammunition. Illuminating ammunition, or ammunition that produces a colored light is what color?

86
Q

Which missile is a laser guided, rocket propelled, air-to-ground missile designed for use against fortified ground installations, armored vehicles, and surface combatants?

87
Q

What is acceleration?

A

The rate of change of the speed and or velocity of matter with time

88
Q

What is speed?

A

The rate of movement in terms of distance measured in an allotted amount of time

89
Q

What is velocity?

A

The quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

90
Q

Lift is accomplished by the difference in the_________ across the __________?

A

Airflow

Airfoil

91
Q

Ailerons cause aircrafts to _____ on the ______ axis?

A

Roll

Longitudinal

92
Q

Elevators cause aircraft to ______ on the ______ axis?

A

Pitch

Lateral

93
Q

Rudders cause the aircraft to _______ on the _______ axis?

A

Yaw

Vertical

94
Q

How many LCU’s can we hold?

95
Q

How many LCACs can we hold?

96
Q

What is not a part of an OPTASK Amphibious message?

A

Flight Plan

97
Q

All the following sign the air plan Except?

A

Air Traffic Controller

98
Q

What does the acronym TACAN stand for?

A

Tactical Air Navigation

99
Q

Who on board is the Command EAWS Coordinator?

A

AOC Harris

EAWS Study Material (1 decks)

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