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Golden Guide > Easy Day > Flashcards

Easy Day Flashcards

1
Q

Sphenomandibular ligament is from

A

Meckels cartilage
- meckel’s creates the malleus, symphysis, mandible

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2
Q

What composes Keisselbach’s plexus

A

GASS
- greater palatine
- anterior ethmoid
- sphenopalatine
- superior labial

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3
Q

Location of greater palatine foramen

A

Posterior angle of the hard palate
- related to upper 3rd (55%)
- 2nd molar (12%)
- between 2nd and 3rd (19%)
- retromolar (14%)
- 0.35 cm from the posterior hard palate

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4
Q

Name the intramembranous bones

A

Skull
Facial bones except condyle
Clavicle

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5
Q

What passes through the optic canal

A

Ophthalmic artery or vein
Optic nerve
Optic artery
Sympathetic fibers
(Optic vein is in the superior orbital fissure)

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6
Q

Efferent and afferent of corneal reflex

A

Afferent: nasociliary of V1
Efferent: temporal and zygomatic of VII

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7
Q

Superior orbital fissure contents

A

CN III, IV, V1, VI
Superior ophthalmic v.
Cavernous plexus sympathetic fibers

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8
Q

Inferior orbital fissure contents

A

Zygomatic branch of V2, ascending branches from pterygopalatine ganglion
Infraorbital vessels

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9
Q

Where is the inferior oblique muscle located

A

Originate from medial orbital surface of maxilla

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10
Q

Perichondritis after otoplasty organisms

A

Staph aureus, e. Coli, pseudomonas

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11
Q

Ideal auriculocephalic angle

A

25-35 degrees

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12
Q

What age to consider otoplasty

A

4 years

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13
Q

Where is McGregor’s patch located

A

“Bloody gulch”
- area of zygomatic prominence with plexus of vessels and strong fibrous attachments that can present as skin dimpling or retraction (important in rhytidectomies)

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14
Q

What nerves are of concern of McGregor’s patch

A

Facial n. Becomes more superficial and buccal nerve lies deep

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15
Q

What direction should the chisel be directed when osteotomizing the pterygoid plates during lefort

A

Downward, forward, and medial

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16
Q

Where is the maxillary artery in the pterygomaxillary fossa

A

Approx 20-25 mm superior to the pterygomaxillary fissure
A 1 cm osteotome has a wide 1+ safety margin

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17
Q

How to prevent hemorrhage during Lefort

A

Only chisel back 30 mm on lateral nose to avoid DPAs

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18
Q

Where is Erb’s point and significance

A

6 cm inferior to ear lobule on POSTERIOR border of SCM
- greater auricular and accessory nerves just deep to fascia at this point

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19
Q

What surrounds the lacrimal sac

A

Lacrimal bone and frontal process of the maxilla
- also vascular plexus called cavernous body)
- anterior and posterior limbs of medial canthal tendon

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20
Q

What is the modiolus

A

Area of confluence of 5 facial expression muscles just lateral to the corner of the mouth
- represents the configuration of the nasolabial fold along with the cheek bone
- levator anguli oris, zygomaticus major, risorius, platysma, depressor anguli oris

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21
Q

Levator veli palatini inserts onto what

A

Palatine aponeurosis in normal people but onto hard palate in clefts

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22
Q

Facial muscles are usually innervated from the deep side except which muscles

A

Levator anguli superioris, buccinators, and mentalis

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23
Q

Where does the lacrimal duct exit

A

Opening of the nasolacrimal duct into the INFERIOR nasal meatus is partially covered by the VALVE OF HASNER

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24
Q

Name the visual field deficit in
1. Optic radiation and optic tract lesions
2. Optic chiasm lesions
3. Optic n. Injury

A
  1. Contralateral visual field deficit in both eyes (homonymous hemianopsia)
  2. Bitemporal hemianopsia
  3. Ipsilateral blind eye
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25
Q

What is the danger zone of the facial nerve as it crosses the zygomatic arch

A

0.8 to 3.2 cm anterior to the tragus

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26
Q

What attaches to Whitnall’s tubercle (lateral orbital tubercle) and why is it clinically important

A

Confluence of lateral canthal tendon
Inferior suspensory/Lockwood’s ligament
Multiple check ligaments of the lateral rectus that form the lateral retinaculum
- clinically important bc lateral canthal tendon should be reattached to the tubercle
- located 1 cm inferior to frontozygomatic suture and 3-4 mm internal to lateral orbital rim

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27
Q

What structure is an extension of periosteum in orbit

A

Orbital septum

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28
Q

What % of the time is the lingual n. Above the alveolar crest

A

14%
Generally located 2 mm medially and 3 mm inferiorly to crest on average in 3rd molar region

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29
Q

What is the most common reason for permanent lingual n. Injury

A

Lingual plate fracture

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30
Q

Indications for coronectomy

A
  1. Significant risk of nerve injury
    - roots remain vital and get bony fill of socket
    OR
    - roots need extraction at later date but will migrate away from nerve as they should continue to erupt following crown removal
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31
Q

Most common radiographic finding associated with IAN damage with 3rds

A

Rood criteria
Loss of cortical border of nerve
Darkening of root
Deviation of canal

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32
Q

Optic canal is located how far posterior to the posterior ethmoid canal

A

4-7 mm posterior
General rule of medial orbit: 24, 12, 6
Anterior ethmoid = 24 mm posterior to anterior portion of lacrimal bone
Posterior ethmoid is 12 mm posterior to that
Optic canal is 6 mm posterior to that

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33
Q

MRI basics with T1 and T2

A

T1: hyperintense fat, hypointense fluid
T2: fat and fluid are both hyperintense

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34
Q

Marginal mandibular branch in relation to mandible anterior/posterior to facial artery

A
  • anterior to crossing the facial artery, always superior to mandible
  • posterior to crossing facial artery, below (19-53%) the mandible but never lower than 1.5 cm
  • risdon incision is made 2 cm inferior to mandible
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35
Q

Why is Risdon incision made 2 cm inferior to the mandible

A

Posterior to where marginal mandibular branch crosses the facial artery, below the mandible 19-53% of time but never lower than 1.5 cm below mandible

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36
Q

What muscles are supplied by facial n.

A

Muscles of facial expression
Stapedus
Posterior belly of digastric
Stylohyloid

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37
Q

What glands supplied by parasympathetics from facial n.

A

Sublingual
Submandibular
Lacrimal glands

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38
Q

What nerve supplies parasympathetics to the parotid

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

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39
Q

What muscles does the vagus supply

A

Cricothyroid
Levator veli palatine
Salpingopharyngeus
Palatoglossus
Palatopharyngeus
Sup/mid/inferior pharyngeal constrictors
Muscles of the larynx

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40
Q

What intrinsic muscle of the larynx is NOT supplied by the recurrent laryngeal

A

Cricothyroid (superior laryngeal n.)

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41
Q

What muscles does the hypoglossal supply

A

All muscles of the tongue EXCEPT THE PALATOGLOSSUS (X)

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42
Q

What muscle does the glossopharyngeal supply

A

Stylopharyngeus

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43
Q

What muscles are supplied by CN V

A

Mastication muscles, tensor veli palatini, mylohyoid, anterior digastric, tensor tympani

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44
Q

Taste to posterior 1/3 of tongue

A

Glossopharyngeal (IX)

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45
Q

Taste to posterior epiglottis

A

Vagus n. (X)

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46
Q

Nerve that carries sensory info from carotid sinus to carotid body

A

IX

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47
Q

What does the nucleus of Edinger-Westphal supply

A

Parasympathetics to the iris sphincter and ciliary muscles via CN III

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48
Q

Superior salivary nucleus function

A

Parasympathetics to the lacrimal, sublingual, submandibular glands via CN VII

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49
Q

Solitary nucleus function

A

Taste from facial n., glossopharyngeal and vagus n.
Chemo/mechano receptors from carotid body via CN IX and aortic body via X

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50
Q

Nucleus ambiguus function

A

Motor neurons to CN IX and X supplied muscles

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51
Q

Inferior salivatory nucleus function

A

Parasympathetics to parotid via CN IX

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52
Q

What derives from the 1st brachial arch

A
  1. Mastication muscles, anterior digastric, mylohyoid, tensor tympani, tensor veli palatine
  2. Trigeminal n. (V)
  3. Maxillary artery, external carotid artery
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53
Q

What derives from the 2nd brachial arch

A
  1. Facial n. (VII)
  2. Facial muscles
  3. Stapedial a. And hyoid a.
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54
Q

What derives from the 3rd brachial arch

A
  1. Glossopharyngeal n. (IX)
  2. Stylopharyngeus m.
  3. Common and internal carotid arteries
  4. INFERIOR parathyroid
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55
Q

What derives from the 4th brachial arch

A
  1. Vagus (superior laryngeal n.)
  2. Cricothyroid m.
  3. Intrinsic soft palate muscles except tensor veli palatine
  4. Thyroid cartilage
  5. SUPERIOR thyroids
  6. Epiglottic cartilage
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56
Q

What is derived from the 6th brachial arch

A
  1. Vagus n. (Recurrent laryngeal)
  2. All intrinsic larynx muscles EXCEPT cricothyroid
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57
Q

What divides the lateral pharyngeal space

A

Styloid process
Fascial attachments of the levator veli palatini called the aponeurosis of Zuckerkandl and Testut

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58
Q

Where should extraoral incision for drainage of superior/deep temporal spaces be placed

A

Essentially a Gilles approach incision

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59
Q

Where should extraoral incision for drainage of submandibular, sublingual, submasseteric and pterygomandibular spaces be placed

A

Essentially smaller versions of a Risdon incision
- incision large enough to get your finger into
Blunt dissection with tonsils, Kelly’s or your finger +/- drain placement t

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60
Q

Where should extraoral incision for lateral pharyngeal and retropharyngeal spaces be placed

A

Very low risdon type incision
OR
Vertically down the anterior border of the SCM if need to go deeper or access carotid sheath

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61
Q

Lymph node levels of the neck

A

Level 1: submandibular (Ia) and submental (Ib)
Level II: upper 1/3 of jugular from skull base to inferior border of hyoid
- posterior border is the posterior SCM and anterior is sternohyoid
Level III: from hyoid to inferior cricoid cartilage and bounded anteriorly and posterior just like II
Level IV: inferior cricoid to clavicle along the SCM
Level V: posterior SCM back to anterior trap and extends from apex of SCM and trap junction down to clavicle
Level VI: central compartment between carotids and bounded superiorly by hyoid and inferiorly by sternal notch

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62
Q

What is the lymph node on the cricothyroid membrane called that is frequently encountered in thyroidectomy just deep to the thyroid

A

Delphian lymph node

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63
Q

Antihypertensive with fat and glucose metabolism destruction

A

Beta-blocking anti-HTN

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64
Q

Name the lung volumes and what makes up each

A
  • Inspiratory capacity = Inspiratory reserve volume + Tidal volume
  • vital capacity = IRV + TV + ERV
  • Functional residual capacity = ERV + residual volume
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65
Q

What is restrictive lung disease and what happens to FEV1/FVC

A
  • Related to fibrotic process: ARDS, sarcoidosis, etc
    FEV1/FVC is normal or increased
    Functional residual capacity (FRC), TLC and RV are all decreased
66
Q

What is obstructive lung disease and what happens to FEV1/FVC

A

Asthma, COPD, emphysema
FEV1 significantly reduced
Volumes are unchanged, but flow rates are impeded

67
Q

Name some non-selective beta blockers

A

Carvedilol
Labetalol
Pindolol
Propranolol
Sotalol

68
Q

What is histotoxic hypoxia

A

Inability of cells to take up O2 despite normal delivery
Usually results from poisoning with alcohol, narcotics, cyanide, etc

69
Q

Name beta blockers with intrinsic sympathomimetic activity

A

Acebutolol
Oxyprenolol
Penbutolol
Pindolol

70
Q

Which beta blockers also have alpha blocking activity

A

Carvedilol
Labetalol

71
Q

Beta-1 selective antagonist agents

A

Atenolol
Esmolol
Metoprolol

72
Q

Some contraindications to beta blocker use

A

Asthma
Hx of cocaine use

73
Q

Treatment of beta blocker overdose

A
  1. Glucagon - increases strength of heart contractions, increases intracellular cAMP, and decreases renal vascular resistance
  2. Cardiac pacing if unresponsive
  3. If bronchospasm, use anticholinergics (ipratropium - muscarinic antagonist)
74
Q

What is Parkinson’s disease

A

Degenerative CNS disorder resulting in death of dopamine-generating cells in the substantia nigra

75
Q

Why is reglan contraindicated in Parkinson’s disease

A

Dopamine and 5-HT3 blockers can cause extrapyramidals (dystonia, bradykinesia, tremors, tardive dyskinesia, akathisia)

76
Q

Digitalis toxicity and electrolytes

A

Hyperkalemia —> arrhythmia
Digitalis overdose leads to PVCs
Tx: supportive tx after administration of antidote Digoxin immune fab

