Easements, Covenants & Servitudes Flashcards

1
Q

Specific words of inheritance or words of art are not necessary to create a valid appurtenant easement, even of unlimited duration.

A

The rule in Mitchell v. Castellaw

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2
Q

Words of art are not necessary to create …

A

… are not necessary to create an easement

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3
Q

Definition of “easement appurtenant”

A

An easement which benefits a specific parcel of land, regardless of the owner’s identity.

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4
Q

Definition of “easement in gross”

A

An easement that benefits the holder without regard to whether the holder owns an adjoining or nearby parcel; it does not belong to any particular parcel of land.

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5
Q

An easement is an interest in land in the possession of another which:
(a) ___
(b) ___
(c) ___
(d) ___
(e) ___

A

(a) entitles the owner of such interest to a limited use or enjoyment of the land in which the interest exists;
(b) entitles him to protection as against third persons from interference in such use or enjoyment;
(c) is not subject to the will of the possessor of the land;
(d) is not a normal incident of the possession of any land possessed by the owner of the interest, and
(e) is capable of creation by conveyance.”

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6
Q

Affirmative easements …

A

… entitle one to do acts upon the burdened land or which affect the burdened land

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7
Q

Negative easements …

A

… entitle the owner of the easement to prevent the owner of the burdened land from making certain uses of his land

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8
Q

Licenses are not subject to conveyancing rules, because …

A

… because they are not interests in land

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9
Q

Contrary to the common law rule, a grantor may reserve an interest in property for a third party.

A

The rule in Willard v. First Church of Christ, Scientist, Pacifica

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10
Q

When a grant is general and the reservation is specific …

A

.. it can be inferred that the grant is meant to be qualified by the specific reservation, and accordingly to that extent both should be allowed to stand

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11
Q

Per the common law rule, a person cannot “reserve” …

A

… interest in land to strangers to the title

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12
Q

the creation of an easement in a third party can easily be accomplished by a prior conveyance to the third party, instead of

A

“reserving” interest in land to the third party

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13
Q

An easement may be created by estoppel when the grantee expended substantial money in reliance on the fact that the grant would be continuous.

A

The rule in Stoner v. Zucker

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14
Q

Easements can be created by estoppel (T/F)

A

True: ____ can be created by estoppel

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15
Q

Explaining the Statute of Frauds

A

A law that provides that certain promises and agreements are not enforceable unless they are in writing and signed by the person to be charged or by someone lawfully authorized to sign for him or her.

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16
Q

A lease: conveys _______, is not ______, and, if of sufficient duration, requires ______.

A

a) conveys a possessory interest in
land,
b) is not revocable absent a breach
by the lessee, and,
c) if of sufficient duration, requires a
writing to comply with the statute
of frauds.

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17
Q

A license: does not convey ______, does not require ______, and merely excuses ______.

A

a) does not convey an interest in
land,
b) does not require a writing
regardless of proposed length, and
c) merely excuses acts done on land
that would otherwise constitute a
trespass

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18
Q

Easements can be created by implication (T/F)

A

True: ____ can be created by implication

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19
Q

Where an owner of land conveys a parcel of it which has no outlet to a highway except over the grantor’s property or over a third party’s property, an easement by necessity is created over the grantor’s property.

A

The rule in Finn v. Williams

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20
Q

An easement of necessity is implied…

A

… when there was once unity of title and the dominant estate has no access except over the subservient estate.

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21
Q

Definition of “easement of necessity”

A

An implied easement that is created when a parcel of land is conveyed with no means of ingress and egress.

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22
Q

Definition of “mesne conveyance”

A

Intervening conveyances.

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23
Q

An easement may be created by implication if there was a prior existing use that was apparent and continuous and if there was unity of ownership.

A

The rule in Granite Properties Limited Partnership v. Manns

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24
Q

An easement may be inferred from…

A

… prior existing use

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25
Q

Easements may be created by prescription (T/F)

A

True: ____ may be created by prescription

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26
Q

The Restatement of Property has 8 “important circumstances” …

A

… where an inference of intention may be drawn.

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27
Q

An easement implied from a prior existing use is often characterized as…

A

… “quasi-easement”

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28
Q

Easements implied from prior use can include…

A

…underground sewer and utility lines that were not apparent at the time the parcels were severed

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29
Q

To establish a prescriptive easement, a claimant must show an open and notorious use of the defendant’s land adverse to the defendant’s rights, for a continuous and uninterrupted period.

A

The rule in Beebe v. DeMarco

30
Q

Definition of “easement by prescription”

A

An easement that is acquired through use over an extended period of time without contest by a possessor with an enforceable right to bar the use.

31
Q

The doctrine of easement by prescription is a type of …

A

… is a type of adverse possession

32
Q

Anything that disproves acquiescence, such as an express denial of permission to use a driveway…

A

…rebuts the presumption and defeats the claim to a prescriptive easement.

33
Q

Acquiescence is not active like a license, but is …

A

… consent by silence.

34
Q

An easement may be used only in connection with the estate to which it is appurtenant.

A

The rule in S.S. Kresge Co. v. Winkelman Realty Co.

35
Q

An easement may be used only for the …

A

… estate to which it is appurtenant .

36
Q

When an easement is created by prescription, only ____ may continue.

A

When ____, only the type of use that created the easement ____.

37
Q

The dominant estate in an easement created by prescription may not be…

A

enlarged so that the easement benefits more land.

38
Q

Definition of “servient estate”

A

The land that is burdened by an easement.

39
Q

Definition of “dominant estate”

A

The land that benefits from an easement.

40
Q

If the location of an easement is specified in a deed, the easement may not be relocated, even if the relocation is reasonable.

A

The rule in Sakansky v. Wein

41
Q

Definition of “floating easement”

A

An easement for an express purpose (such as a pipeline or access to adjacent property) which burdens the entire servient estate until its location is established.

42
Q

The scope of an easement is usually determined by …

A

… is usually determined by the terms of the grant.

43
Q

Abandonment of an easement requires intent, whether express or implied, but mere non-use is not enough.

A

The rule in Lindsey v. Clark

44
Q

The termination of an easement requires …

A

… intention, not just not use

45
Q

Like a fee simple estate, an easement may…

A

like a ____, an easement may last forever

46
Q

Definition of “general warranty”

A

A statement in a deed that grantor agrees to defend the title from claims of others. In general, the seller is representing that he or she fully owns the property and will stand behind this promise.

47
Q

A property owners association has privity of estate with a property owner for the purpose of a covenant running with the land.

A

The rule in Neponsit Property Owners’ Ass’n v. Emigrant Sav. Bank

48
Q

Essentials of a real covenant:
a)
b)
c)

A

a) It must appear that grantor and
grantee intended that the covenant
should run with the land;
b) it must appear that the covenant is
one “touching” or “concerning” the
land with which it runs;
c) it must appear that there is “privity
of estate” between the promisee or
party claiming the benefit of the
covenant and the right to enforce
it, and the promisor or party who
rests under the burden of the
covenant.

49
Q

Definition of “covenant running with the land”

A

An agreement that may be enforced by the original contracting parties and also by and against the successors of either party.

50
Q

A covenant will be enforceable in equity against a person who purchases land with notice of the covenant.

A

The rule in Tulk v. Moxhay

51
Q

Traditional vertical-privity doctrine required …

A

… required an identity of estate between the covenantor and his successors and the covenantee and her successors.

52
Q

Under the “relaxed” view of vertical-privity …

A

… benefits and burdens run to successors such as lessees and life tenants who have a possessory interest in the land.

53
Q

Definition of “equitable servitude”

A

A covenant regarding the use of land that is enforceable against subsequent possessors in equity, even if the covenant itself is not enforceable at law.

54
Q

When a ____ is breached, the remedy is damages in a suit at law.

A

When a real covenant is breached, the remedy is _____.

55
Q

When an equitable servitude is breached, the remedy is either ____ or _____, which secures a promise to pay money, in a suit in equity.

A

When ____ is breached, the remedy is either an injunction, or enforcement of a consensual lien, which ____, in a suit in equity.

56
Q

An equitable servitude is not enforceable against buyers who had no written notice of it.

A

The rule in Sprague v. Kimball

57
Q

Property owners with a ____ in their deed may not enforce the covenant against other owners without written notice of it

A

Property owners with a restrictive covenant in their deed may not ______

58
Q

An equitable servitude can be implied on a lot, even when the servitude is not created by a written instrument, if there is a scheme for development of residential subdivision and the purchaser of the lot has notice of it.

A

The rule in Sanborn v. McLean

59
Q

Definition of “reciprocal easement”

A

An easement created when the owner of two or more lots sells one with restrictions on it that benefit the land retained by the owner.
This sale creates a mutual servitude, and while it is in effect, the original owner cannot use his or her retained land in any way that is forbidden to the buyer of the other lot.

60
Q

Elements that must be met for a reciprocal negative easement to be held for every deed in a subdivision after the first deed issued with the covenant:
a)
b)
c)
d)

A

a) vertical privity
b) intent
c) the restriction must touch and
concern the land
d) the buyer without the restriction in
his deed must have notice of the
restriction (actual, constructive, or
inquiry notice)

61
Q

Definition of “constructive notice”

A

The buyer should reasonably have known about the restriction from the circumstances.

62
Q

Definition of “actual notice”

A

The purchaser actually knew of the restriction.

63
Q

Definition of “inquiry notice”

A

The purchaser had or should have had enough knowledge to suspect that there might be some restriction –> putting the purchaser in a position under which they should have inquired.

64
Q

A restrictive covenant will become unenforceable only if changed conditions affect the entire subdivision that is subject to the covenant.

A

The rule in Cowling v. Colligan

65
Q

The effect of a reservation should be distinguished from an _____, which prevents some part of the grantor’s interest from passing to the grantee. The _____ cannot vest an interest in the third party, and the ____-ed interest remains in the grantor.

A

The effect of a ____ should be distinguished from an exception, which ____. The exception cannot ____, and the excepted interest ____.

66
Q

Changed conditions must affect an entire development to terminate a covenant (T/F).

A

True: Changed conditions must ___ to terminate a covenant.

67
Q

the common law, “cujus est solum, ejus est usque ad coelum et ad inferos”

A

the common law in Latin, meaning “to whomsoever the soil belongs, he owns also to the sky and to the depths.”

68
Q

the Supreme Court officially abolished the principle of usque ad coelum and set forth this new rule:

A

a landowner has air rights only insofar as they are essential to the use and enjoyment of the land.

69
Q

Flights over private land are a taking under the Fifth Amendment if they are so low and frequent as to directly and immediately interfere with the enjoyment and use of the land.

A

The rule in United States v. Causby

70
Q

A local government has broad authority to deny zoning subdivision requests for valid health and safety factors so long as it has governing regulations, enacted pursuant to state law, which allow or require consideration of these factors.

A

The rule in Durant v. Town of Dunbarton

71
Q

Rights in airspace, as well as rights to minerals underground, may be …

A

____, as well as ____, may be severed from ownership in the surface

72
Q

Governments have a very broad authority to determine …

A

____ have a very broad authority to determine zones, as well as zone requirements and restrictions.