Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

EAWS > Eaws > Flashcards

Eaws Flashcards

0
Q

4 methods to control bleeding

A

Direct pressure, elevation, pressure points and tourniquet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
1
Q

Three objectives of first aid

A

Prevent further injury, infection, and loss of life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is a pressure point

A

Point on body where a main artery lies near skin surface and over a bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Pressure point number and location

A

11; temple, jaw, neck, collar bone, inner upper arm, inner elbow, wrist, upper thigh, groin, knee, ankle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Burn classes

A

Three

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

First degree burn

A

Produces redness, warmth and mild pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Second degree

A

Red, blistered skin and severe pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Third degree

A

Destroys tissue, skin and bone. Nerve endings destroyed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Fracture types

A

Closed/simple or open/compound.

Closed is broken without a break in skin, open has bone protrusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Electric shock

A

Injuries range from severe trauma with cardiac arrest to no injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Obstructed airways

A

Can’t talk, pointing to throat, blue skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Heat exhaustion

A

Serious disturbance of blood flow to the brain, heart and lungs. Skin is cool, moist and clammy. Victim is sweating profusely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Heat stroke

A

Breakdown of sweating mechanism of body. Victim unable to eliminate excessive body heat build up. Dry skin. Weak, rapid pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Hypothermia

A

General cooling of whole body caused by exposure to low or falling temperature, snow or ice. Victim looks dead. Slow and shallow breathing. Faint pulse.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Superficial frostbite

A

Ice crystals forming in upper skin layers after exposure to a temp of 32 degrees or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Deep frostbite

A

Ice crystals forming in deeper tissues after exposure to 32 or lower

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is shock

A

Body suffers from insufficient blood flow throughout body as result of injury or illness. 5 types of shock; septic, anaphylactic, cardiogenic, hypovolemic, neurogenic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Septic shock

A

Results from bacteria multiplying in blood and releasing toxins. Common causes are pneumonia, ruptured appendix and meningitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anaphylactic shock

A

Hypersensitivity or allergic reaction. Stings or foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

Occurs when heart is damaged and unable to supply sufficient blood to body. End result of heart attack

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Hypovolemic shock

A

Severe blood and fluid loss, such as from traumatic bodily injury, which makes the heart unable to pump enough blood to body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Neurogenic shock

A

Caused by spinal cord injury, result of traumatic accident

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

CPR

A

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation; combo of rescue breathing and chest compressions delivered to victims thought to be in cardiac arrest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Point of CPR

A

It can support a small amount of blood flow to the heart and brain to buy time until normal heart function is restored

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

CPR steps

A

C/A/B. recognition of the importance chest compressions has on successful victim resuscitation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Why did they change it from abc to cab

A

Recognition of the importance cheat compressions have on successful victim resuscitation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Survival chain

A 
Activation of CPR
Cheat compressions
AED
Rapid defibrillator
Effective life support
Post-cardiac arrest care
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

ORM

A

Operational risk management ; decision making process used to identify and manage hazards that endanger naval resources. 5 step process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ORM steps

A 
Identify hazards
Asses hazards: degree of risk
Make risk decisions
Implement controls
Supervise: follow up evals
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Mishap classes

A

Three different classes identified by naval safety program

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Class A Mishap

A

Resulting total cost is 2 million or fatality/disability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Class B mishap

A

500,000 to 2 million, permanent partial disability or three or more personnel are inpatient hospitalized

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Class C

A

Total cost 50,000 - 500,000; any nonfatal injury that causes loss of work . Reporting is 5 or more days lost

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

PPE program

A

Last line of defense in event of equipment breakdown, failure or misuse. Cranial, eye protection, hearing protection, impact protection , gloves and foot protection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

NBC environment

A

Deliberate or accidental employment or threat of weapons attack with other CBR materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Chemical warfare

A

Employment of chemical agents to kill/injure/incapacitate personnel.
Nerve, blister, blood and choking

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Nerve agents

A

Liquid agents that disrupt nerve impulses to body while damaging body functions. Sarin, Tabun, Soman and VX

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Blister agents

A

Liquid or solid agents that can cause inflammation, blisters and destruction of tissues which results in temp blindness or death. Distilled mustard, lewisite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Blood agents

A

Gaseous casualty agents that attack the enzymes carrying oxygen in the blood stream. Rapid breathing or choking may occur due to lack of oxygen in the blood. Hydrogen Cyanide, Cyanogen Chloride, and Arsine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Choking agents