77
Q

Sulfonylureas MOA

A

Stimulate production of insulin
Glyburide, Glimepiride, glipizide

78
Q

Metformin MOA

A

Biguanide
- reduces gluconeogenesis in liver
- increases insulin sensitivity
- risk of lactic acidosis and VIT B12 deficiency

79
Q

What is the concern of QT (depolarization and repolarization of ventricles) elongation and what is the treatment

A

Progression to torsades de pointes
- tx is MAGNESIUM

80
Q

Antiemetics that cause QT prolongation

A
  1. 5-HT3 blockers (-setrons i.e odansetron)
  2. Droperidol (dopamine and alpha blocker)
81
Q

Alpha-glucosidase inhibitors MOA and indication

A

Reduce glucose absorbance in small intestine by decreasing enzymes needed to digest carbs
- miglitol, acarbose, voglibose

82
Q

Thiazolidinediones MOA

A

Reduce insulin resistance by activating PPAR-gamma in fat and muscle
- pioglitazone
- risks: heart failure, edema, anemia, MI, bladder cancer, hepatotoxicity (requires frequent monitoring)

83
Q

Horner’s syndrome symptoms that develop 2/2 sympathetic nerve damage

A

Ipsilateral
Miosis (constricted pupil), eyelid ptosis, relative enophthalmus, sometimes anhydrosis (decreased sweating)

84
Q

In the PACU, pt was treated for laryngospasm with positive pressure now satting at 86%. What do you do

A

Assuming intubate if not improving
- support with CPAP, BiPAP first and move quickly to intubation
-ABG

85
Q

Which anesthetic drug do you avoid in pts with CAD

A

Ketamine
- causes tachycardia

86
Q

Which narcotic receptors do what and which one specifically causes respiratory depression

A

Delta: analgesia, antidepressant, dependence
Kappa: same as delta + diuresis + depression
Mu: RESPIRATORY DEPRESSION (MU 1), miosis, euphoria, REDUCED GI MOTILITY

87
Q

What is MAC

A

Concentration at which 50% of pt’s wont respond to skin incision

88
Q

Methohexital properties

A

GABA-nergic drug that suppresses reticular activating system
- 1-2 mg/kg induction dose, 0.2-0.4 mg/kg sedation dose
- wide swings in BP
- decrease in cerebral blood flow/ICP, increase in O2 consumption
- CAN CAUSE SEIZURES

89
Q

Pt is taking amitriptylline and has sedation with fentanyl and midazolam, then given atropine. Becomes very agitated, what do you give

A

Amitriptyline (TCA) = potent anticholinergic and antihistamine + action on norepi and serotonin
- Give physostigmine (cholinesterase inhibitor) to tx atropine-induced emergence delirium

90
Q

What lung capacity is decreased in a pregnant pt and obese pt

A

FRC decreased

91
Q

Test for prolonged blockade and suspected MG

A

Edrophonium/Tensilon test (acetylcholinesterase inhibitor)
- 2 mg IV q30 s up to 9 mg
- looking for improvement in muscle strength

92
Q

In anesthesia, when do you give atropine vs. adenosine

A
  • Atropine: anticholinergic for bradycardia (0.5 mg for ACLS, 1 mg for Asystole/PEA arrest)
    — in kids, 0.02 mg/kg for bradycardia
  • Adenosine: antiarrhythmic for tachycardia/SVT conversion if narrow complex and stable (6 mg rapid push)
93
Q

Dopamine effects on the body

A

Stimulates alpha, beta-1, and dopaminergic receptors (motivation, pleasure, cognition, memory)

94
Q

Myotonic dystonia with laryngospasm. How to treat

A

Avoid succinylcholine - unpredictable response
Rocuronium, positive pressure, etc

95
Q

Local anesthetic that is contraindicated in pt on MAOi

A

Anything with epinephrine in it
- MAOi’s potentiate and prolong its effect

96
Q

Ketamine MOA

A

NMDA antagonist

97
Q

Malignant hyperthermia is via what enzyme

A

Creatine phosphokinase
- trend CKs as you are treating pt

98
Q

How is malignant hyperthermia treated

A

Dantrolene: 2.5 mg/kg q5 minutes until reversal up to a total of 10-20 mg/kg
- Creatine kinase should be followed

99
Q

Mechanism via which nitrous can be a teratogen

A

Inhibits methionine synthase and vitamin B12

100
Q

Do barbiturates cause seizures

A

No, except methohexital/brevital
- others can treat seizures

101
Q

Main complication with prolonged intubation

A

Tracheal stenosis

102
Q

Why do you use a cuffless tube in pediatric patients

A

Narrowest portion is at cricoid cartilage
- want seal but avoid excess pressure on the tracheal tissues and reduce post-extubation stridor

103
Q

Desflurane has rapid onset and offset due to

A

Very low blood-gas partition coefficient
- low solubility —> more rapidly increases in alveolar concentration
- relatively insoluble in fat —> emergence rapid

104
Q

Mechanism responsible for determining the time a drug has clinical effect

A

Redistribution

105
Q

Infant has hypotension without tachycardia, why

A

Infants dependent on HR to increase CO
Parasympathetics tend to predominate in life

106
Q

How do benzodiazepines affect sleep

A

Reduce time to sleep onset and increase total sleep time
- reduce N1 (light sleep) and increase N2 sleep
- D/C can cause rebound insomnia

107
Q

How much REM sleep per night

A

20-25% of total sleep

108
Q

What narcotic is metabolized by plasma cholinesterases

A

Remifentanyl

109
Q

How is articaine metabolized

A

Plasma and liver esterases
- unique among AMIDE LA’s
- Amide LA’s primarily metabolized in liver EXCEPT articaine
- Ester LA’s are primarily metabolized in plasma

110
Q

What liver damage does sevoflurane cause

A

Decrease portal vein flow but increases hepatic artery flow
- converts to trifluoroacetylated reactive intermediates

111
Q

Local anesthetic with lowest pKa

A

Mepivacaine/carbocaine: 7.6
Etidocaine: 7.7
Lido/prilo/articaine = 7.8
Bupivacaine: 8.1
Procaine: 9.2

112
Q

What determines LA potency

A

Lipid solubility (bupivacaine = most potent)

113
Q

What determines LA duration

A

Protein binding

114
Q

What determines LA onset time

A

PKA
Closer to tissue pKa = faster onset
Tissue is 7.4 so mepivacaine (carbocaine) is fastest onset with pKa of 7.6

115
Q

Max dosages of lidocaine, articaine, bupivacaine, carbocaine

A

Lidocaine: 4.4 mg/kg without epi; 7 mg/kg with epi
Articaine: 7 mg/kg
Bupivacaine = 1.3 mg/kg
Carbocaine: 4 mg/kg

116
Q

Which LA can significantly prolong succinylcholine action

A

Procaine

117
Q

Which test can be used to determine if someone has atypical plasma cholinesterase

A

Dibucaine number
- >80 is normal
<80 = prolonged effects of succinylcholine

118
Q

Why do old people require less anesthetic

A

Decrease in levels of neurotransmitters and receptors in brain

119
Q

What happens to lungs as they age

A

Reduced alveolar surface area

120
Q

Etomidate side effects

A

PONV and adrenal suppression

121
Q

Why can succinylcholine be used without issue in myasthenia gravis

A

Fewer functional receptors so may even require more succinylcholine than normal
- MG patients ARE MORE SENSITIVE to non-depolarizing muscle relaxants (rocuronium)

122
Q

What anesthetic agents are NOT thought to cause acute intermittent porphyria

A

Narcotics and nitrous

123
Q

Initial dose of dantrolene for MH

A

2-3 mg/kg

124
Q

How is dantrolene mixed

A

60 mL of sterile water/20 mg bottle
Appropriate 2.5 mg/kg dose injected rapidly after reconstitution
- should have 36 bottle on hand

125
Q

What BP drug class is contraindicated when administered with dantrolene and why

A

Calcium channel blockers
- can cause severe myocardial depression

126
Q

What drugs can cause methemoglobinemia

A

Articaine
Benzocaine
Prilocaine
Abx: bactrim, sulfonamides, dapsone

127
Q

Treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

O2 and methylene blue 1% solution
1-2 mg/kg and given over 5 minutes

128
Q

How to treat torsades de pointes

A

1-2 mg Mg over 5-60 minutes then infusion following

129
Q

Fentanyl dose and metabolization

A

Wide range (2-50 mcg/kg) intraop
Metabolized by the liver

130
Q

How is remi fentanyl metabolized

A

Hydrolyzed by red cell esterases

131
Q

Maintenance infusion dose for remifentanyl

A

0.5-3 mcg/kg/min
- usually kept at 0.2 mcg/kg/min when used with propofol or volatile agent

132
Q

Large bolus doses of remifentanyl can cause

A

Chest wall rigidity

133
Q

Meperidine dose for shivering

A

12.5 mg

134
Q

Why should meperidine be avoided in pts with MAOIs

A

Cardiac instability, hyperpyrexia, coma, respiratory arrest, SEROTONIN SYNDROME

135
Q

Dilaudid dose

A

0.01-0.02 mg/kg
Can cause histamine release

136
Q

Morphine metabolism and kidney

A

5-10% excreted unchanged by kidney
- kidney failure = significantly prolongs duration of action

137
Q

Dose of naloxone

A

0.1-0.2 mg q2-3 min

138
Q

MAC of sevoflurane

A

2.0
Low solubility
- QT prolongation
- nephrotoxicity due to inorganic fluoride or Compound A

139
Q

MAC of isofluorane

A

1.2
Dilates coronary arteries

140
Q

Desflurane MAC

A

6.0
Rapid induction and emergence
Can cause increase HR, BP, catecholamines

141
Q

Nitrous MAC and MOA

A

MAC = 105
NMDA receptor antagonist
- does NOT trigger MH

142
Q

Why is nitrous contraindicated in conditions with trapped air

A

35x more soluble than nitrogen in blood
- pneumos, bowel obstruction, etc

143
Q

Propofol induction dose

A

1-2 mg/kg
- need more in kids 2/2 larger vol of distribution

144
Q

Why do you have to use propofol within 6 hrs

A

Supports bacterial growth

145
Q

Egg allergy with propofol?

A

Propofol contains egg lecithin (yolk) not albumin from egg white
Safe to use

146
Q

What is propofol infusion syndrome

A

Long infusions can cause lipemia, metabolic acidosis, and death

147
Q

Etomidate induction dose

A

0.3 mg/kg
Associated with adrenal-cortical suppression
30-60% incidence of myoclonus with induction
- minimal cardiovascular effects, popular in older pop
- PONV very common

148
Q

Methohexital effects on seizures

A

0.2-0.4 mg/kg doses for sedation
- will not suppress seizure and can potentiate seizures
- GABAnergic

149
Q

Midazolam sedation dose

A

0.05 mg/kg - 0.1 mg/kg
- commonly given in 1 mg/2.5 mg bolus

150
Q

Midazolam effects and MOA

A

Anterograde amnesia

151
Q

Erythromycin and midazolam

A

Erythromycin inhibits metabolism and will prolong and increase potency 2-3x

152
Q

Ketamine MOA, effect on vitals, dosing

A
  • NMDA antagonist, dissociative anesthetic
  • increases BP, HR, CO
  • Induction: 1-2 mg/kg, 3-5 mg/kg IM for sedation
  • typical: 10 mg q 10 min with limit to <20-30 mg/hr to limit post-op delirium
153
Q

Dexmedetomidine (precedex) MOA and dosing

A

Central alpha 2 agonist
- little to no respiratory depression
Loading dose: 1 mcg/kg over 1 min by infusion of 0.4 mcg/kg/hr

154
Q

Flumazenil dose

A

0.2 mg q 2 min
Up to 5 doses

155
Q

Why does diazepam/lorazepam cause venous irritation

A

Are in propylene glycol

156
Q

Succinylcholine dosing
Can you give in kids?

A

Induction: 1 mg/kg (can give some non-depolarizing NMB first due to fasciculations)
- contraindicated in routine management of kids d/t risk of hyperkalemia, rhabdomyolysis, and cardiac arrest with undiagnosed myopathies
- kids can have profound bradycardia —> give 0.02 mg/kg of atropine prior

157
Q

Rocuronium dose

A

0.6-0.8 mg/kg induction dose for intubation

158
Q

Excretion of rocuronium

A

Liver - can get prolonged blockade in severe liver disease patients

159
Q

Vecuronium intubation dose

A

0.1 mg/kg
- renal and hepatic excretion

160
Q

Cis-atracarium intubation dose and elimination

A

0.2 mg/kg
Degraded via Hoffman elimination

161
Q

Does glycopyrolate cross the blood brain barrier

A

NO
Does not cross BBB

162
Q

Atropine adult and kid dosing and indications

A

Kids: 0.02 mg/kg
Adults: 0.05 mg/kg
- best anticholinergic for treating bradyarrhythmia

Golden Guide (3 decks)

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