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1
Q

state the overall aircraft dimensions of the P-8A.

A

wingspan - 123’6”
length - 129’6”
height - 42’9”

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2
Q

define the P-8A safety diamond.

A

Nose, wing, tail, wing and back to the nose.

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3
Q

what primary material is used on the nose radome?

A

fiberglass.

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4
Q

state the primary flight control surfaces.

A

ailerons, elevators, rudder.

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5
Q

what indication is given by the stall warning system?

A

the control column shakes.

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6
Q

state the purpose of the anitskid/autobrake system.

A

prevent the brakes from locking and aircraft skid.

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7
Q

what method is used to de-ice the raked wingtips?

A

electro-magnetic expulsive.

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8
Q

state the purpose of flight deck window heat.

A

prevent ice and fog, increase impact strength.

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9
Q

state the purpose of the section 48 access and blowout door.

A

access to section 48 components.

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10
Q

which lights should be flashing while the engines are running?

A

anti-collision lights.

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11
Q

state the nomenclature of the P-8A engine

A

cfm56-7b

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12
Q

state the amount of thrust the P-8A engine produces.

A

27,300 lbs

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13
Q

state the purpose of the low pressure compressor.

A

increase speed of air through the engine.

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14
Q

state the purpose of the high pressure compressor.

A

increase pressure to the combustion chamber.

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15
Q

state the purpose of the APU.

A

provides bleed air, electrical power and pneumatic power.

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16
Q

state the purpose of the IDG oil cooler.

A

a heat exchanger which uses engine fuel to cool IDG oil.

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17
Q

the ignition system is utilized at what time?

A

engine start, take off and landing, in-flight start, in-flight bad weather.

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18
Q

what are the two components in the fuel pump assembly?

A

pump and filter.

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19
Q

which fuel tank usually supplies fuel to the APU?

A

main 1

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20
Q

list the P-8A tank groups.

A

M1, M2, CTR, FWD and AFT.

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21
Q

state the total fuel capacity of the P-8A.

A

10,856 gallons

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22
Q

state the purpose of the OBIGGS system.

A

provides NEA to the tanks and form of fuel transfer.

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23
Q

which tank cells comprise the forward tank group?

A

4, 5, and 6

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24
Q

which tank cells comprise the aft tank group?

A

7, 8, 9 and 10

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25
Q

the fuel temperature indicating system measures fuel temperature in which fuel tanks?

A

M1, M2 and center

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26
Q

describe the interaction between the IDG oil and the engine feed fuel flow.

A

heat exchangers use engine fuel to cool IDG oil.

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27
Q

the pneumatic system supplies pressurized air to which systems?

A

engine starts, air conditioning, inlet cowl anti-ice, water tanks, hydraulics, and wing thermal anti-ice.

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28
Q

state the sources of pneumatic power.

A

engines, APU and external.

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29
Q

state the maximum allowable altitude.

A

8,000 feet

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30
Q

state the purpose of the cabin pressure relief system.

A

prevent from over pressurization.

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31
Q

the oxygen system supplies 19 persons oxygen for a minimum of how many minutes?

A

25

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32
Q

state pascals law.

A

pressurized liquid within a container will move undiminished in all directions.

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33
Q

name the hydraulic fluid utilized in the P-8A.

A

skydrol.

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34
Q

state the 3 independent hydraulic systems.

A

a, b and standby.

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35
Q

what are the sources of power for the main hydraulic systems?

A

a and b

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36
Q

which systems does the standby hydraulic system supply alternate hydraulic pressure to?

A

thrust reversers, leading edge slats and flaps, the rudder.

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37
Q

name the systems which receive pressurized fluid from the main and auxiliary hydraulic systems?

A

thrust reversers, PTU, landing gear, nose steering, main brakes, primary and secondary flight controls, uarrsi, weapons bay doors and hydraulic pressure indicating system.

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38
Q

state the 3 subsystems of the water and waste removal.

A

potable water, air supply, and waste disposal.

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39
Q

potable water is supplied to what areas?

A

lavatory and galley.

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40
Q

the waste disposal system removes waste from what areas?

A

lavatory, galley and door sill drains.

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41
Q

what conditions are monitored by the fire protection system?

A

engine overheat, engine fire detection, APU fire detection, wheel well fire detection and wing/body overheat detection.

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42
Q

what indications are received in the flight compartment when an APU or engine fire/overheat is detected?

A

master warning, cms, warning bell and APU light.

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43
Q

what gas is utilized for extinguishing a fire in the engine compartment?

A

halon

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44
Q

what type of portable fire extinguishers are utilized inside the aircraft?