A

Gaseous or liquid with initial symptoms that include tears, dry throat, nausea, vomiting and headache. The lungs can be filled with fluid, feels like drowning. Rapid and shallow breathing.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

M9 chemical agent detector paper

A

Detects presence of liquid chemical agents by turning red. Doesn’t detect chemical agent vapors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Atropine 2 PAM chloride auto injector

A

Specific therapy for nerve agent casualties, issued for intramuscular injection, self aid or first aid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Biological warfare

A

Use of agents to cause disease, sickness, or death to reduce the effectiveness of opposing combatant forces is. Pathogens and Toxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Pathogens

A

Bacteria, rickettsia, viruses, fungi, Protozoa and prions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Toxins

A

Major groupings : mycotoxins (fungi), bacterial toxins, algal toxins, animal venoms

Primary groupings: physiological effects are neurotoxins, cytotoxins, enterotoxins and dermatoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

IPE for chemical/biological warfare

A

Individual protective equipment. Most important decision in risk management for chemical agents.
C2 canister filter
Gloves and liners
Over boots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Radiological warfare

A 
Nuclear explosion: 
High altitude
Air burst
Surface burst
Shallow underwater
Deep underwater
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

High altitude air burst

A

Excess of 100,000 feet

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Air burst

A

Fireball doesn’t reach the surface. Vacuum created collects debris caused by severe blast damage resulting in radiation fallout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Surface burst

A

Worst fallout due to fireball touching the surface which results in massive radioactive fallout

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Shallow underwater burst

A

Small fireball and blast wave however, it causes large waves and water contamination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Deep underwater burst

A

Is similar to the shallow underwater burst but with less visual effect and yields greater contaminated water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Shipboard shielding stations

A

Ready shelter and deep shelter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Ready shelter

A

Just inside the weather envelope , with access to deep shelter. Provide minimum shielding from nuclear radiation and allow the crew to remain close to battle stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Deep shelter stations

A

Low in ship and near the centerline. Provide max shielding from nuc radiation, requiring far removed from battle stations

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

DT 60 dosimeter

A

Non self reading high range casualty dosimeter, which has to be placed in a special radical computer indicator to determine the total amount of gamma radiation to which the wearer is exposed in the 0-600 roentgens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

MOPP

A

Mission oriented protective posture; coordinate use of systems and equipment in chem or biological environment. Full protection isn’t always required. Mopp levels 0-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Mopp 0

A

Issue IPE, within five min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Mopp 1

A

Don protective equip, m9 tape

Afloat: mask,gloves ready

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

Mopp 2

A

Over boots

Afloat: mask carried

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Mopp 3

A

Fill canteens, activate stations

Afloat: install filters, over boots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Mopp 4

A

Gloves with liners, untie bow in cord, loop between legs and secure to web belt
Afloat: don mask, gloves, washdown

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Primary duty of fire fighting

A

Saving lives

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Secondary responsibility of firefighting

A

Extinguish fires and limit damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Fire triangle

A

Replaced by fire tetrahedron;
Triangle was oxygen, heat and fuel.
4th element is chemical chain reaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Fire classes

A

ABCD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Class alpha fire

A

Occur in combustible materials that produce an ash such as burning wood, cloth or paper. Effective extinguishing agents are water or Aquous film forming foam

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Class bravo fire

A

Occur with flammable liquid substances such as gasoline, jet fuels and other petroleum based products. Effective extinguishing agents are AFFF, halon 1211, purple k powder, and carbon dioxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

Class Charlie fire

A

Energized electrical fires that are attacked by using non-conductive agents. Effective agents for energized are co2, halon, pkp and h2o in fig patterns with a minimum distance of 4 feet. If de-energized, treat as a,b or d fire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Class delta fire

A

Combustible metals such as magnesium or titanium. Effective agents are large qualities of H2O in fog. Be careful of small explosions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

AFFF

A

Aqueous film forming foam; non corrosive and unlimited shelf life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Water extinguishing agent

A

Not suitable to be used alone on large aircraft fuel fires. It has the ability to cool and provide heat shield for personnel. Effective for cooling ordnance, batteries and class a fires

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Halon

A

Class B and C** primary. Effective on class A. Electrically nonconductive gas that leaves residue to clean up. Inhibits chemical chain reaction of combustion process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Carbon dioxide

A

15 pound portable and 50 pound wheeled. Class B and C** Suppresses fire by displacement of oxygen to below level required to support combustion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Potassium bicarbonate (pkp)

A

Class B** The dry chemical extinguishes the flame by breaking combustion chain. No cooling capabilities. Could reignite.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Required flight line pipe

A

Steel toed shoes, cranial, goggles and leather gloves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Airfield components

A 
Runways
Threshold markings ( parallel stripes 12ft by 150 ft long to designate landing area)
Overrun area (deceleration area) 
Emergency shore based recovery equip ( landing in shortest distance possible)
Parking apron 
Compass rose ( magnetically quiet area)
Runway numbering (mag heading to nearest 10 degrees. 250 deg = runway 25)
Rotating beacon ( airport below VFR conditions, beacon is used to identify location. Clockwise 2white and 1green flashing 12-15 times per min)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Flight deck safety

A

Oil, grease and fuel slip hazards.

Jet intakes, exhaust, rotor and prop arcs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Flight deck extra ppe

A

Jersey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Jersey colors

A 
Yellow is officer (handling, flight deck)
White is safety
Brown is plane captain
Blue is aircraft handling and chock crew
Red is crash crew
Purple is fuel
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Runways

A

Take off and landing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Threshold markings

A

Designate the landing area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

Overrun area

A

Deceleration area for abort or overshooting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Ma-1 series overrun barrier

A

Stop tricycle landing gear equipped aircraft not equipped with tail hooks. Always in stby status

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

Compass rose

A

Calibration pad. Magnetically quiet area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Runway numbering system

A

Numbered in relation to mag heading rounded off to nearest 10 degrees. 250=25. If 2, then left and right added. 3 incorporates center

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

Airfield rotating beacon

A

When airport below VFR conditions, the beacon is used to identify its location. Clockwise at constant speed. 2 white lights and one green flashing 12to 15 times per min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

SE rules

A

Vehicles should never pass under any part of a parked aircraft and all vehicles should be driven or parked adjacent to AC to prevent collision. If motor running the SE must be manned.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Aviation danger areas

A

Intakes, exhaust, flight controls, compressed gases, cryogenics, explosives, haz mat, eye, hearing, etc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Ground

A

Connector, cable, clip and approved static ground. It discharges the static electricity. Ground to aircraft.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Windshield static grounding

A

During flight a high voltage(100000 volts) static electrical discharge may build up and be stored in windshield.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Tie down categories

A

Up to 45= normal 9 chains
46-60= moderate. 14 chains
Above 60= heavy 20 chains

92
Q

Aircraft critical walkways that cannot be walked on

A

NO STEP

If maint work needed, maint stand required

93
Q

Towing speed

A

5mph or slowest walker

94
Q

Moving (tow) crew

A

6-10 ppl

Director, brake rider, chock walkers, safety observers and driver

95
Q

Threatcon scale

A

Determines the condition for defense of US homeland

96
Q

Defcon scale

A

Determines the posture of the military to prepare for the likelihood of war

97
Q

Force protection conditions (fpcons)

A

Series of measures designed to increase the level of a units defense against terrorist attacks. They are not aimed at specific threats but selected based on a combo of factors. Ex: threat level, capability to penetrate existing security systems, risk of attack, assets ability to execute its mission even if attacked

98
Q

Who sets the fpcon level

A

Commanders at any level

99
Q

Fpcon normal

A

General global threat of terrorist activity exists and warrants a routine security posture

100
Q

Fpcon alpha

A

Increased general threat of terrorist, nature of extent unpredictable.

101
Q

Fpcon bravo

A

Increased or more predictable terrorist threat exists.

102
Q

Fpcon Charlie

A

Terrorist attack is likely (incident or intelligence). Prolonged implementation may create hardships

103
Q

Fpcon delta

A

Immediate area where terrorist attack has occurred or imminent.

104
Q

Defense readiness condition (defcon)

A

Alert posture used by the armed forces. Developed by the joint chiefs of staff, unified and combatant commands. 5 stages of alert

105
Q

Defcon conditions

A

5: normal peace time
4: normal, increased intel and strengthened security measures
3: increase in force readiness
2: further increase in readiness
1: max force readiness

106
Q

NAMP

A

Naval aviation maintenance program. 4790

107
Q

Objective of namp

A

Achieve and continually improve aviation material readiness and safety standards established by CNO with coordination from CMC with optimum use of manpower, material. Facilities and funds. Standardize operations. CNO is in charge of NAMP.

108
Q

Maintenance officer- lcdr kitzmiller

A

Head of maint department. Responsible to the CO for all accomplishments of the departments mission

109
Q

Aircraft maintenance officer

A

Assistant head. Coordinates TAD, inspects spaces, SE training and licensing and manpower management

110
Q

Maintenance/material control officer

A

Overall production and material support of the department. Monitors workload and prepares/publishes MMP

111
Q

Maintenance master chief

A

Senior enlisted advisor for maintenance. Reports to the MO and advises the CO in all matters affecting aircraft operations, maintenance and personnel. Directs all on a day to day basis

112
Q

Quality assurance officer

A

Ensure personnel receive continuous training in inspection, testing, and quality control methods.

113
Q

Material control officer

A

Handling of finances, material requisition, etc

114
Q

Three level maint

A

O, I And D

115
Q

O level maintenance

A

Day to day basis in support of own operations. Goal is to maintain full mission capable status

116
Q

I level

A

Quality and timely material support at the nearest location with lowest practical resource expenditure

117
Q

D level

A

Performed at or by FRC sites to ensure continued flying integrity of airframes and flight systems. Material requiring major overhaul or rebuilding of parts.

118
Q

Two types of maintenance described in NAMP

A

Rework and upkeep. Rework is restore. Upkeep is prevent.

119
Q

Turnaround inspection

A

Conducted between flights to ensure the integrity of aircraft for flight. Proper servicing and detects degradation from previous flight. Good for 24 hours if no flight/maintenance occurs

120
Q

Daily inspection

A

Inspect for defects to a greater depth then turn around. Valid for 72 hours without flight or major maint. Can be flown for 24 hours before another daily is needed

121
Q

Special inspection

A

Scheduled with prescribed interval. Based on elapsed calendar time, flight hours, operating hours, or number of cycles. Ex; 7/28 day, 50/100/200 hours.

122
Q

Conditional Inspection

A

Unscheduled as a result of over limit condition, or circumstances needing an inspection

123
Q

Phase inspection

A

Divides total scheduled maintenance requirement into smaller packages or phases of same work content. Sequentially and at specified intervals

124
Q

Acceptance

A

Performed when accepting a newly assigned aircraft or SE from any source and on return from major depot maintenance

125
Q

Transfer inspection

A

Performed when transferring AC or SE

126
Q

Rework maintenance : reliability centered maintenance

A

Ensure assets continue to do what their users require in present operating context. Others include aircraft service period adjustment and periodic maintenance interval

127
Q

Maintenance management

A

Actions necessary to retain or restore material or equipment to a serviceable condition with minimum expenditure of resources

128
Q

Maint control vs production control

A

Maint control is O level

Production control is I level

129
Q

Two of the most critical aspects in naval aviation are…

A

The release of an aircraft for safe for flight and the acceptance of an aircraft.

130
Q

Mmp

A

Monthly maintenance plan; provide scheduled control of predictable maint workload. By scheduling predictable maint, the capability for accomplishing unscheduled work can be determined. Prepared and distributed by the 25th of each month for o level and first for I level

131
Q

Aircraft logbook

A

Record of equipment, inspections, scheduled removal items and installed equipment.

132
Q

Each aircraft logbook is broken down into different sections;

A

Non aging record, flight time, inspection, repair, td, miscellaneous, etc

133
Q

QA

A

Quality assurance ; prevention of the occurrence of defects

134
Q

Achievement of QA depends on

A

Prevention, knowledge and special skills

135
Q

Quality assurance rep

A

Maintenance personnel assigned to QA are known as QARs. They certify that the work involved has been personally inspected by them, properly completed and in accordance with instructions and directives

136
Q

Collateral duty QAR

A

Assigned to production work centers but function same as QARs.

137
Q

CDI

A

Assigned to work center. Inspect all work and comply with QA inspections during all maint inspections. Spot check all work in progress and will be familiar with provisions and responsibilities.

138
Q

QA manages

A

6: ctpl, safety, audit, SE, acsp and namdrp

139
Q

Ctpl

A

Central technical publications library: up to date info for all personnel.

140
Q

Maint department /Division safety

A

QA is assigned overall responsibility in order to help out with posters/literature, hazards/mishaps/unsafe practices, safety meetings and coordinate with aviation safety officer

141
Q

QA audit program

A

Assessment of effectiveness of programs managed within the maintenance department. Serve as an orderly method of identifying , investigating, and correcting deficiencies on sched/unsched basis. CSEC standardizes.

142
Q

Three types if QA audits

A

Special, work center and program audits

143
Q

Special QA audit

A

Evaluate specifics. May be requested by work center or when new supervisor is assigned. Copies held for one year

144
Q

Work center audit

A

Semi-annually to evaluate overall quality performance. Personnel, programs, logs, etc

145
Q

Program audits

A

Evaluate specific programs. Annually

146
Q

SE misuse/abuse

A

All personnel must be fully knowledgeable of operation, safety, emergency and be qualified.

147
Q

ACSP

A

Aircraft confined space program; ensure safe environment is maintained when working with fuel cells and tanks

148
Q

NAMDRP

A

Naval aviation maintenance reporting program; QA maintains the program binder and assist with reporting of substandard workmanship, improper QA procedures and deficiencies in material and publication.

149
Q

NATOPS

A

Naval air training and operating procedures standardization

150
Q

Purpose of Natops

A

Positive approach toward improving combat readiness and achieving substantial reduction in aircraft mishap rate

151
Q

Natops history

A

Established in 1962. In 1950 we were losing 2 airplanes per day. After standardization, down to less than 2 per 10,000 flight hours

152
Q

Engine start procedures

A

Before starts, the wheels shall be chocked and parking brake set unless a deviation is authorized by NATOPS.
Man the fire extinguishing equipment.

153
Q

Warning

A

May result in injury or death

154
Q

Caution

A

Damage to equipment

155
Q

Note

A

Emphasized

156
Q

Shall

A

Mandatory

157
Q

Should

A

Recommended

158
Q

May

A

Optional

159
Q

Will

A

Futurity

160
Q

Vert stabilizer identification markings

A

Comnavairlant: first A-M, second A-Z
Comnavairpac: first N-Z, second A-Z
Cnatra: first A-G, no second character

161
Q

14Nov1910

A

First take off from a ship by Eugene Ely. Uss Birmingham

162
Q

8May1911

A

First planes purchased for 5500 each: A-1Triad. Birthday of Naval Aviation

163
Q

20june1913

A

First fatality of Naval aviation of ensign William billingsley

164
Q

22oct1917

A

First qualified inspectors : QAR

165
Q

20mar1922

A

Jupiter recommisioned after conversion to navy’s first carrier: Langley

166
Q

10mar1948

A

Fj-1 fury, the first navy jet, made its first carrier landing on the USS Boxer

167
Q

7-8 may 1942

A

Coral sea; Japan was trying to seize port moresby as a first step to invade Australia. First carrier vs carrier battle. Both withdrew

168
Q

3-5 june1942

A

Midway: turning point of pacific war. We knew what to expect by breaking Japan’s codes. Admiral Nimitz destroyed Japan forces with just three carriers

169
Q

13-15 November 1942

A

Guadalcanal: 5 brothers were aboard the USS Juneau which was torpedoed by the Japanese. Navy policy concerning family member separations was reinstated.

170
Q

Three types of motion pertaining to flight

A

Acceleration: rate of change of speed with time.
Speed: rate of movement in terms of distance in a period of time.
Velocity:speed in time and direction

171
Q

Newton’s first law

A

Inertia. Object at rest will stay at rest until outside force

172
Q

Newton’s second law

A

Force. Change of motion is directly proportional To the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved

173
Q

Newton’s third law

A

Action and reaction. For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction

174
Q

Bernoullis principle

A

When a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction or narrowing point, the speed of the fluid passing increases and pressure decreases. Lift is accomplished by the difference in the airflow across the airfoil.

175
Q

Lift

A

Force that acts, in an upward direction, to support the aircraft in the air. Counteracts the effect of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight

176
Q

Weight

A

Force of gravity acting downward on aircraft and everything on aircraft

177
Q

Drag

A

Force that tends to hold aircraft back. Disruption of air about the wings, fuselage or body. Drag resists motion

178
Q

Thrust

A

Force developed by aircrafts engine, in the forward direction. Thrust must be greater than or equal to drag

179
Q

Aircraft axis

A

Longitudinal: line from nose to tail (roll ailerons)
Lateral: parallel to wings(pitch elevators)
Vertical: top to bottom(yaw rudder)

180
Q

Rotary wing pitch/roll/yaw

A

Roll/pitch- cyclic stick

Yaw- tail rotor

181
Q

Flap

A

Creates extra lift by lengthening the top section of the wing

182
Q

Spoiler

A

Decrease wing lift by destroying smooth flow of air over wing surfaces, creates a more predictable landing glide slope

183
Q

Speed brakes

A

Reduce speed of aircraft

184
Q

Slats

A

Boundary layer control; control handling characteristics

185
Q

Collective

A

For helos, lift is accomplished by collectively increasing the angle of attack of the blades

186
Q

AoA

A

Angle of attack; angle at which fuselage meets a flow of air. Measured in units

187
Q

Autorotation

A

Land without engine power. Reverse airflow maintains RPM.

