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EAWS Flashcards

1
Q

IM-2 Division Workcenters

A
  1. Airframes- AM
  2. Powerplants- AD
  3. Paraloft- PR
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2
Q

IM-3 Division Workcenters

A

Avionics & Armament

AE, AT, AO, AB, EM, ET, MM

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3
Q

IMA

A

Intermediate Maintenance Activity- an aviation activity authorized to provide I-level maintenance support

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4
Q

BCM

A

Beyond Capability of Maintenance- A term used by IMA when repair is not possible at that level

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5
Q

Flight Deck Control Stations (7 Stations)

A
  1. Flight Deck Officer
  2. Assistant Flight Deck Officer
  3. Aviation Fuels Representative
  4. Sound-Powered Phone Talkers
  5. Elevator Operators
  6. Weapons Personnel
  7. Squadron Maintenance Representative
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6
Q

NIIN

A

National Item ID Number- is a 9 digit Number which ID’s each NSN item in Federal Supply System

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7
Q

AVDLR

A

Aviation Depot Level Repair- Under this process the end user finances the D-level repair, usually by navy working capital fund (NWCF)

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8
Q

Accumulated Job Status History

A

The history of the Work Order from start to finish

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9
Q

Worker Hours

A

Includes: workers name, tools used, the QA inspected, and hours they worked.

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10
Q

The aircraft elevator deck edges are identified by ___?

A

6” by 12” red-and-white line

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11
Q

CATCC has 2 work centers ____ and ____

A

Air Ops & Carrier Controlled Approach (CCA)

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12
Q

Air Ops Stations: (5 Stations)

A
  1. Air Operations Officer
  2. Assistant Air Operations Officer
  3. Air Operations Supervisor
  4. Launch/ Land Record Keeper
  5. Plotter
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13
Q

First Take-Off from a Ship

A

November 14th 1910; Eugene Ely from USS Birmingham

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14
Q

Naval Aviation Birthday

A

May 8 1911; with the purchase of two A-1 Triads for $5500 each

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15
Q

Wind Velocity for “heavy” tie down

A

60+ knots; 20 chains

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16
Q

The Movement of Aircraft team? (6-10 Personnel)

A
  1. Move Director
  2. Brake Rider
  3. Chock Walker
  4. Safety Observer
  5. Tractor Driver
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17
Q

Type Maintenance

A

is pre-filled based on the type of WO selected

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18
Q

Type WO; How many characters?

A

2 character code that describes the type of maintenance to be performed

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19
Q

Blood Agents

A

Gas agents that attack enzymes carrying O2 in the blood system;
Cyanide; Arsine

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20
Q

Choking Agents

A

Gas or liquid agents that cause tears and dry throat

Phosgene & Diphosgene

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21
Q

NALCOMIS Purpose

A

Provides the capability to manage Maintenance supply functions and processes by allowing system users to use information required by the organization

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22
Q

OOMA Modules

A
  1. Maintenance subsystem
  2. Material subsystem
  3. Flight subsystem
  4. Logs and Records subsystem
  5. platform software interface
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23
Q

What voltage the aircraft (or windshield of aircraft) may collect during the flight

A

100,000 Volts

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24
Q

Wind velocity for initial tie-down

A

Up to 45 knots; 6 Chains

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25
Q

Workcenter

A

IDs the workcenter responsible to complete the maintenance action

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26
Q

Work Unit Code

A

a numeric or alpha-numeric code that IDs the system or subsystem of the malfunction

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27
Q

AWSE

A

Armament Weapons Support Equipment

  1. SKIDS- AERO 12C (1250 lbs.)
  2. Transporters- MHU 191/M (5000 lbs.)
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28
Q

What kind of Sea Sparrow Missles we have

A

RIM-7

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29
Q

CO2 bottle Stowage

A

12” wide red stripe & 3” high white “CO2” on the wheel stop coaming
18” circle & 5” high “CO2” on the flight deck

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30
Q

AFFF Station

A

18” wide green stripe & 3” high white “AFFF” on the wheel stop coaming
18” square & 3” high “AFFF” on the flight deck

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31
Q

Parking Apron

A

Areas used for parking, servicing, and loading aircraft

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32
Q

Compass Calibration Pad

A

A paved area in a magnetically quiet area where the aircraft compass is calibrated

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33
Q

What Link Systems E-2C Hawkeye use

A

Link II & JTIDS Data Link

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34
Q

SEAD? and what aircrafts?

A

Suppress Enemy Air Defense
EA-6B
EA-18G

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35
Q

Flight Deck Safety

A
  1. Jet Blast - Temperature and Velocity
  2. Rotor Wash- Velocity
  3. Prop Arcs
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36
Q

Who is permitted in the catwalks during launching

A

Members of the catapult crew

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37
Q

What is the primary Surface Search RADAR? Range?

A

SPS-67; 60 nautical miles

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38
Q

SPQ-9B Range

A

80-100 nautical miles

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39
Q

What is the difference between the maintenance control & Production Control?

A

Maintenance Control is at O-level

Production Control is at I-level

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40
Q

When MMP is getting ready?

A

The 25th of each month for O-level

the 1st of the month for I-level

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41
Q

Cold Weather Injuries

A
  1. hypothermia
  2. Superficial Frostbite
  3. Deep Tissue frostbite
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42
Q

Types of shock (CAHNS!)

A
  1. Cardiogenic
  2. Anaphylactic
  3. Hypovolemic
  4. Neurogenic
  5. Septic
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43
Q

Controlled movement of Rotary Wing Aircraft

A
  1. Roll/ Pitch (cyclic-stick) - Moves the angle of the rotor Blades
  2. Yaw (tail rotor)
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44
Q

Basic Aircraft Hydraulic system

A
  1. Reservoir
  2. Pump
  3. Tubes
  4. Selector Valve
  5. Actuating unit
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45
Q

What wind velocity for normal tie-down

A

up to 45 knots; 9 chains

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46
Q

What wind velocity for moderate tie-down

A

46-60 knots; 14 chains

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47
Q

Bombs

A

MK-82 => 500 lbs.
MK-83 => 1000 lbs.
MK-84 => 2000 lbs.

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48
Q

JDAM (Joint Direct Attack Munitions)

A

GBU-31 => BLU-109
GBU-32 => BLU-110
GBU-38 => BLU-111

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49
Q

Battle of Guadalcanal

A

November 13th-15th 1942; 5 Sullivan brothers died on USS Juneau

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50
Q

Speed

A

The rate of movement in terms of distance/time

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51
Q

6 basic core capabilities of the NAVY

A
  1. Forward Presense
  2. Deterrence
  3. Sea Control
  4. Power Projection
  5. Maritime Security
  6. Humanitarian Assistance
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52
Q

How often Hazmat Stowage location shall be inspected

A

Weekly & Quarterly

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53
Q

Air Plan elements (6 elements)

A
  1. Event number
  2. launch time
  3. recovery time
  4. mission
  5. Number and model of aircraft
  6. squadron and radio call
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54
Q

HAZMAT AUL

A

Authorized Use List- a currently known or suspected HAZMAT inventory

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55
Q

T/F keep collected petroleum fluids separate from synthetic fluids

A

True

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56
Q

NORDO

A

No Radio

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57
Q

Nugget

A

a first-tour pilot

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58
Q

Landing Signal Officer (LSO) clothing

A

White jersey, no cranial

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59
Q

MOVALS

A

Manually Operated Visual Landing Aid system

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60
Q

What is the altitude for “High altitude air burst”

A

100,000 feet

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61
Q

What non-self reading dosimeter do we use

A

DT-60; 0-600 roentgens

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62
Q

Air Department Khakis, EOD, and Ordnance Officers clothing

A

Cranial with 3 orange Stripes

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63
Q

Tractor King Clothing

A

Yellow Jersey with blue vest.

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64
Q

White Ammo Color Coding

A

Ammo that produces a colored light

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65
Q

Light Blue Color Coding

A

practice ammo

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66
Q

Bronze/ Gold/ Brass ammo color coding

A

Dummy Ammo

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67
Q

How many weapons elevators? Location?

A

9 elevators:
3- upper (2nd deck -> flight deck)
6- lower (7th deck -> 2nd (main) deck)

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68
Q

Red Light

A

time at which a helo will no longer be SAR capable and has around 30 minutes of flight time remaining

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69
Q

Tally-Ho!

A

a pilot report indicating a target has been visually acquired

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70
Q

light green dummy ammo color coding

A

smoke or “marker” ammo

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71
Q

light red ammo color coding

A

incendiary ammo.

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72
Q

Nerve Agents

A

Liquid agents that disrupt nerve impulses:

Sarin, Soman, Tabun, VX

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73
Q

Blister Agents

A

liquid or solid agents that can cause inflammation or blister on the skin
Distilled Mustard, Lewisite, Levinstein Mustard, Phosgene Oxime

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74
Q

Which Division Provides photographic support to the battle group?

A

OP Division

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75
Q

SPN-46 Nick-Names

A

Easyrider, PALS, ACLS

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76
Q

NSSMS Primary modes of operation are ___?

A
  1. Semi-automatic

2. Automatic

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77
Q

RAM missile range

A

3-4 nautical miles

78
Q

Division responsible for CIVIC and SUPPLOT

A

OZ division; IS, ET, IC

79
Q

Division responsible for providing special intel communications to the warfare commanders?
Rate?

A

OS division, CTs

80
Q

RHIB

A

Rigid Hull Inflatable Boat

81
Q

Anti-Submarine Warfare (ASW) torpedoes

A

MK-46 & MK-50

82
Q

Workcenter QA audit

A

to evaluate the overall quality performance of each work center.
SEMI-ANNUALLY

83
Q

Program QA audit

A

to evaluate specific programs

ANUALLY

84
Q

Types of 20mm ammo

A 
Target Practice (TP)
Target Practice Tracer (TPT)
High Explosive Incendiary (HEI)
High Explosive incendiary Tracer (HEIT)
Semi-Armor Piercing High Explosive Incendiary (SAPHEI)
85
Q

Landing Gear Main Components

A
  1. Shock Strut Assembly
  2. Tires- Roll and Traction
  3. Wheel Brake Assembly- to slow & stop the aircraft
  4. Retracting & Extending Mechanism- hardware to retract & extend the landing gear
  5. Side Struts and supports- provides lateral support for the landing gear.
86
Q

OOMA

A

optimized organizational maintenance activity

87
Q

Yellow Ammo Color Coding

A

1 Band- high explosives
2 Band- high explosives + thermally protected
3 Band- high explosives + thermally protected + insensitive explosive filler
4 band- + low collateral damage bomb (BLU-126)

88
Q

Brown Ammo

A

indicates rocket motors or low explosives

89
Q

CCS

A

Component Control Section- is responsible for the management and accounting of all repairable assets; has 4 units

90
Q

DCU

A

is responsible for the control of all non-RFI components in the IMA repair cycle

91
Q

Runway Numbering System

A

Runways are normally numbered in relation to their magnetic heading, rounded to the nearest 10 degrees Ex. 250 degrees == runway 25

92
Q

Airfield Rotating Beacon

A

it rotates clockwise at a constant speed: 2 white and 1 green flashing 12 to 15 times/ min

93
Q

MSDS

A

Material Safety Data Sheet- is technical bulletin, containing information about materials, such as chemical and physical characteristics

94
Q

PPE for supply (4 items)

A
  1. Eye protection
  2. Respiratory protection
  3. Gloves
  4. Foot protection
95
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition 3

A

Flight crew shall be in full flight gear in the “ready room”

96
Q

Aircraft readiness condition 4

A

Minor Maintenance may be performed on aircraft

97
Q

estimated cost for a false activation of the fire suppression system is _____?