A

halon

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45
Q

state the purpose of DBFPS.

A

sense and suppress fire within the dry bay areas of the aircraft.

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46
Q

state the purpose of the vapor purge systems.

A

aux tank leak detection.

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47
Q

what effects can electrical shock have on the human body?

A

disrupt electrical functions, heart and lung failure, injury or death.

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48
Q

state the two types of voltage.

A

AC and DC

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49
Q

name the sources of AC power on the aircraft.

A

IDGs, APU generator, external power and static inverter.

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50
Q

name the sources of DC power on the aircraft.

A

batteries and transformer rectifier units.

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51
Q

what is the unit of measure for electrical current?

A

amperes (amps)

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52
Q

define resistance.

A

opposition (ohms)

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53
Q

define ohms law.

A

the current through a conductor is directly proportional to the voltage between 2 points.
voltage = current x resistance.

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54
Q

define frequency.

A

complete alternations per second in AC.

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55
Q

define electrical bus.

A

central point which distributes voltage.

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56
Q

define circuit breaker.

A

over current protection which can be reset.

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57
Q

define fuse.

A

over current protection which cannot be reset.

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58
Q

define relay.

A

electrically activated switch which controls distribution.

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59
Q

state the output of the IDGs.

A

180 KVA, 115 VAC, 522 AMPs, 400hz and 3 phase.

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60
Q

state the two batteries utilized on the aircraft.

A

main and auxiliary.

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61
Q

state the purpose of the transformer rectifier units.

A

convert 115 VAC/400hz to 28 VDC.

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62
Q

how long will the main and aux batteries provide power after the loss of all AC power?

A

30 minutes

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63
Q

state the purpose of the mach airspeed warning system.

A

overspeed alert in flight station.

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64
Q

state the two primary functions of the air data inertial reference system.

A

airspeed and barometric pressure.

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65
Q

what information is displayed on the pilots heads-up display?

A

pitch, roll, artificial horizon, heading, altitude, airspeed, flight path and flight path acceleration.

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66
Q

state the purpose of the traffic alert and collision avoidance system.

A

safe air traffic seperation.

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67
Q

what 3 functions does the flight management computer system perform?

A

navigation, performance and guidance.

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68
Q

state the purpose of the static discharger.

A

decrease radio receiver interference.

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69
Q

state the nomenclature of the P-8A radar.

A

APY-10

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70
Q

state the purpose of the early warning and self protection system.

A

defense against radar and infrared guided weapons.

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71
Q

state the purpose of the ALE-47 counter measures dispensing system.

A

expendable weapon decoys.

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72
Q

what is the sms and what is its purpose?

A

stores management system. release, carry and control of weapon stores.

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73
Q

what is the stores management computer?

A

central control point for weapon stores.

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74
Q

what is the stores management weapons control panel?

A

controls the release of buoys, jettison and weapons bay door.

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75
Q

what is the stores management MCDS - ordnance panel?

A

controls the SMS and provides human interface in the flight station.

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76
Q

what is the stores management control wheel release switch?

A

the pilot/co-pilot weapon release.

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77
Q

what is the APS and what is its primary function?

A

aft pneumatic system. pressurizes SLS for buoy launch.

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78
Q

what are the components of the weapons bay stores system and what do they provide?

A

bomb rack units and APS.

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79
Q

what is the SLS?

A

sonobuoy launch system.

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80
Q

what is the SCU?

A

interface between SMS and weapons bay.

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81
Q

what is the SRL?

A

holds and launches buoys.

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82
Q

what is the SSL?

A

individual launch of buoys.

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83
Q

what is the SLT?

A

sonobuoys launch tube.

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84
Q

what is the gate valve?

A

prevents the loss of aircraft pressure when launching buoys.

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85
Q

what is the away sensor?

A

monitors buoy release.

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86
Q

what is the storage rack?

A

holds 48 buoys.

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87
Q

what is the free fall shoot?

A

ability to drop buoys without pressurization.

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88
Q

what is the purpose of the wing pylon and where are they located?

A

secure bomb rack units.

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89
Q

where are the forward fuselage stores and how do they function?

A

forward of the engines, underneath the fuselage. operated with bomb rack units.

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90
Q

kill stores consist of what items?

A

torpedos, mines, bombs, rockets and missiles.

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91
Q

what are the characteristics of an AGM?

A

all weather anti-ship missile.

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92
Q

what are the characteristics of an ATM?

A

air training missile.

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93
Q

what are the characteristics of a CATM?

A

captive air training missile.

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94
Q

what are the characteristics of DATM?

A

dummy air training missile.

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95
Q

what are the mines carried by the P-8A?