188
Q

Basic aircraft hydraulic system

A

Reservoir, pump, tubing, selector valve and actuating unit

189
Q

Landing gear main components

A

Shock strut assy, tires, wheel brake assy, retracting/extending mechanism, side struts and supports

190
Q

Nalcomis

A

Naval aviation logistics command management information system; manage maintenance and supply functions and processes by allowing users to enter, collect, process, store review and report info required. Reduces admin burden and keeps maint up to date

191
Q

Ooma

A

Optimized organizational maintenance activity; O level computer server (tier) of maintenance, material, flight, platform and logs.
Ability to review status, flying discrepancies, alss status, SE status and mme status

192
Q

Maintenance control responsibilities

A

Monitor current AC/equip status, work center priorities, fcf briefs, work orders, adb, priority codes, maf initiation,

193
Q

WO data fields

A

Jcn (9 characters), type maint, type WO (2), job status history, worker hours, work center and work unit code (system code)

194
Q

Common types of Work Center

A

Discrepancy maint, troubleshooting, cannibalization, assist, facilitate, conditional look, conditional fix, special inspection and technical directive

195
Q

OIMA

A

Optimized IMA; provides the capability to manage maint and supply at intermediate level.

196
Q

Data accuracy

A

Accurate documentation must be a continuous concern throughout nalcomis.

197
Q

Core capabilities (6)

A

Forward presence, deterrence, sea control, power projection, maritime security and humanitarian/disaster relief.

FDSPMH

198
Q

HSC

A

Helicopter seA combat

199
Q

Hsm

A

Helicopter maritime strike ( asw/asuw)

200
Q

Ht

A

Helicopter training

201
Q

Vaq

A

Tactical electronic warfare ( degrade and deceive enemy defense)

202
Q

VAW

A

Carrier Airborne Early Warning

203
Q

VC

A

Fleet Composite

204
Q

VFA

A

Strike fighter

205
Q

VP

A

Patrol; anti sub, anti surface, reconnaissance and mining

206
Q

VQ

A

Fleet air reconnaissance ( fixed wing)

207
Q

VR

A

Aircraft logistics support

208
Q

VRC

A

Carrier logistics support

209
Q

VT

A

Training

210
Q

VX/VXE

A

Air test and evaluation

211
Q

HAZMAt

A

Any material that may pose a substantial hazard to human health or environment when released or spilled. It is everyone’s job to ensure the proper disposal and storage

212
Q

Hazmat storage and inspection

A

Inspected weekly and quarterly ; tightness of closure, corrosion, leakage, labeling and shelf-life

213
Q

MSDS

A

Material safety data sheets; technical bulletins containing info about materials (composition, chemical, physical, health, safety and precautions

214
Q

Six categories of hazmat

A

Flammable, aerosol, toxic, corrosive, oxidizing and compressed

215
Q

Secondary labeling of hazmat

A

When removed from original container

216
Q

Hazmat authorized use list

A

Inventory. Work centers maintain a current inventory of items authorized

217
Q

Hazmat training for all hands

A

Types, waste, labels, MSDS and emergency procedures

218
Q

Hazardous waste disposal

A

Hazwaste is disposed based on category of Hazwaste. Containers, double bagged and drums.

219
Q

Flammable Hazwaste

A

Fire safe containers. Never place in ships incinerator

220
Q

Hazmat PPE

A

Read MSDS. General=eye protection, respiratory devices and gloves

221
Q

Hazmat/Hazwaste spill

A

Only trained personnel.
Steps: discovery, notification, initiation of action, evaluation, containment, damage control, dispersion, cleanup, disposal, re-entry, reports. 11

222
Q

Hangar

A

Environmentally protected area to perform maintenance on aircraft or store away from elements.

223
Q

Types of hangars

A

Three types

224
Q

Vp 9 hangar

A

Type 3, 165 deep x165 wide

225
Q

Hangar items

A

Painted red fire lane, portable CO2 fire extinguishers, electrical system, hangar doors, grounds

226
Q

Hangar fire protection systems

A

AFFF, overhead water sprinkler, optical detection system, drainage system, draft curtains

227
Q

Estimated cost of false fire suppression activation

A

Excess of 80,000

EAWS (2 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions