Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EAWS > EAWS > Flashcards

EAWS Flashcards

1
Q

state the overall aircraft dimensions of the P-8A.

A

wingspan - 123’6”
length - 129’6”
height - 42’9”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

define the P-8A safety diamond.

A

Nose, wing, tail, wing and back to the nose.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what primary material is used on the nose radome?

A

fiberglass.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

state the primary flight control surfaces.

A

ailerons, elevators, rudder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what indication is given by the stall warning system?

A

the control column shakes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

state the purpose of the anitskid/autobrake system.

A

prevent the brakes from locking and aircraft skid.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what method is used to de-ice the raked wingtips?

A

electro-magnetic expulsive.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

state the purpose of flight deck window heat.

A

prevent ice and fog, increase impact strength.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

state the purpose of the section 48 access and blowout door.

A

access to section 48 components.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

which lights should be flashing while the engines are running?

A

anti-collision lights.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

state the nomenclature of the P-8A engine

A

cfm56-7b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

state the amount of thrust the P-8A engine produces.

A

27,300 lbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

state the purpose of the low pressure compressor.

A

increase speed of air through the engine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

state the purpose of the high pressure compressor.

A

increase pressure to the combustion chamber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

state the purpose of the APU.

A

provides bleed air, electrical power and pneumatic power.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

state the purpose of the IDG oil cooler.

A

a heat exchanger which uses engine fuel to cool IDG oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

the ignition system is utilized at what time?

A

engine start, take off and landing, in-flight start, in-flight bad weather.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what are the two components in the fuel pump assembly?

A

pump and filter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

which fuel tank usually supplies fuel to the APU?

A

main 1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

list the P-8A tank groups.

A

M1, M2, CTR, FWD and AFT.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

state the total fuel capacity of the P-8A.

A

10,856 gallons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

state the purpose of the OBIGGS system.

A

provides NEA to the tanks and form of fuel transfer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

which tank cells comprise the forward tank group?

A

4, 5, and 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

which tank cells comprise the aft tank group?

A

7, 8, 9 and 10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

the fuel temperature indicating system measures fuel temperature in which fuel tanks?

A

M1, M2 and center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

describe the interaction between the IDG oil and the engine feed fuel flow.

A

heat exchangers use engine fuel to cool IDG oil.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

the pneumatic system supplies pressurized air to which systems?

A

engine starts, air conditioning, inlet cowl anti-ice, water tanks, hydraulics, and wing thermal anti-ice.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

state the sources of pneumatic power.

A

engines, APU and external.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

state the maximum allowable altitude.

A

8,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

state the purpose of the cabin pressure relief system.

A

prevent from over pressurization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

the oxygen system supplies 19 persons oxygen for a minimum of how many minutes?

A

25

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

state pascals law.

A

pressurized liquid within a container will move undiminished in all directions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

name the hydraulic fluid utilized in the P-8A.

A

skydrol.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

state the 3 independent hydraulic systems.

A

a, b and standby.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the sources of power for the main hydraulic systems?

A

a and b

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

which systems does the standby hydraulic system supply alternate hydraulic pressure to?

A

thrust reversers, leading edge slats and flaps, the rudder.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

name the systems which receive pressurized fluid from the main and auxiliary hydraulic systems?

A

thrust reversers, PTU, landing gear, nose steering, main brakes, primary and secondary flight controls, uarrsi, weapons bay doors and hydraulic pressure indicating system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

state the 3 subsystems of the water and waste removal.

A

potable water, air supply, and waste disposal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

potable water is supplied to what areas?

A

lavatory and galley.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

the waste disposal system removes waste from what areas?

A

lavatory, galley and door sill drains.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what conditions are monitored by the fire protection system?

A

engine overheat, engine fire detection, APU fire detection, wheel well fire detection and wing/body overheat detection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what indications are received in the flight compartment when an APU or engine fire/overheat is detected?

A

master warning, cms, warning bell and APU light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what gas is utilized for extinguishing a fire in the engine compartment?

A

halon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what type of portable fire extinguishers are utilized inside the aircraft?

A

halon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

state the purpose of DBFPS.

A

sense and suppress fire within the dry bay areas of the aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

state the purpose of the vapor purge systems.

A

aux tank leak detection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

what effects can electrical shock have on the human body?