A

$80,000

98
Q

CVN Hangar’s size?

A

110ft x 685 ft

99
Q

ER shore based recovery equipment

A

used during in flight ER to stop aircraft in the shortest distance possible with minimum casualty

100
Q

taxiways

A

paved areas for aircraft to move within flight deck

101
Q

maintenance/ production control

A

is in control of the maintenance to ensure successful operation or repair of critical assets

102
Q

JCN (job control number)

A

9 character alphanumeric code that is the basis for data collection

103
Q

Tower/ PRI-FLY stations; (9 Stations)

A
  1. Air Boss
  2. Mini Boss
  3. Primary Flight Control Supervisor
  4. Launch/ Landing Record Keeper
  5. ISIS computer Operator
  6. Forward Spotter
  7. Aft Spotter
  8. Recovery Equipment Controller
  9. FLOLS controller
104
Q

Air to Air Missiles

A

AIM-9X Sidewinder- 9.5’ x 5” 188 lbs- Passive
AIM-9M Sidewinder- 9.5’ x 5” 190 lbs- passive
AIM-7 Sparrow- 12’ x 8”, 510 lbs- semi-active
AIM-120 AMRAAM- 12’ x 7’ 348 lbs - active

105
Q

AMRAAM

A

Advanced Medium-Range Air-to-Air Missile

106
Q

OPTAR

A

Operating Target- S-I-F is responsible for daily OPTAR accounting, it is navy funds distributed by fleet commanders

107
Q

IMRL

A

Individual Material Readiness List- a consolidated list, shows items and quantities of certain SE

108
Q

PMCS

A

Partial Mission Capable Supply- material condition of an aircraft that can accomplish at least 1, but not all missions due to maintenance

109
Q

NSN

A

National Stock Number- is a 13 digit stock number assigned by defense logistic service center

110
Q

Material control & its responsibility

A

is to provide material support to their organization and coordinate indirect material requirements

Responsibilities:

  1. establish delivery/ Pick up points
  2. maintain liason with the supporting ASD
  3. prepare documents for material required
  4. finish information to the supply activity on the ID and quantity of material
  5. Establish Procedures to ensure proper operation of tool rooms
111
Q

Toxin Groups (CEND)

A
  1. Cytotoxins
  2. Entertoxins
  3. Neurotoxins
  4. Dermatoxins
112
Q

Individual Protective Equipment (IPE) for CBR

A
  1. Protective mask MCU-2P
  2. Advanced Chemical Protective Garment (ACPG)
  3. Chemical Protective gloves and liners
  4. Chemical protective boots
  5. skin decontamination kit
113
Q

landing LSE clothing

A

Green Jersey with red cranial

114
Q

Ordnance crews Clothing

A

Red Jersey with black stripes

115
Q

Velocity

A

the quickness or speed of an object in a given time and direction

116
Q

Controlled movement of fixed wing aircraft

A
  1. Roll- (ailerons)- longitudinal axis
  2. Pitch (elevators)- lateral axis
  3. Yaw (rudder) - vertical axis
117
Q

Battle of coral sea

A

May 7th-8th 1942, carriers didn’t see each other. USS lexington was Sunk

118
Q

Battle of Midway (HEY!!)