A

mk65 (2000lb influence actuated) mk56 (2000lb magnetic, pressure influenced) mk62 (500lb influence actuated) mk63 (1000lb influence actuated)

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96
Q

what torpedo is carried by the P-8A?

A

mk64 (lightweight, variable speed)

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97
Q

what survival equipment is on the P-8A?

A

life vests, (2) 12 man rafts, (1) crash axe, (19 fixed oxygen, (5) portable oxygen, (1) mini oxygen, (2) first aid kits, (6) fire extinguishers, (21) suits, (1) destruct kit.

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98
Q

how many internal fire extinguishers?

A

6

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99
Q

how many external fire extinguishers?

A

(2) engines, (1) APU

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100
Q

how many DBFPS extinguishers?

A

(12) FPCUs

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101
Q

where is cargo loaded and in what configuration?

A

aft of the wine racks.

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102
Q

what are the two types of life preservers for passengers, what do they contain.

A

whistle, dye marker, chemical light.

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103
Q

what is an MC?

A

mission commander. responsible for all aspect of flight.

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104
Q

what is a TACCO?

A

tactical coordinator. responsible for mission crew members.

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105
Q

what is a COTAC?

A

assists the TACCO.

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106
Q

what is an AAW?

A

acoustic air warfare operator. mission audio and reconstruction.

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107
Q

what is an EWO?

A

electronic warfare operator. responsible for radar, EOIR operation.

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108
Q

what is a PPC?

A

patrol plane commander.

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109
Q

what is a 2P?

A

NATOP pilot, responsible for safe flight.

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110
Q

what is a 3P?

A

can pilot, co-pilot, pilot flying, pilot monitoring.

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111
Q

what is a pilot?

A

left seat of flight station.

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112
Q

what is a co-pilot?

A

right seat, assists pilot.

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113
Q

what is a PF?

A

pilot flying.

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114
Q

what is a PM?

A

pilot monitoring.

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115
Q

what is an observer?

A

observes safety of flight.

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116
Q

what is an ordnance qualified crew member?

A

responsible for mission stores in-flight.

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117
Q

state the purpose of SORM.

A

standard organization and regulations manual. 3120.32

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118
Q

discuss the dual chain of command.

A

operational is through the commander in chief, administrative is through the secretary of the navy.

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119
Q

what is a unified chain of command?

A

2 or more elements with one common goal.

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120
Q

what are fleet commanders?

A

lead Pacific, Atlantic and Euro fleets.

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121
Q

what are task force commanders?

A

divides a fleet into smaller force elements.

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122
Q

what are task unit commanders?

A

divides forces into specific tasks.

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123
Q

what is the SECNAV?

A

responsible for policies, organization, admin and operation.

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124
Q

what is the CNO?

A

most senior navy official.

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125
Q

what is a fleet commander in chief?

A

responsible for specific fleets.

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126
Q

what is a naval airforce commander?

A

responsible for air operations within specific fleets.

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127
Q

what is a functional wing commander?

A

responsible for readiness, training and inspection.

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128
Q

what is a type wing commander?

A

coordinates the NAMP.

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129
Q

what is a CO?

A

commanding officer, responsible for squadron.

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130
Q

what is an XO?

A

directly responsible to the CO.

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131
Q

what is a CMC?

A

senior enlisted advisor to the CO and XO.

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132
Q

what is a department head?

A

ie. MO, OPSO

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133
Q

what is a CMEO?

A

Equal opportunity within the command.

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134
Q

what is a division officer?

A

reports directly to the department head.

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135
Q

what is an LPO?

A

directly responsible for overall workcenter.

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136
Q

what is a work center supervisor?

A

responsible to all matters with in the work center, reports to LPO.

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137
Q

what is a CACO?

A

casualty assistance and calls officer.

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138
Q

what is SAPR?

A

sexual assault prevention and response.

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139
Q

what is ombudsman?

A

link between families and the command?

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140
Q

what is a DAPA?

A

drug and alcohol prevention advisor.

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141
Q

what is a CCC?

A

command career counsilor.

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142
Q

what is an OPREP?

A

operational report, deals with unauthorized detonation of nuclear weapons.

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143
Q

what is a MOVEREP?

A

movement report, reports locations and destinations of ships.

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144
Q

what is a LOGREG?

A

logistics request, 48hr prior to entering port.

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145
Q

what is SORTS?

A

report of conditions of readiness.

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146
Q

what is a SITREP?

A

situational report.

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147
Q

what is an ROC?

A

required operational capabilities.

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148
Q

what is an POE?

A

projected operational enviroment.

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149
Q

what is PACOM?

A

pacific command, san diego.

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150
Q

what is EUCOM?

A

european command, germany.

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151
Q

what is SOUTHCOM?

A

southern command, florida.

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152
Q

what is CENTCOM?

A

central command, florida.

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153
Q

what is NORTHCOM?

A

northern command, colorado.

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154
Q

what is SOCOM?

A

special operations command, florida.

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155
Q

what is TRANSCOM?

A

transportation command, illinios.

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156
Q

what is STRATCOM?

A

strategic command, nebraska.

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157
Q

what is AFRICOM?

A

african command, germany.

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158
Q

what is the 3rd fleet AOR?

A

eastern pacific, san diego.

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159
Q

what is the 4th fleet AOR?

A

central and south america, mayport.

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160
Q

what is the 5th fleet AOR?

A

indian oceans and persian gulf, manama.

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161
Q

what is the 6th fleet AOR?

A

mediterranean and black sea, gaeta.

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162
Q

what is the 7th fleet AOR?

A

western pacific, yokosuka.

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163
Q

what is the 10th fleet AOR?

A

operates with all fleets.

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164
Q

what is an AE?

A

ammunition ship.

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165
Q

what is an AD?

A

destroyer tender.

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166
Q

what is an AFS?

A

combat stores ship.

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167
Q

what is an AS?

A

submarine tender.

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168
Q

what is an AO/AOE

A

logistics ship.

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169
Q

what is a CG?

A

guided missile cruiser.

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170
Q

what is a CVN?

A

nuclear carrier.

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171
Q

what is a DDG?

A

guided missile destroyer.

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172
Q

what is a FFG?

A

guided missile frigate.

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173
Q

what is a LCC?

A

amphibious command ship.

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174
Q

what is a LHA?

A

amphibious assault ship.

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175
Q

what is a LDH?

A

amphibious warfare ship.

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176
Q

what is a LPD?

A

amphibious transport ship.

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177
Q

what is a LPH?

A

amphibious assault ship.

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178
Q

what is a LSD?

A

dock landing ship.

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179
Q

what is a MCS?

A

mine counter measure ship.

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180
Q

what are the 3 objectives of first aid?

A

treat injury, prevent infection and loss of life.

181
Q

what are the 11 basic wounds?

A

fractures, sucking chest wound, abdominal evisceration, amputation, laceration, electrical shock, smoke inhalation, burns, hypothermia, heat stress and puncture wound.

182
Q

what are the 3 degrees of burns?

A

1st, 2nd and 3rd.

183
Q

what is the rule of 9?

A

method to determine the percentage of body burned.

184
Q

what are the 3 methods to control bleeds?

A

direct pressure, pressure points and tourniquets.

185
Q

what is the basic treatment for suicide?

A

assume the threat is real, never leave the person alone and seek medical attention.

186
Q

what is the treatment for joint dislocation?

A

loosen clothing, comfort, support the injury, treat for shock and seek medical attention.

187
Q

explain when and why to use heat/ice packs.

A

ice for first 24-48 hours to reduce swelling, heat after 48 hours to promote healing.

188
Q

explain the 5 steps of CPR.

A

check for responsiveness, check for breathing, CPR, stabilize breathing and check for other injuries.

189
Q

what is ORM?

A

operational risk management.

190
Q

what are the 5 steps to ORM?

A

identify hazards, assess hazards, make risk decision, implement controls and supervise the evolution.

191
Q

what are the 4 principles of ORM?

A

accept risk when benefit outweighs the cost, accept no unnecessary risk, anticipate and manage risk, make risk decisions at the right level.

192
Q

what are 3 levels of ORM?

A

in-depth, deliberate and time critical.

193
Q

what are the 3 classes of mishaps?

A

Class A, Class B and Class C.

194
Q

what is PPE?

A

personal protective equipment.

195
Q

safety responsibility of the CO?

A

overall safety of the command.

196
Q

safety responsibility of the aviation safety officer?

A

safety of all flight evolutions.

197
Q

safety responsibility of the ground safety officer?

A

safety of all ground evolutions.

198
Q

safety of a department head?

A

implement training within the department.

199
Q

safety of the division officers?

A

implement training within the department and a more local level.

200
Q

safety of all hands?

A

all hands are responsible for safety at all times.

201
Q

explain the function of the enlisted safety committee.

A

implement safety policies and procedures.

202
Q

explain the function of the safety council.

A

set goals for safety, manage assets and review safety.

203
Q

discuss human error mishaps.

A

most commonly responsible for aviation mishaps.

204
Q

discuss maintenance and support factor mishap.

A

bad maintenance or quality assurance related to aviation mishaps.

205
Q

discuss admin and supervisory factor mishaps.

A

lack of supervision or training which leads to mishaps.

206
Q

discuss material failure mishaps.

A

faulty or defective component related mishaps.

207
Q

discuss environmental mishaps.

A

acts of god, usually weather.

208
Q

what is the hearing conservation program?

A

an effort to prevent hearing loss.

209
Q

what is a HAZREP?

A

hazardous report, unsafe actions, lack of training, injury or damage.

210
Q

what is chemical warfare?

A

the use of chemical agents due to their physiological effect.

211
Q

state the 4 types of chemical agents.

A

contact agents, respiratory agents, cardiovascular agents and nerve agents.

212
Q

what is M9 chemical agent detection paper?

A

detects liquid chemicals, turns red.

213
Q

what is atropine/2-pam-chloride?

A

injected therapy for nerve agents.

214
Q

what is biological warfare?

A

use of agents which cause disease, sickness or death.

215
Q

what are pathogens?

A

viral or bacterial.

216
Q

what are toxins?

A

physiological effect.

217
Q

what is IPE?

A

individual protective equipment.

218
Q

what is radiological warfare?

A

radiological weapons. (nuclear)

219
Q

explain the 5 types of nuclear explosion.

A

high altitude (atmospheric), air burst, surface burst, shallow detonation, deep detonation.

220
Q

what is a ready-shelter?

A

minimal shielding, close to battle stations.

221
Q

what is a deep-shelter?

A

low in ship, close to centerline, maximum protection.

222
Q

what is a DT-60 dosimeter?

A

a meter that detects radiation. (0-500 roentgens)

223
Q

what is MOPP?

A

mission oriented protective posture.

224
Q

what are the 5 levels of MOPP?

A

0-5 in severity, 0 issue PPE, 1 PPE accessible, 2 PPE carried, 3 filters installed, 4 don all PPE and sprinkler protection.

225
Q

what is a firefighters primary and secondary duty?

A

save life and limit damage to equipment.

226
Q

what are the key elements of fire?

A

oxygen, fuel and heat.

227
Q

what is the fire tetrahedron?

A

oxygen, fuel, heat and chemical reaction.

228
Q

what are the 4 classes of fire?

A

A, B, C and D

229
Q

what are the different types of extinguishing agents?

A

AFFF, water, HALON, carbon dioxide and PKP.

230
Q

explain the safety guidelines for the flight line.

A

exhaust, intake and prop arc hazards.

231
Q

what PPE is required on the flight line?

A

hearing protection, steel toe boots and cranial.

232
Q

discuss runways.

A

used for take off and landing.

233
Q

discuss threshold markings.

A

designate the landing area.

234
Q

discuss overrun areas.

A

emergency deceleration of an aircraft.

235
Q

discuss MA-1 overrun barriers.

A

emergency deceleration of an aircraft with tricycle type landing gear/no tail hooks.

236
Q

discuss emergency shore based recovery equipment.

A

emergency stop of shore based aircraft.

237
Q

discuss taxiways.

A

used to taxiing.

238
Q

discuss parking apron.

A

designated area for parking aircraft.

239
Q

discuss compass calibration pad.

A

magnetically quiet area used to calibrate an aircraft compass.

240
Q

discuss runway numbering system.

A

runways based on magnetic heading.

241
Q

discuss airfield rotating beacon.

A

designates airport location day and night.

242
Q

who wears yellow jerseys?

A

launching and arresting officers.

243
Q

who wears white jerseys?

A

safety, QA, troubleshooters, medical.

244
Q

who wears brown jerseys?

A

plane captains.

245
Q

who wears blue jerseys?

A

mooring teams.

246
Q

who wears green jerseys?

A

maintenance personnel.

247
Q

who wears purple jerseys?

A

fueling crews.

248
Q

what agents can you find on the flight deck?

A

PKP, salt water. CO2, AFFF, bomb jettison ramp and steam smothering.

249
Q

what is SE used for in aircraft handling?

250
Q

what are the procedures for grounding an aircraft?

A

strap to ground then aircraft.

251
Q

what is initial tie-down?

252
Q

what is normal tie-down?

A

> 45knots, 9 chains.

253
Q

what is moderate weather tie-down?

A

45-60knots, 14 chains.

254
Q

what is heavy weather tie-down?

A

<60knots, 20 chains.

255
Q

what are mandatory hand signals required regardless of aircraft?

A

fire, emergency stop, safety related hand signals.

256
Q

how many personnel does it take to move an aircraft?

257
Q

what is the maximum towing speed?

A

5mph or as fast as the slowest walker.

258
Q

what is a wind indicator?

A

immediate velocity of wind on flight line.

259
Q

what is an airfield rotating beacon?

A

gives visual location of the flight line.

260
Q

what is tower visual communications?

A

coordination between radar and the tower.

261
Q

what is TACAN?

A

tactical air navigation system, primary communication for carrier based aircraft.

262
Q

what is ILS?

A

a precise en route navigation system.

263
Q

what is VOR?

A

an all weather radio system.

264
Q

what is GPS?

A

global positioning system.

265
Q

who provides management, coordination and leadership for force protection?

A

force protection officer.

266
Q

explain THREATCON.

A

levels of protection of homeland and abroad assets.

267
Q

explain DEFCON.

A

levels of military preparations for war.

268
Q

what is FPCON?

A

levels of protection against terrorism.

269
Q

FPCON is based off?

A

threat level, penetration capability, exposure, asset ability and asset protection.

270
Q

what is FPCON normal?

A

general global threat.

271
Q

what is FPCON alpha?

A

increased global threat.

272
Q

what is FPCON bravo?

A

more predictable threat.

273
Q

what is FPCON charlie?

A

incident occurs, creditable intelligence.

274
Q

what is FPCON delta?

A

immediate terrorist attack.

275
Q

what is DEFCON?

A

defense readiness condition.

276
Q

what is DEFCON 5?

A

peacetime.

277
Q

what is DEFCON 4?

A

normal security procedures.

278
Q

what is DEFCON 3?

A

increased security procedures.

279
Q

what is DEFCON 4?

A

increased more but not maximum security procedures.

280
Q

what is DEFCON 5?

A

maximum security procedures.

281
Q

DEFCON is a subsystem of?

A

LERTCONS, alert conditions.

282
Q

what is the objective of the NAMP?

A

improved readiness and safety.

283
Q

who is in charge of the NAMP?

284
Q

explain the MO.

A

responsible for the accomplishment of the mission, reports to the CO.

285
Q

explain AMO.

A

assists the MO.

286
Q

explain MMCO.

A

maintenance/material control officer, material support.

287
Q

explain MMCPO.

A

senior advisor of the maintenance department, reports to the MO and CO.

288
Q

explain QAO.

A

responsible for maintenance department safety.

289
Q

explain MCO.

A

material control officer, responsible for logistics and finances.

290
Q

state the basic responsibilities of maintenance control.

A

issues and monitors all maintenance.

291
Q

what are the 3 levels of maintenance?

A

I, O and depot.

292
Q

what are the two types of maintenance?

A

rework and upkeep.

293
Q

what are examples of upkeep maintenance inspections?

A

turn around, daily, conditional, special, phase, acceptance and transfer.

294
Q

what is an FCF?

A

functional check flight.

295
Q

define management.

A

the control of work.

296
Q

define maintenance.

A

retaining/restoring aircraft condition.

297
Q

explain safe for flight.

A

permits launch.

298
Q

explain MMP.

A

monthly maintenance plan.

299
Q

explain aircraft log book.

A

service records for all required aspects.

300
Q

who is authorized to release an aircraft safe for flight?

A

SFF qualified.

301
Q

what is the concept of QA?

A

fundamentally to prevent the occurrence of defects.

302
Q

what are the QA programs?

A

CTPL, safety, audit, SE misuse and abuse, confined space and NAMDRP.

303
Q

discuss the elements of a successful FOD program.

A

identify, correct and eliminate FOD hazards.

304
Q

state the primary objective of the tool control program.

A

tool accountability.

305
Q

discuss the fuel surveillance program.

A

fuel samples, ADB and monitored by QA.

306
Q

state the responsibility of material control.

A

ordering and delivery of required material.

307
Q

what is a DD form 200?

A

IMRL liability form.

308
Q

NATOPS was established in what year?

309
Q

when was the NAMP created?

310
Q

why was NATOPS established?

A

to reduce aircraft mishaps.

311
Q

what is a NATOPS model manager?

A

administers the NATOPS program.

312
Q

what is a NATOPS evaluator?

A

closely evaluates the NATOPS program.

313
Q

what is a NATOPS instructor?

A

instructs trainees on the contents of NATOPS.

314
Q

state the purpose of a NATOPS evaluations.

A

aircrew proficiency.

315
Q

define warning.

A

injury or death may occur.

316
Q

define caution.

A

damage to equipment may occur.

317
Q

define note.

A

suggestive information.

318
Q

define should.

A

recommended.

319
Q

define may.

320
Q

define will.

A

will comply with procedure.

321
Q

explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRLANT.

A

first characters A-M, second characters A-Z.

322
Q

explain the visual identification markings for COMNAVAIRPAC.

A

first characters N-Z, second characters A-Z.

323
Q

explain the visual identification markings for CNATRA.

A

first characters A-G, no second letter.

324
Q

what is the birthday of naval aviation?

A

8 may 1911

325
Q

what is 14 november 1910?

A

first flight off a ship.

326
Q

what is 8 may 1911?

A

first naval planes purchased.

327
Q

what is 20 june 1913?

A

ens billingsly, first naval aviation death.

328
Q

what is 22 october 1917?

A

first form of QARs.

329
Q

what is 20 march 1922?

A

first aircraft carrier, USS LANGLEY

330
Q

what is 1948?

A

HU-1, first helicopter command.

331
Q

what is 5 may 1961?

A

alan sheppard, first naval aviator in space, 116 miles.

332
Q

what is 20-21 july 1969?

A

neil armstrong walked on the moon.

333
Q

what is 1994?

A

first females qualified as naval aviators, eisenhower.

334
Q

what is coral sea?

A

7-8 may 1942, first air-to-air naval battle.

335
Q

what is midway?

A

3-5 june 1942, turning point of the pacific war.

336
Q

what is guadalcanal?

A

13-15 november 1942, 1st marines took quadalcanal, USS JUNEAU, sullivan brothers.

337
Q

state the importance of planning naval operations.

A

strength based of planning and exercise.

338
Q

state the name of the first aircraft carrier.

A

USS LANGLEY.

339
Q

what was the first jet powered aircraft.

A

FH-1 phantom

340
Q

who was the first naval aviator in space?

A

alan sheppard.

341
Q

discuss the duties and responsibilities of a MCPON.

A

serves as the senior enlisted advisor to the CNO.

342
Q

discuss the sailors creed.

A

inacted by CNO Kelso, designed to create unity regardless of rank.

343
Q

when were the navy core values developed?

A

american revolution.

344
Q

what is the old commissioned vessel?

A

USS CONSTITUTION.

345
Q

discuss the conditions that led to the formation of the navy.

A

taxation from england.

346
Q

what is the navys birthday?

A

13 october 1775

347
Q

discuss hand salute.

A

lifting of the knights visor, removing cover was shortened to just touching it.

348
Q

discuss saluting the ensign aboard a ship.

A

regulation 1207.

349
Q

discuss dipping the ensign.

A

salute from surface vessels to navy ships.

350
Q

discuss gun salute.

A

honorary action for individuals, nations and holidays.

351
Q

describe the courtesies of rending colors.

A

0800-sunset.

352
Q

what is the ensign?

A

american flag.

353
Q

what is a national flag?

A

specific countries designated flag.

354
Q

what is the navy flag?

A

blue flag with a ship and eagle at sea, gold banner which reads “united states navy”.

355
Q

what is the union jack?

A

the blue portion of the american flag which contains all 50 stars.

356
Q

what is motion?

A

change in pace or postion.

357
Q

what are the three types of motion?

A

acceleration, speed and velocity.

358
Q

what is newtons first law?

A

an object in motion will stay in motion.

359
Q

what is newtons second law?

A

the movement of an object is directly proportional to the external force applied to it.

360
Q

what is newtons third law?

A

ever action has an equal and opposite reaction.

361
Q

what is lift?

A

force in an upward motion.

362
Q

what is weight?

A

force acting downward.

363
Q

what is drag?

A

a withholding force.

364
Q

what is thrust?

A

force which propels forward.

365
Q

what are the axis of the aircraft?

A

longitudinal, lateral and vertical.

366
Q

ailerons control what?

367
Q

elevators control what?

368
Q

the rudder controls what?

369
Q

the cyclic stick controls what?

A

roll/pitch of the rotary blade on helos.

370
Q

the tail rotor controls what?

A

yaw on helos.

371
Q

define an airfoil.

A

the aerodynamic shape of wings.

372
Q

define collective.

A

changing the angle of attack to create lift.

373
Q

define AOA.

A

angle of attack.

374
Q

define auto rotation.

A

allows helos to land safely without engine power.

375
Q

explain the basic hydraulic system.

A

reservoir, pump, lines, interface and actuator.

376
Q

what are the components of landing gear?

A

shock strut assembly, tires, wheel brake assembly, actuator and cross brace.

377
Q

explain the term autorotation.

A

increases inertia energy into lift.

378
Q

state the safety precautions when servicing tires.

A

wheel fragments can shoot hundreds of feet, never approach from the side.

379
Q

describe turbojet.

A

projects air at high velocity.

380
Q

describe turboshaft.

A

power sent through shaft.

381
Q

describe turboprop.

A

drives energy into a prop.

382
Q

describe turbofan.

A

similar to a props, but in a duct enclosed axial flow fan.

383
Q

nato code for JP4?

384
Q

nato code for JP5?

385
Q

nato code for JP8

386
Q

what are 3 hazards of jet fuel?

A

explosion, contact, ingestion and fumes.

387
Q

discuss safety procedures involving external power.

A

breakers, switches, prevent shock, power source is secured.

388
Q

what does icing do to naval aircraft?

A

increases drag and weight, lowers stall speed.

389
Q

what is pitot-static?

A

provides barometric reading.

390
Q

what is an altimeter?

A

reads aircraft alititude.

391
Q

what is an attitude indicator?

A

gives flight station monitoring to aircraft attitude.

392
Q

what is IFF?

A

identify friend or foe.

393
Q

what is radar?

A

radio detection and ranging.

394
Q

what is a magnetic compass?

A

reads like true dial gauge. (standby source)

395
Q

explain a circuit breaker.

A

resettable over current protection.

396
Q

explain a fuse.

A

non-resettable over current protection.

397
Q

what does NALCOMIS stand for?

A

naval aviation logistics command management information system.

398
Q

what is OOMA?

A

optimized organizational maintenance aid.

399
Q

what does OOMA consist off?

A

maintenance, material, flight and logs and records.

400
Q

what does OOMA track?

A

discrepancies, ALSS, SE status, mission mounted equipment.

401
Q

what is an JCN?

A

job control number.

402
Q

what is type maintenance?

A

pre-filled based on work order.

403
Q

what is a type work order?

A

type of maintenance being performed.

404
Q

what is accumulated job status history?

A

hours accumulated from start to finish.

405
Q

what is a DM?

A

discrepancy maintenance.

406
Q

what is a TS?

A

troubleshooting maintenance.

407
Q

what is a AD?

A

assist maintenance.

408
Q

what is a FO?

A

facilitate other maintenance.

409
Q

what is a CL?

A

conditional look phase maintenance.

410
Q

what is a CF?

A

conditional fix phase maintenance.

411
Q

what is a SX?

A

special inspection maintenance.

412
Q

what is a SC?

A

special inspection controls maf.

413
Q

what is a TD?

A

technical directive.

414
Q

what are the navy 6 core capabilities?

A

presences, deterrence, sea control, power, security and humanitarian.

415
Q

explain HSC.

A

helicopter sea combat.

416
Q

explain HSM.

A

helicopter maritime strike.

417
Q

explain HT.

A

helicopter training.

418
Q

explain VAQ.

A

tactical electronic warfare.

419
Q

explain VAW.

A

carrier airborne early warning.

420
Q

explain VC.

A

fleet composite.

421
Q

explain VFA.

A

strike fighter.

422
Q

explain VP.

A

fixed partol.

423
Q

explain VQ.

A

fixed recon.

424
Q

explain VR.

A

logistic support.

425
Q

explain VRC.

A

carrier logistics support.

426
Q

explain VT.

A

fixed training.

427
Q

explain VX.

A

test/evaluation.

428
Q

discuss COMSEC.

A

communication security.

429
Q

define TPI.

A

2 person integrity.

430
Q

discuss encryption.

A

conversion of electrical data.

431
Q

discuss authentication.

A

protects against false transmissions.

432
Q

discuss classification.

A

protects against unauthorized exposure.

433
Q

discuss compromise.

A

security exposure.

434
Q

explain the objective of the personnel security program.

A

authorize access to classified information.

435
Q

describe the proper destruction of classified material.

A

completely destroyed, burned, shredded or chemical decomposition.

436
Q

describe confidential.

A

could cause damage if exposed.

437
Q

describe secret.

A

could cause serious damage.

438
Q

describe top secret.

A

could cause grave damage.

439
Q

what is NOFORN?

A

non-releasable to foreign nationals.

440
Q

what is FOUO?

A

for official use only.

441
Q

define HAZMAT.

A

hazardous material.

442
Q

define HAZWASTE.

A

hazardous waste.

443
Q

how often are HAZMAT stowage locations inspected?

A

weekly, quarterly.

444
Q

what do HAZMAT inspections look for?

A

corrosion, leakage, labeling and shelf life.

445
Q

where do you find information on the HAZMAT you are using?

446
Q

what are the six categories of HAZMAT?

A

flammable, aerosol, toxic, corrosive, oxidizing and gas compressed.

447
Q

what is the AUL?

A

authorized use listing.

448
Q

what is the purpose of the SDS?

A

information on HAZMAT.

EAWS (1 decks)

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