A

disrupt electrical functions, heart and lung failure, injury or death.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

state the two types of voltage.

A

AC and DC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

name the sources of AC power on the aircraft.

A

IDGs, APU generator, external power and static inverter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

name the sources of DC power on the aircraft.

A

batteries and transformer rectifier units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is the unit of measure for electrical current?

A

amperes (amps)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

define resistance.

A

opposition (ohms)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

define ohms law.

A

the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage between 2 points.
voltage = current x resistance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

define frequency.

A

complete alternations per second in AC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

define electrical bus.

A

central point which distributes voltage.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

define circuit breaker.

A

over current protection which can be reset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

define fuse.

A

over current protection which cannot be reset.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

define relay.

A

electrically activated switch which controls distribution.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

state the output of the IDGs.

A

180 KVA, 115 VAC, 522 AMPs, 400hz and 3 phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

state the two batteries utilized on the aircraft.

A

main and auxiliary.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

state the purpose of the transformer rectifier units.

A

convert 115 VAC/400hz to 28 VDC.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

how long will the main and aux batteries provide power after the loss of all AC power?

A

30 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

state the purpose of the mach airspeed warning system.

A

overspeed alert in flight station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

state the two primary functions of the air data inertial reference system.

A

airspeed and barometric pressure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what information is displayed on the pilots heads-up display?

A

pitch, roll, artificial horizon, heading, altitude, airspeed, flight path and flight path acceleration.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

state the purpose of the traffic alert and collision avoidance system.

A

safe air traffic seperation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what 3 functions does the flight management computer system perform?

A

navigation, performance and guidance.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

state the purpose of the static discharger.

A

decrease radio receiver interference.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

state the nomenclature of the P-8A radar.

A

APY-10

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

state the purpose of the early warning and self protection system.

A

defense against radar and infrared guided weapons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

state the purpose of the ALE-47 counter measures dispensing system.

A

expendable weapon decoys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what is the sms and what is its purpose?

A

stores management system. release, carry and control of weapon stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

what is the stores management computer?

A

central control point for weapon stores.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

what is the stores management weapons control panel?

A

controls the release of buoys, jettison and weapons bay door.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what is the stores management MCDS - ordnance panel?

A

controls the SMS and provides human interface in the flight station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what is the stores management control wheel release switch?

A

the pilot/co-pilot weapon release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what is the APS and what is its primary function?

A

aft pneumatic system. pressurizes SLS for buoy launch.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what are the components of the weapons bay stores system and what do they provide?

A

bomb rack units and APS.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what is the SLS?

A

sonobuoy launch system.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what is the SCU?

A

interface between SMS and weapons bay.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what is the SRL?

A

holds and launches buoys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the SSL?

A

individual launch of buoys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is the SLT?

A

sonobuoys launch tube.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the gate valve?

A

prevents the loss of aircraft pressure when launching buoys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the away sensor?

A

monitors buoy release.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what is the storage rack?

A

holds 48 buoys.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what is the free fall shoot?

A

ability to drop buoys without pressurization.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what is the purpose of the wing pylon and where are they located?

A

secure bomb rack units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

where are the forward fuselage stores and how do they function?

A

forward of the engines, underneath the fuselage. operated with bomb rack units.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

kill stores consist of what items?

A

torpedos, mines, bombs, rockets and missiles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what are the characteristics of an AGM?

A

all weather anti-ship missile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the characteristics of an ATM?

A

air training missile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what are the characteristics of a CATM?

A

captive air training missile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what are the characteristics of DATM?

A

dummy air training missile.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the mines carried by the P-8A?

A

mk65 (2000lb influence actuated) mk56 (2000lb magnetic, pressure influenced) mk62 (500lb influence actuated) mk63 (1000lb influence actuated)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what torpedo is carried by the P-8A?

A

mk64 (lightweight, variable speed)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what survival equipment is on the P-8A?

A

life vests, (2) 12 man rafts, (1) crash axe, (19 fixed oxygen, (5) portable oxygen, (1) mini oxygen, (2) first aid kits, (6) fire extinguishers, (21) suits, (1) destruct kit.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

how many internal fire extinguishers?

A

6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

how many external fire extinguishers?

A

(2) engines, (1) APU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

how many DBFPS extinguishers?

A

(12) FPCUs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

where is cargo loaded and in what configuration?