A

June 3rd-5th 1942
Hornet
Enterprise
Yorktown (was sunk)

119
Q

TRU

A

Technical Research Unit- is responsible for the verification of requisition data, such as stock number

120
Q

MDU

A

Material Delivery Unit- Is responsible for the pick-up and delivery of all material

121
Q

Clara

A

the pilot doesn’t have the visual landing aid in sight

122
Q

Holy Helo

A

helocopter used to transport chaplains

123
Q

Runways

A

areas that are used for takeoff and landing

124
Q

Threshold markings

A

parallel stripes on the ends of the runways which designate the landing area
12’ x 150’

125
Q

Fox CORPEN

A

the ships true heading during flight ops

126
Q

Rainmaker

A

an aircraft sent to a shore-based landing to verify its suitability as a divert field

127
Q

overrun area

A

Paved or un-paved section on the ends of the runways that provides extra space for aborting or overshooting

128
Q

MA-1 Series Overrun Barrier

A

stand by landing gear for aircrafts that are not equipped with tail hooks

129
Q

Bingo

A

Emergency/ Fuel Critical situation

130
Q

Charlie

A

signal for aircraft to land aboard the ship

131
Q

approach control responsibility

A

receives aircraft from marshall and passes to final control at 8 nautical miles

132
Q

final control responsibility

A

takes control of aircraft between 3 1/2 and & 8 miles

133
Q

CDI

A

Collateral Duty Inspector

134
Q

Special QA Program Audit

A

Conducted to evaluate specific maintenance tasks and programs
ANY TIME

135
Q

MMCO

A

Maintenance/ Material Control Officer

136
Q

RCM

A

Reliability Centered Maintenance- a process to ensure that assets continue to do what their users require in their present operating context

137
Q

FLOLS

A

Fresnel Lens Optical Landing System

138
Q

ILARTS

A

Integrated Launch and Recovery Television System

139
Q

Air to Surface Missiles

A

AGM-65E Maverick- 98” long- 634 lbs- semi-active
AGM-84 H/K SLAMER- 14.5’ long- 1500 lbs- active
AGM-88 HARM- 13’8” long- 795 lbs- passive electromagnetic
AGM-114 B/K Hellfire- 5’4” long- 100 lbs- semi-active
AGM-154 A/C JSOW- 13’4” long- 1040 lbs guided by GPS

140
Q

SLAMER

A

Standoff Land Attack Missile Expanded Repond

141
Q

HARM

A

High-Speed Anti-Radiation Missile

142
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition 1

A

Aircraft on the catapult or en-route to the catapult, pilots ready for flight

143
Q

Aircraft Readiness Condition 2

A

flight crew is not in the aircraft but they need to be on the flight deck or island

144
Q

Will

A

Indicates Futurity but never any degree of requirement for procedure

145
Q

May

A

indicates that procedures is optional

146
Q

First Fatality of naval aviation

A

June 20th 1913, Ensign Williams Billingsley (fell from 600 feet LT was injured)

147
Q

opening the spcial courses for training inspectors

A

October 22 1917, 14 men enrolled

148
Q

SRS

A

Supply Response Section- the single point of contact for processing customer requirements, has 5 units

149
Q

RCU

A

Requisition Control Unit- receives all requests for material requirements and prepares proper documents

150
Q

Receipt & delivery of parts & Material form

A

DD-1348 - only 1 item per paper

151
Q

OHO

A

Ordnance handling officer- responsible for all ordnance throughout the ship

152
Q

CPR (stands for)

A

Cardi pulmonary resuscitation

153
Q

Steps for CPR

A

Circulation
Airway
Breathing

154
Q

Departure Control Responsibility

A

Responsible for the Search & Rescue and Tankers

155
Q

Marshal Control Responsibility

A

Rack & Stack of Arriving Aircraft

21 nautical miles and 6000 feet altitude (6 angels)

156
Q

Navy’s First Carrier

A

March 20th 1922- USS Langley

157
Q

First Carrier Landing

A

March 10th 1948- FJ-1 Fury on USS Boxer

158
Q

Bomb Jettison Ramp

A

4” wide red & yellow stripes with a 12” black facsimile of a bomb centered

159
Q

Steam Smothering

A

18” black stripe & 3” white “steam” on the wheel stop coaming

160
Q

RPPO

A

Repair Parts Petty Officer

161
Q

ICRL

A

Individual Component Repair List- is a detailed statement of IMA’s component repair capability

162
Q

PMU

A

Program Management Unit- is responsible for processing and expediting of high priority items

163
Q

PEB

A

pre-expended bin unit- it is used to shorten the issue and accounting procedures for requiring issues

164
Q

AWP

A

Awaiting Parts Unit- is responsible for receiving, storing, and controlling all AWP components

165
Q

RAM

A

Repairable asset Management- maintains custody of high-cost aviation D-level repairables that are ordered by the individual work center

166
Q

LRCA

A

Local Repair Cycle Assets- is responsible for the receipt storage and issue of repairable assets

167
Q

SSU

A

Supply Screening Unit- is Responsible for processing of all items returned from the IMA

168
Q

FEDLOG

A

Federal Logistics- is an interactive data base that provices parts data for all items carried by the federal government supply system

169
Q

AMMRL

A

Aircraft Maintenance Material Readiness List- the program is the title of the overall Program for active management of SE at all levels of maintenance
Has more than 37,000 items

170
Q

What ships “Anti ships missile defense” do we have

A

MK-15 Phalanx CIWS (close in weapons system)

171
Q

What is the location of our CIWS

A

21 and 24

172
Q

How is Phalanx Controlled

A
  1. at the mounts

2. from remote panel at CDC (combat direction center)

173
Q

NSSMS

A

NATO Sea Sparrow Missile System

174
Q

LGB (Laser Guided Bomb)

A

GBU-12 => 500 lbs
GBU-16 => 1000 lbs
GBU-10 => 2000 lbs
GBU-24 => 2000 lbs (Hard Target Penetrator)

175
Q

What Aircraft Gun Systems do we have?

A

M61-A1- 4000 Rounds/Min

M61-A2- 6600 Rounds/Min

176
Q

Hot Pump

A

Aircraft are refueled on the flight deck with the engines running

177
Q

Mother

A

a term referring to the ship

178
Q

Purple-K-Power (PKP) on the flight deck

A

12” wide red stripe with 3” high PKP in the center of the wheel stop coaming
18”circle with 5” high PKP on the flight deck

179
Q

Salt Water stations on the Flight deck

A

18” wide red stripe with 3” high yellow “W” on the wheel stop coaming
18” red Triangle with yellow “w” on the flight deck

180
Q

Carrier Controlled Approach (CCA) stations DMAF

A
  1. Departure Control
  2. Marshal Control
  3. Approach Control
  4. Final Control
181
Q

CRIPL

A

Consolidated Remain in place list- is a listing of all authorized remain in place items

182
Q

NMCS

A

not mission capable supply- material condition of an aircraft that is not capable to accomplish any mission due to maintenance

183
Q

PALS

A

Precision Approach Landing System

184
Q

ACLS

A

Automatic Carrier Landing System

185
Q

99 Transmission

A

A Broadcast of information to all aircraft

186
Q

Air Plan

A

the schedule of flight operations for the next 24 hours

187
Q

HAZMAT disposal

A
  1. Double Bagged
  2. Labeled with: Name of Material, NSN, J-Dial, Work Center, Point of Contact (POC)
  3. Properly Stored
188
Q

NALCOMIS

A

Naval Aviation Logistics Command Management Information System

189
Q

Angels

A

Altitude of Aircraft in thousands of feet

190
Q

Ball

A

A pilot Reports that the visual landing aid is in sight

191
Q

3 Objectives of first aid

A
  1. Save LIfe
  2. Prevent Further Injury
  3. Prevent Infection
192
Q

how many pressure points on each side of the body

Ex.

A

11

ex Temple, jaw, collar bone, inner upper arm, inner elbow, groin, ankle

EAWS (1 decks)

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