A

aft of the wine racks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

what are the two types of life preservers for passengers, what do they contain.

A

whistle, dye marker, chemical light.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what is an MC?

A

mission commander. responsible for all aspect of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what is a TACCO?

A

tactical coordinator. responsible for mission crew members.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what is a COTAC?

A

assists the TACCO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is an AAW?

A

acoustic air warfare operator. mission audio and reconstruction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is an EWO?

A

electronic warfare operator. responsible for radar, EOIR operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what is a PPC?

A

patrol plane commander.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what is a 2P?

A

NATOP pilot, responsible for safe flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

what is a 3P?

A

can pilot, co-pilot, pilot flying, pilot monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

what is a pilot?

A

left seat of flight station.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

what is a co-pilot?

A

right seat, assists pilot.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what is a PF?

A

pilot flying.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what is a PM?

A

pilot monitoring.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

what is an observer?

A

observes safety of flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

what is an ordnance qualified crew member?

A

responsible for mission stores in-flight.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

state the purpose of SORM.

A

standard organization and regulations manual. 3120.32

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

discuss the dual chain of command.

A

operational is through the commander in chief, administrative is through the secretary of the navy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is a unified chain of command?

A

2 or more elements with one common goal.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

what are fleet commanders?

A

lead Pacific, Atlantic and Euro fleets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

what are task force commanders?

A

divides a fleet into smaller force elements.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what are task unit commanders?

A

divides forces into specific tasks.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what is the SECNAV?

A

responsible for policies, organization, admin and operation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

what is the CNO?

A

most senior navy official.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

what is a fleet commander in chief?

A

responsible for specific fleets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

what is a naval airforce commander?

A

responsible for air operations within specific fleets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what is a functional wing commander?

A

responsible for readiness, training and inspection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what is a type wing commander?

A

coordinates the NAMP.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

what is a CO?

A

commanding officer, responsible for squadron.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what is an XO?

A

directly responsible to the CO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what is a CMC?

A

senior enlisted advisor to the CO and XO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what is a department head?

A

ie. MO, OPSO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what is a CMEO?

A

Equal opportunity within the command.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what is a division officer?

A

reports directly to the department head.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what is an LPO?

A

directly responsible for overall workcenter.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what is a work center supervisor?

A

responsible to all matters with in the work center, reports to LPO.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what is a CACO?

A

casualty assistance and calls officer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what is SAPR?

A

sexual assault prevention and response.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what is ombudsman?

A

link between families and the command?

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

what is a DAPA?

A

drug and alcohol prevention advisor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

what is a CCC?

A

command career counsilor.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what is an OPREP?

A

operational report, deals with unauthorized detonation of nuclear weapons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

what is a MOVEREP?

A

movement report, reports locations and destinations of ships.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what is a LOGREG?

A

logistics request, 48hr prior to entering port.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what is SORTS?

A

report of conditions of readiness.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

what is a SITREP?

A

situational report.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

what is an ROC?

A

required operational capabilities.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what is an POE?

A

projected operational enviroment.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

what is PACOM?

A

pacific command, san diego.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what is EUCOM?

A

european command, germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what is SOUTHCOM?

A

southern command, florida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

what is CENTCOM?

A

central command, florida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what is NORTHCOM?

A

northern command, colorado.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what is SOCOM?

A

special operations command, florida.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

what is TRANSCOM?

A

transportation command, illinios.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what is STRATCOM?

A

strategic command, nebraska.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what is AFRICOM?

A

african command, germany.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

what is the 3rd fleet AOR?

A

eastern pacific, san diego.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what is the 4th fleet AOR?

A

central and south america, mayport.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

what is the 5th fleet AOR?

A

indian oceans and persian gulf, manama.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

what is the 6th fleet AOR?

A

mediterranean and black sea, gaeta.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

what is the 7th fleet AOR?

A

western pacific, yokosuka.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

what is the 10th fleet AOR?

A

operates with all fleets.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what is an AE?

A

ammunition ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

what is an AD?

A

destroyer tender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what is an AFS?

A

combat stores ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

what is an AS?

A

submarine tender.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what is an AO/AOE

A

logistics ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

what is a CG?

A

guided missile cruiser.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what is a CVN?

A

nuclear carrier.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what is a DDG?

A

guided missile destroyer.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

what is a FFG?

A

guided missile frigate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

what is a LCC?

A

amphibious command ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

what is a LHA?

A

amphibious assault ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

what is a LDH?

A

amphibious warfare ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

what is a LPD?

A

amphibious transport ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

what is a LPH?

A

amphibious assault ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

what is a LSD?

A

dock landing ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

what is a MCS?

A

mine counter measure ship.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what are the 3 objectives of first aid?

A

treat injury, prevent infection and loss of life.

181
Q

what are the 11 basic wounds?

A

fractures, sucking chest wound, abdominal evisceration, amputation, laceration, electrical shock, smoke inhalation, burns, hypothermia, heat stress and puncture wound.

182
Q

what are the 3 degrees of burns?

A

1st, 2nd and 3rd.

183
Q

what is the rule of 9?

A

method to determine the percentage of body burned.

184
Q

what are the 3 methods to control bleeds?

A

direct pressure, pressure points and tourniquets.

185
Q

what is the basic treatment for suicide?

A

assume the threat is real, never leave the person alone and seek medical attention.

186
Q

what is the treatment for joint dislocation?

A

loosen clothing, comfort, support the injury, treat for shock and seek medical attention.

187
Q

explain when and why to use heat/ice packs.

A

ice for first 24-48 hours to reduce swelling, heat after 48 hours to promote healing.

188
Q

explain the 5 steps of CPR.

A

check for responsiveness, check for breathing, CPR, stabilize breathing and check for other injuries.

189
Q

what is ORM?

A

operational risk management.

190
Q

what are the 5 steps to ORM?

A

identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decision, implement controls and supervise the evolution.

191
Q

what are the 4 principles of ORM?

A

accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost, accept no unnecessary risk, anticipate and manage risk, make risk decisions at the right level.

192
Q

what are 3 levels of ORM?

A

in-depth, deliberate and time critical.

193
Q

what are the 3 classes of mishaps?

A

Class A, Class B and Class C.

194
Q

what is PPE?

A

personal protective equipment.

195
Q

safety responsibility of the CO?

A

overall safety of the command.

196
Q

safety responsibility of the aviation safety officer?

A

safety of all flight evolutions.

197
Q

safety responsibility of the ground safety officer?

A

safety of all ground evolutions.

198
Q

safety of a department head?

A

implement training within the department.

199
Q

safety of the division officers?

A

implement training within the department and a more local level.

200
Q

safety of all hands?

A

all hands are responsible for safety at all times.

201
Q

explain the function of the enlisted safety committee.

A

implement safety policies and procedures.

202
Q

explain the function of the safety council.

A

set goals for safety, manage assets and review safety.

203
Q

discuss human error mishaps.

A

most commonly responsible for aviation mishaps.

204
Q

discuss maintenance and support factor mishap.

A

bad maintenance or quality assurance related to aviation mishaps.

205
Q

discuss admin and supervisory factor mishaps.

A

lack of supervision or training which leads to mishaps.

206
Q

discuss material failure mishaps.

A

faulty or defective component related mishaps.

207
Q

discuss environmental mishaps.

A

acts of god, usually weather.

208
Q

what is the hearing conservation program?

A

an effort to prevent hearing loss.

209
Q

what is a HAZREP?

A

hazardous report, unsafe actions, lack of training, injury or damage.

210
Q

what is chemical warfare?

A

the use of chemical agents due to their physiological effect.

211
Q

state the 4 types of chemical agents.

A

contact agents, respiratory agents, cardiovascular agents and nerve agents.

212
Q

what is M9 chemical agent detection paper?

A

detects liquid chemicals, turns red.

213
Q

what is atropine/2-pam-chloride?

A

injected therapy for nerve agents.

214
Q

what is biological warfare?

A

use of agents which cause disease, sickness or death.

215
Q

what are pathogens?

A

viral or bacterial.

216
Q

what are toxins?

A

physiological effect.

217
Q

what is IPE?

A

individual protective equipment.

218
Q

what is radiological warfare?

A

radiological weapons. (nuclear)

219
Q

explain the 5 types of nuclear explosion.

A

high altitude (atmospheric), air burst, surface burst, shallow detonation, deep detonation.

220
Q

what is a ready-shelter?

A

minimal shielding, close to battle stations.

221
Q

what is a deep-shelter?

A

low in ship, close to centerline, maximum protection.

222
Q

what is a DT-60 dosimeter?

A

a meter that detects radiation. (0-500 roentgens)

223
Q

what is MOPP?

A

mission oriented protective posture.

224
Q

what are the 5 levels of MOPP?

A

0-5 in severity, 0 issue PPE, 1 PPE accessible, 2 PPE carried, 3 filters installed, 4 don all PPE and sprinkler protection.

225
Q

what is a firefighters primary and secondary duty?

A

save life and limit damage to equipment.

226
Q

what are the key elements of fire?

A

oxygen, fuel and heat.

227
Q

what is the fire tetrahedron?

A

oxygen, fuel, heat and chemical reaction.

228
Q

what are the 4 classes of fire?

A

A, B, C and D

229
Q

what are the different types of extinguishing agents?

A

AFFF, water, HALON, carbon dioxide and PKP.

230
Q

explain the safety guidelines for the flight line.

A

exhaust, intake and prop arc hazards.

231
Q

what PPE is required on the flight line?

A

hearing protection, steel toe boots and cranial.

232
Q

discuss runways.

A

used for take off and landing.

233
Q

discuss threshold markings.

A

designate the landing area.

234
Q

discuss overrun areas.

A

emergency deceleration of an aircraft.

235
Q

discuss MA-1 overrun barriers.

A

emergency deceleration of an aircraft with tricycle type landing gear/no tail hooks.

236
Q

discuss emergency shore based recovery equipment.

A

emergency stop of shore based aircraft.

237
Q

discuss taxiways.

A

used to taxiing.

238
Q

discuss parking apron.

A

designated area for parking aircraft.

239
Q

discuss compass calibration pad.

A

magnetically quiet area used to calibrate an aircraft compass.

240
Q

discuss runway numbering system.

A

runways based on magnetic heading.

241
Q

discuss airfield rotating beacon.

A

designates airport location day and night.

242
Q

who wears yellow jerseys?

A

launching and arresting officers.

243
Q

who wears white jerseys?

A

safety, QA, troubleshooters, medical.

244
Q

who wears brown jerseys?

A

plane captains.

245
Q

who wears blue jerseys?

A

mooring teams.

246
Q

who wears green jerseys?

A

maintenance personnel.

247
Q

who wears purple jerseys?

A

fueling crews.

248
Q

what agents can you find on the flight deck?

A

PKP, salt water. CO2, AFFF, bomb jettison ramp and steam smothering.

249
Q

what is SE used for in aircraft handling?

A

towing.

250
Q

what are the procedures for grounding an aircraft?

A

strap to ground then aircraft.

251
Q

what is initial tie-down?

A

6 chains.

252
Q

what is normal tie-down?

A

> 45knots, 9 chains.

253
Q

what is moderate weather tie-down?

A

45-60knots, 14 chains.

254
Q

what is heavy weather tie-down?

A

<60knots, 20 chains.

255
Q

what are mandatory hand signals required regardless of aircraft?

A

fire, emergency stop, safety related hand signals.

256
Q

how many personnel does it take to move an aircraft?

A

6

257
Q

what is the maximum towing speed?

A

5mph or as fast as the slowest walker.

258
Q

what is a wind indicator?

A

immediate velocity of wind on flight line.

259
Q

what is an airfield rotating beacon?

A

gives visual location of the flight line.

260
Q

what is tower visual communications?

A

coordination between radar and the tower.

261
Q

what is TACAN?

A

tactical air navigation system, primary communication for carrier based aircraft.

262
Q

what is ILS?

A

a precise en route navigation system.

263
Q

what is VOR?

A

an all weather radio system.

264
Q

what is GPS?

A

global positioning system.

265
Q

who provides management, coordination and leadership for force protection?

A

force protection officer.

266
Q

explain THREATCON.

A

levels of protection of homeland and abroad assets.

267
Q

explain DEFCON.

A

levels of military preparations for war.

268
Q

what is FPCON?

A

levels of protection against terrorism.

269
Q

FPCON is based off?

A

threat level, penetration capability, exposure, asset ability and asset protection.

270
Q

what is FPCON normal?

A

general global threat.

271
Q

what is FPCON alpha?

A

increased global threat.

272
Q

what is FPCON bravo?

A

more predictable threat.

273
Q

what is FPCON charlie?

A

incident occurs, creditable intelligence.

274
Q

what is FPCON delta?

A

immediate terrorist attack.

275
Q

what is DEFCON?

A

defense readiness condition.

276
Q

what is DEFCON 5?

A

peacetime.

277
Q

what is DEFCON 4?

A

normal security procedures.

278
Q

what is DEFCON 3?

A

increased security procedures.

279
Q

what is DEFCON 4?

A

increased more but not maximum security procedures.

280
Q

what is DEFCON 5?

A

maximum security procedures.

281
Q

DEFCON is a subsystem of?

A

LERTCONS, alert conditions.

282
Q

what is the objective of the NAMP?

A

improved readiness and safety.

283
Q

who is in charge of the NAMP?

A

CNO

284
Q

explain the MO.

A

responsible for the accomplishment of the mission, reports to the CO.

285
Q

explain AMO.

A

assists the MO.

286
Q

explain MMCO.

A

maintenance/material control officer, material support.

287
Q

explain MMCPO.

A

senior advisor of the maintenance department, reports to the MO and CO.

288
Q

explain QAO.

A

responsible for maintenance department safety.

289
Q

explain MCO.

A

material control officer, responsible for logistics and finances.

290
Q

state the basic responsibilities of maintenance control.

A

issues and monitors all maintenance.

291
Q

what are the 3 levels of maintenance?

A

I, O and depot.

292
Q

what are the two types of maintenance?

A

rework and upkeep.

293
Q

what are examples of upkeep maintenance inspections?

A

turn around, daily, conditional, special, phase, acceptance and transfer.

294
Q

what is an FCF?

A

functional check flight.

295
Q

define management.

A

the control of work.

296
Q

define maintenance.

A

retaining/restoring aircraft condition.

297
Q

explain safe for flight.

A

permits launch.

298
Q

explain MMP.

A

monthly maintenance plan.

299
Q

explain aircraft log book.

A

service records for all required aspects.

300
Q

who is authorized to release an aircraft safe for flight?

A

SFF qualified.

301
Q

what is the concept of QA?

A

fundamentally to prevent the occurrence of defects.

302
Q

what are the QA programs?

A

CTPL, safety, audit, SE misuse and abuse, confined space and NAMDRP.

303
Q

discuss the elements of a successful FOD program.

A

identify, correct and eliminate FOD hazards.

304
Q

state the primary objective of the tool control program.

A

tool accountability.

305
Q

discuss the fuel surveillance program.

A

fuel samples, ADB and monitored by QA.

306
Q

state the responsibility of material control.

A

ordering and delivery of required material.

307
Q

what is a DD form 200?

A

IMRL liability form.

308
Q

NATOPS was established in what year?

A

1961

309
Q

when was the NAMP created?

A

1959

310
Q

why was NATOPS established?

A

to reduce aircraft mishaps.

311
Q

what is a NATOPS model manager?

A

administers the NATOPS program.

312
Q

what is a NATOPS evaluator?

A

closely evaluates the NATOPS program.

313
Q

what is a NATOPS instructor?

A

instructs trainees on the contents of NATOPS.

314
Q

state the purpose of a NATOPS evaluations.

A

aircrew proficiency.

315
Q

define warning.

A

injury or death may occur.

316
Q

define caution.

A

damage to equipment may occur.

317
Q

define note.

A

suggestive information.

318
Q

define should.

A

recommended.

319
Q

define may.

A

optional.

320
Q

define will.

A

will comply with procedure.

321
Q

explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRLANT.

A

first characters A-M, second characters A-Z.

322
Q

explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRPAC.

A

first characters N-Z, second characters A-Z.

323
Q

explain the visual identification markings for CNATRA.

A

first characters A-G, no second letter.

324
Q

what is the birthday of naval aviation?

A

8 may 1911

325
Q

what is 14 november 1910?

A

first flight off a ship.

326
Q

what is 8 may 1911?

A

first naval planes purchased.

327
Q

what is 20 june 1913?

A

ens billingsly, first naval aviation death.

328
Q

what is 22 october 1917?

A

first form of QARs.

329
Q

what is 20 march 1922?

A

first aircraft carrier, USS LANGLEY

330
Q

what is 1948?

A

HU-1, first helicopter command.

331
Q

what is 5 may 1961?

A

alan sheppard, first naval aviator in space, 116 miles.

332
Q

what is 20-21 july 1969?

A

neil armstrong walked on the moon.

333
Q

what is 1994?

A

first females qualified as naval aviators, eisenhower.

334
Q

what is coral sea?

A

7-8 may 1942, first air-to-air naval battle.

335
Q

what is midway?

A

3-5 june 1942, turning point of the pacific war.

336
Q

what is guadalcanal?

A

13-15 november 1942, 1st marines took quadalcanal, USS JUNEAU, sullivan brothers.

337
Q

state the importance of planning naval operations.

A

strength based of planning and exercise.

338
Q

state the name of the first aircraft carrier.

A

USS LANGLEY.

339
Q

what was the first jet powered aircraft.

A

FH-1 phantom

340
Q

who was the first naval aviator in space?

A

alan sheppard.

341
Q

discuss the duties and responsibilities of a MCPON.

A

serves as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO.

342
Q

discuss the sailors creed.

A

inacted by CNO Kelso, designed to create unity regardless of rank.

343
Q

when were the navy core values developed?

A

american revolution.

344
Q

what is the old commissioned vessel?

A

USS CONSTITUTION.

345
Q

discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the navy.

A

taxation from england.

346
Q

what is the navys birthday?

A

13 october 1775

347
Q

discuss hand salute.

A

lifting of the knights visor, removing cover was shortened to just touching it.

348
Q

discuss saluting the ensign aboard a ship.

A

regulation 1207.

349
Q

discuss dipping the ensign.

A

salute from surface vessels to navy ships.

350
Q

discuss gun salute.

A

honorary action for individuals, nations and holidays.

351
Q

describe the courtesies of rending colors.

A

0800-sunset.

352
Q

what is the ensign?

A

american flag.

353
Q

what is a national flag?

A

specific countries designated flag.

354
Q

what is the navy flag?

A

blue flag with a ship and eagle at sea, gold banner which reads “united states navy”.

355
Q

what is the union jack?

A

the blue portion of the american flag which contains all 50 stars.

356
Q

what is motion?

A

change in pace or postion.

357
Q

what are the three types of motion?

A

acceleration, speed and velocity.

358
Q

what is newtons first law?

A

an object in motion will stay in motion.

359
Q

what is newtons second law?

A

the movement of an object is directly proportional to the external force applied to it.

360
Q

what is newtons third law?

A

ever action has an equal and opposite reaction.

361
Q

what is lift?

A

force in an upward motion.

362
Q

what is weight?

A

force acting downward.

363
Q

what is drag?

A

a withholding force.

364
Q

what is thrust?

A

force which propels forward.

365
Q

what are the axis of the aircraft?

A

longitudinal, lateral and vertical.

366
Q

ailerons control what?

A

roll.

367
Q

elevators control what?

A

pitch.

368
Q

the rudder controls what?

A

yaw.

369
Q

the cyclic stick controls what?

A

roll/pitch of the rotary blade on helos.

370
Q

the tail rotor controls what?

A

yaw on helos.

371
Q

define an airfoil.

A

the aerodynamic shape of wings.

372
Q

define collective.

A

changing the angle of attack to create lift.

373
Q

define AOA.

A

angle of attack.

374
Q

define auto rotation.

A

allows helos to land safely without engine power.

375
Q

explain the basic hydraulic system.

A

reservoir, pump, lines, interface and actuator.

376
Q

what are the components of landing gear?

A

shock strut assembly, tires, wheel brake assembly, actuator and cross brace.

377
Q

explain the term autorotation.

A

increases inertia energy into lift.

378
Q

state the safety precautions when servicing tires.

A

wheel fragments can shoot hundreds of feet, never approach from the side.

379
Q

describe turbojet.

A

projects air at high velocity.

380
Q

describe turboshaft.

A

power sent through shaft.

381
Q

describe turboprop.

A

drives energy into a prop.

382
Q

describe turbofan.

A

similar to a props, but in a duct enclosed axial flow fan.

383
Q

nato code for JP4?

A

F40

384
Q

nato code for JP5?

A

F44

385
Q

nato code for JP8

A

F34

386
Q

what are 3 hazards of jet fuel?

A

explosion, contact, ingestion and fumes.

387
Q

discuss safety procedures involving external power.

A

breakers, switches, prevent shock, power source is secured.

388
Q

what does icing do to naval aircraft?

A

increases drag and weight, lowers stall speed.

389
Q

what is pitot-static?

A

provides barometric reading.

390
Q

what is an altimeter?

A

reads aircraft alititude.

391
Q

what is an attitude indicator?

A

gives flight station monitoring to aircraft attitude.

392
Q

what is IFF?

A

identify friend or foe.

393
Q

what is radar?

A

radio detection and ranging.

394
Q

what is a magnetic compass?

A

reads like true dial gauge. (standby source)

395
Q

explain a circuit breaker.

A

resettable over current protection.

396
Q

explain a fuse.

A

non-resettable over current protection.

397
Q

what does NALCOMIS stand for?

A

naval aviation logistics command management information system.

398
Q

what is OOMA?

A

optimized organizational maintenance aid.

399
Q

what does OOMA consist off?

A

maintenance, material, flight and logs and records.

400
Q

what does OOMA track?

A

discrepancies, ALSS, SE status, mission mounted equipment.

401
Q

what is an JCN?

A

job control number.

402
Q

what is type maintenance?

A

pre-filled based on work order.

403
Q

what is a type work order?

A

type of maintenance being performed.

404
Q

what is accumulated job status history?

A

hours accumulated from start to finish.

405
Q

what is a DM?

A

discrepancy maintenance.

406
Q

what is a TS?

A

troubleshooting maintenance.

407
Q

what is a AD?

A

assist maintenance.

408
Q

what is a FO?

A

facilitate other maintenance.

409
Q

what is a CL?

A

conditional look phase maintenance.

410
Q

what is a CF?

A

conditional fix phase maintenance.

411
Q

what is a SX?

A

special inspection maintenance.

412
Q

what is a SC?

A

special inspection controls maf.

413
Q

what is a TD?

A

technical directive.

414
Q

what are the navy 6 core capabilities?

A

presences, deterrence, sea control, power, security and humanitarian.

415
Q

explain HSC.

A

helicopter sea combat.

416
Q

explain HSM.

A

helicopter maritime strike.

417
Q

explain HT.

A

helicopter training.

418
Q

explain VAQ.

A

tactical electronic warfare.

419
Q

explain VAW.

A

carrier airborne early warning.

420
Q

explain VC.

A

fleet composite.

421
Q

explain VFA.

A

strike fighter.

422
Q

explain VP.

A

fixed partol.

423
Q

explain VQ.

A

fixed recon.

424
Q

explain VR.

A

logistic support.

425
Q

explain VRC.

A

carrier logistics support.

426
Q

explain VT.

A

fixed training.

427
Q

explain VX.

A

test/evaluation.

428
Q

discuss COMSEC.

A

communication security.

429
Q

define TPI.

A

2 person integrity.

430
Q

discuss encryption.

A

conversion of electrical data.

431
Q

discuss authentication.

A

protects against false transmissions.

432
Q

discuss classification.

A

protects against unauthorized exposure.

433
Q

discuss compromise.

A

security exposure.

434
Q

explain the objective of the personnel security program.

A

authorize access to classified information.

435
Q

describe the proper destruction of classified material.

A

completely destroyed, burned, shredded or chemical decomposition.

436
Q

describe confidential.

A

could cause damage if exposed.

437
Q

describe secret.

A

could cause serious damage.

438
Q

describe top secret.

A

could cause grave damage.

439
Q

what is NOFORN?

A

non-releasable to foreign nationals.

440
Q

what is FOUO?

A

for official use only.

441
Q

define HAZMAT.

A

hazardous material.

442
Q

define HAZWASTE.

A

hazardous waste.

443
Q

how often are HAZMAT stowage locations inspected?

A

weekly, quarterly.

444
Q

what do HAZMAT inspections look for?

A

corrosion, leakage, labeling and shelf life.

445
Q

where do you find information on the HAZMAT you are using?

A

SDS

446
Q

what are the six categories of HAZMAT?

A

flammable, aerosol, toxic, corrosive, oxidizing and gas compressed.

447
Q

what is the AUL?

A

authorized use listing.

448
Q

what is the purpose of the SDS?

A

information on HAZMAT.

EAWS (1 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions