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OM - A > EASA part 8 questions > Flashcards

EASA part 8 questions Flashcards

1
Q

What is the definition of “operational control” ?

(Ref: 8.1.1)

A

Operational control is the operator’s responsibility to ensure flights are conducted safely; including crew supervision; aircraft airworthiness; and regulatory compliance.

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2
Q

Who holds final authority to delay or cancel a flight (Ref: 8.1.3)?

A

The pilot-in-command (PIC).

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3
Q

What pre-flight checks are mandatory for the PIC (Ref: 8.1.5)?

A

Verify aircraft airworthiness; crew qualifications; weather; NOTAMs; and fuel.

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4
Q

How must operational control be maintained during international flights (Ref: 8.1.7)?

A

Continuous communication with the operator via ACARS; SATCOM; or ATC relay.

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5
Q

What documentation must the operator provide pre-flight (Ref: 8.1.9)?

A

Flight plan; MEL status; weather briefings; NOTAMs; and passenger manifests.

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6
Q

When must the PIC consult the operator during flight (Ref: 8.1.11)?

A

For significant route changes; emergencies; or deviations from ATC instructions.

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7
Q

What defines “aircraft airworthiness” pre-flight (Ref: 8.1.13)?

A

Compliance with the MEL; valid maintenance releases; and no deferred defects affecting safety.

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8
Q

How is crew fatigue managed during multi-sector flights (Ref: 8.1.15)?

A

Adherence to EASA FTL regulations; with rest periods tracked in crew records.

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9
Q

What actions are required if a crew member becomes unfit mid-flight (Ref: 8.1.17)?

A

Reassign duties; declare a medical emergency if needed; and divert.

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10
Q

What is the operator’s role in flight monitoring (Ref: 8.1.19)?

A

Track progress via ACARS; ensure ATC compliance; and provide updates to the PIC.

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11
Q

How are changes to the flight plan communicated (Ref: 8.1.21)?

A

Through revised ATC clearances; ACARS messages; or direct radio contact.

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12
Q

What are the PIC’s duties during a diversion (Ref: 8.1.23)?

A

Ensure passenger safety; coordinate with ATC; and update the operator.

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13
Q

When must the operator be notified of a technical defect (Ref: 8.1.25)?

A

Immediately after landing; logged in the technical log.

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14
Q

What is required for flights into conflict zones (Ref: 8.1.27)?

A

Risk assessment; threat briefings; and crew security training.

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15
Q

How are passenger briefings conducted for emergency landings (Ref: 8.1.29)?

A

Follow operator-approved procedures; including brace positions and evacuation routes.

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16
Q

What defines “minimum crew” for a flight (Ref: 8.1.31)?

A

The number required by the aircraft’s certification and operational manual.

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17
Q

How are VIP passengers prioritized during emergencies (Ref: 8.1.33)?

A

Safety protocols apply equally; no special prioritization unless medically necessary.

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18
Q

What is the procedure for unplanned overnight stays (Ref: 8.1.35)?

A

Coordinate with the operator for accommodation; security; and revised planning.

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19
Q

How are ATC language proficiency requirements verified (Ref: 8.1.37)?

A

Crew must hold valid ICAO Level 4 (or higher) certification.

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20
Q

What records are kept post-flight (Ref: 8.1.39)?

A

Technical logs; fuel reports; incident reports; and passenger feedback.

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21
Q

Scenario: A deferred MEL defect prohibits flights into icing conditions. Forecast includes icing en-route. What should the PIC do (Ref: 8.1.5; 8.1.13)?

A

Cancel or reroute the flight. MEL compliance is mandatory.

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22
Q

Scenario: Operator requests a VIP pickup at an unplanned airport without NOTAM review. Proceed (Ref: 8.1.7; 8.1.9)?

A

Refuse until NOTAMs; weather; and airport suitability are verified.

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23
Q

What are CAT I ILS minima (Ref: 8.2.1)?

A

DH ≥ 200 ft; visibility ≥ 550m (or RVR ≥ 550m).

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24
Q

How are landing minima adjusted for contaminated runways (Ref: 8.2.3)?

A

Increase by 20% for wet runways; 50% for snow/ice.

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25
Q

What weather sources must be reviewed pre-flight (Ref: 8.2.5)?

A

METAR; TAF; SIGMET; AIRMET; and volcanic ash advisories.

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26
Q

When is an alternate airport required for IFR flights (Ref: 8.2.7)?

A

If destination weather is below minima 1 hour before/after ETA.

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27
Q

How is crosswind calculated for landing (Ref: 8.2.9)?

A

Compare aircraft limitations with reported wind components.

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28
Q

What defines “low visibility operations” (LVO) (Ref: 8.2.11)?

A

Takeoffs/landings with RVR < 400m or visibility < 800m.

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29
Q

What equipment is required for LVO (Ref: 8.2.13)?

A

Functional runway lighting; autoland systems; and HUDs (if applicable).

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30
Q

How are NOTAMs categorized for urgency (Ref: 8.2.15)?

A

Critical (immediate action); operational; or general information.

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31
Q

What is the “threshold crossing height” (TCH) for a non-precision approach (Ref: 8.2.17)?

A

Typically 50 ft above the runway threshold.

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32
Q

How is RVR converted to visibility (Ref: 8.2.19)?

A

RVR ≈ visibility in meters (e.g.; RVR 600m ≈ 600m).

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33
Q

What are VFR minima for Class G airspace (Ref: 8.2.21)?

A

Visibility ≥ 5 km; clear of clouds with surface in sight.

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34
Q

How is “ceiling” defined in weather reports (Ref: 8.2.23)?

A

The height of the lowest broken or overcast cloud layer.

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35
Q

What actions are taken if TAFs indicate thunderstorms en-route (Ref: 8.2.25)?

A

Re-route; delay; or cancel the flight.

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36
Q

How are volcanic ash encounters mitigated (Ref: 8.2.27)?

A

Avoid ash clouds; monitor engines; and land ASAP.

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37
Q

What is the “holdover time” for de-icing fluid (Ref: 8.2.29)?

A

Time fluid remains effective based on weather (e.g.; snow rate; temperature).

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38
Q

What are RNAV approach requirements (Ref: 8.2.31)?

A

Valid database; GPS integrity; and crew training.

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39
Q

How is runway slope accounted for in performance calculations (Ref: 8.2.33)?

A

Adjust takeoff/landing distances using performance charts.

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40
Q

What is the “climb gradient” requirement after takeoff (Ref: 8.2.35)?

A

Minimum 3.3% for twin-engine aircraft with engine failure.

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41
Q

How is temperature inversion handled in fuel planning (Ref: 8.2.37)?

A

Increase fuel reserves for potential icing or turbulence.

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42
Q

What defines “marginal weather” for diversion planning (Ref: 8.2.39)?

A

Alternates must have weather ≥ minima for the planned approach.

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43
Q

Scenario: Night cargo flight to a remote airport with fog (RVR 400m) and no ILS. Can you land (Ref: 8.2.1; 8.2.3)?

A

No. Verify operator’s approved minima (likely RVR 800m for non-precision night).

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44
Q

Scenario: NOTAMs indicate obstacles near the runway. Impact on takeoff (Ref: 8.2.15; 8.2.33)?

A

Recalculate takeoff distances or request a different runway.

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45
Q

What is “taxi fuel” (Ref: 8.3.1)?

A

Fuel used for ground operations before takeoff.

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46
Q

How is “trip fuel” calculated (Ref: 8.3.3)?

A

Based on route distance; winds; altitude; and aircraft consumption.

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47
Q

What is contingency fuel for IFR (Ref: 8.3.5)?

A

5% of trip fuel or 5 minutes holding; whichever is greater.

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48
Q

When is “alternate fuel” mandatory (Ref: 8.3.7)?

A

If destination weather is below minima or facilities are inadequate.

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49
Q

Define “final reserve fuel” (Ref: 8.3.9)?

A

30 minutes (piston) or 45 minutes (turbine) at holding speed.

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50
Q

What is “extra fuel” (Ref: 8.3.11)?

A

Additional fuel requested by the PIC for operational flexibility.

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51
Q

How is fuel planning adjusted for headwinds (Ref: 8.3.13)?

A

Increase trip fuel by 10-20% depending on wind strength.

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52
Q

What is a “minimum fuel” declaration (Ref: 8.3.15)?

A

Notification to ATC that fuel is critical but not yet an emergency.

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53
Q

How is fuel jettisoning conducted (Ref: 8.3.17)?

A

Over designated areas; at safe altitudes; using approved procedures.

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54
Q

What actions are taken if final reserve fuel is reached (Ref: 8.3.19)?

A

Land at the nearest suitable airport and declare an emergency.

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55
Q

How are fuel leaks managed in-flight (Ref: 8.3.21)?

A

Shut off affected system; recalculate fuel; and divert.

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56
Q

What is “tankering fuel” (Ref: 8.3.23)?

A

Carrying extra fuel to avoid refueling at expensive airports.

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57
Q

How is fuel temperature accounted for (Ref: 8.3.25)?

A

Ensure fuel does not freeze or cause waxing.

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58
Q

What is “fuel endurance” (Ref: 8.3.27)?

A

Total fuel covering taxi + trip + contingency + alternate + reserve.

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59
Q

When can alternate fuel be omitted (Ref: 8.3.29)?

A

Only if destination weather is ≥ minima and airport is adequate.

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60
Q

How is APU fuel consumption calculated (Ref: 8.3.31)?

A

Included in taxi fuel if used for ground operations.

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61
Q

What is the procedure for fuel discrepancies (Ref: 8.3.33)?

A

Reconcile load sheets with actual uplift and log discrepancies.

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62
Q

How are fuel-saving techniques applied (Ref: 8.3.35)?

A

Use optimized altitudes and continuous descent approaches.

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63
Q

What defines “fuel exhaustion” (Ref: 8.3.37)?

A

Complete depletion of usable fuel; requiring emergency declaration.

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64
Q

How is fuel planning validated post-flight (Ref: 8.3.39)?

A

Compare planned vs. actual consumption and adjust future plans.

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65
Q

Scenario: ATC reroutes the flight; adding 200 NM. Contingency fuel exhausted. What do you do (Ref: 8.3.5; 8.3.15)?

A

Declare “minimum fuel” to ATC and divert.

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66
Q

Scenario: Alternate fuel was not loaded. Destination weather below minima. Action (Ref: 8.3.7; 8.3.19)?

A

Declare emergency and divert to nearest suitable airport.

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67
Q

What steps are taken when declaring an emergency (Ref: 8.4.1)?

A

Notify ATC; use “Mayday” or “Pan-Pan”; follow checklists.

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68
Q

How should smoke in the cockpit be handled (Ref: 8.4.3)?

A

Don oxygen masks; initiate smoke removal; prepare for landing.

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69
Q

What is required for post-emergency reporting (Ref: 8.4.5)?

A

Submit a written report to the operator within 24 hours.

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70
Q

When can a PIC deviate from ATC instructions in an emergency (Ref: 8.4.7)?

A

Immediately if necessary for safety; notify ATC ASAP.

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71
Q

What equipment must be checked pre-flight for emergencies (Ref: 8.4.9)?

A

Life vests; fire extinguishers; ELTs; and oxygen systems.

72
Q

What defines a ditching procedure (Ref: 8.4.11)?

A

Emergency water landing with passenger briefing and ELT activation.

73
Q

How are medical emergencies handled mid-flight (Ref: 8.4.13)?

A

Administer first aid; consult medlink; and divert if necessary.

74
Q

What is the protocol for decompression events (Ref: 8.4.15)?

A

Don oxygen masks; descend to 10,000 ft; and divert.

75
Q

How are hijacking threats managed (Ref: 8.4.17)?

A

Follow operator security protocols; notify ATC discreetly.

76
Q

What is the procedure for a rejected takeoff (Ref: 8.4.19)?

A

Apply maximum braking; evacuate if necessary; and notify ATC.

77
Q

How is a cabin depressurization managed (Ref: 8.4.21)?

A

Don oxygen masks; initiate emergency descent; and land ASAP.

78
Q

What actions follow a bird strike (Ref: 8.4.23)?

A

Inspect for damage; declare emergency if needed; and land.

79
Q

How is an engine fire extinguished (Ref: 8.4.25)?

A

Cut fuel/electrical supply; discharge fire extinguishers.

80
Q

What defines an emergency evacuation (Ref: 8.4.27)?

A

Immediate exit of passengers/crew using slides or exits.

81
Q

How are emergency frequencies monitored (Ref: 8.4.29)?

A

Guard 121.5 MHz and company frequencies continuously.

82
Q

What is the procedure for landing gear failure (Ref: 8.4.31)?

A

Follow abnormal gear extension checklist; prepare for belly landing.

83
Q

How is a hydraulic failure managed (Ref: 8.4.33)?

A

Use alternate systems; adjust flight controls; and land ASAP.

84
Q

What actions follow a TCAS RA (Ref: 8.4.35)?

A

Comply immediately and notify ATC.

85
Q

How is an electrical failure managed (Ref: 8.4.37)?

A

Prioritize essential systems; use backup power; and divert.

86
Q

What is the protocol for a bomb threat (Ref: 8.4.39)?

A

Evacuate; notify authorities; and follow security checklist.

87
Q

Scenario: Cabin fire warning activates mid-flight. What is the procedure (Ref: 8.4.3)?

A

Don oxygen masks; suppress fire; descend; and divert.

88
Q

Scenario: Bomb threat after landing. Protocol (Ref: 8.4.9)?

A

Evacuate; notify authorities; follow security checklist.

89
Q

How are safety hazards reported (Ref: 8.5.7)?

A

Via the operator’s safety management system (SMS).

90
Q

What is the retention period for flight records (Ref: 8.8.4)?

A

At least 12 months unless specified otherwise.

91
Q

How are incidents investigated (Ref: 8.5.9)?

A

Through root cause analysis and corrective action plans.

92
Q

What is a “safety risk assessment” (Ref: 8.5.11)?

A

Evaluation of hazards and implementation of mitigations.

93
Q

How are safety audits conducted (Ref: 8.5.13)?

A

Regular internal/external reviews of operational compliance.

94
Q

What defines a “just culture” policy (Ref: 8.5.15)?

A

Non-punitive reporting of errors to encourage transparency.

95
Q

How are safety trends analyzed (Ref: 8.5.17)?

A

Review incident reports; SMS data; and audit findings.

96
Q

What training is required for SMS (Ref: 8.5.19)?

A

Crew and staff must complete SMS awareness training.

97
Q

How are safety bulletins disseminated (Ref: 8.5.21)?

A

Via email; crew portals; or briefings.

98
Q

What is a “safety action group” (Ref: 8.5.23)?

A

Team responsible for reviewing incidents and proposing fixes.

99
Q

How are passenger complaints handled (Ref: 8.5.25)?

A

Logged in SMS; investigated; and addressed.

100
Q

What is a “safety performance indicator” (Ref: 8.5.27)?

A

Metrics like incident rates used to gauge safety performance.

101
Q

How are near-misses reported (Ref: 8.5.29)?

A

Through SMS within 24 hours of occurrence.

102
Q

What is a “safety case” (Ref: 8.5.31)?

A

Documented analysis proving a new procedure meets safety standards.

103
Q

How are third-party vendors assessed for safety (Ref: 8.5.33)?

A

Audits; contracts requiring compliance; and performance reviews.

104
Q

What defines a “safety culture” (Ref: 8.5.35)?

A

Shared commitment to prioritizing safety over operational goals.

105
Q

How are safety recommendations tracked (Ref: 8.5.37)?

A

In a database with deadlines and responsible parties.

106
Q

What is a “safety review board” (Ref: 8.5.39)?

A

Senior team reviewing SMS effectiveness and trends.

107
Q

How are emergency drills conducted (Ref: 8.5.41)?

A

Regular simulated scenarios (e.g.; fire; evacuation).

108
Q

What is the role of a safety officer (Ref: 8.5.43)?

A

Oversee SMS implementation and incident investigations.

109
Q

Scenario: Crew member forgets to log a minor defect. Repercussions (Ref: 8.5.7; 8.8.4)?

A

Submit late entry and SMS report. Failure breaches compliance.

110
Q

Scenario: Passenger slips on wet floor. Reporting required (Ref: 8.5.7)?

A

Document in SMS and notify operator.

111
Q

What defines MEL compliance (Ref: 8.7.3)?

A

Aircraft must operate within MEL restrictions approved by the authority.

112
Q

How are deferred defects documented (Ref: 8.7.25)?

A

In the technical log with corrective action timelines.

113
Q

What is a “Category A” MEL item (Ref: 8.7.5)?

A

Items that must be repaired within 24 hours.

114
Q

Can a flight proceed with inoperative GPS for RNAV approaches (Ref: 8.7.7)?

A

No. Select alternates with conventional approaches.

115
Q

What is a “Master Minimum Equipment List” (MMEL) (Ref: 8.7.9)?

A

Baseline list of equipment allowed inoperative; approved by EASA.

116
Q

How are MEL time limits enforced (Ref: 8.7.11)?

A

Defects must be repaired within the specified interval (e.g.; 10 days).

117
Q

What is a “No Dispatch” MEL item (Ref: 8.7.13)?

A

Items that prohibit flight until repaired.

118
Q

How is MEL compliance verified pre-flight (Ref: 8.7.15)?

A

Cross-check technical log and MEL for deferred defects.

119
Q

What is a “Configuration Deviation List” (CDL) (Ref: 8.7.17)?

A

List of missing secondary airframe parts (e.g.; fairings).

120
Q

Can MEL items be deferred multiple times (Ref: 8.7.19)?

A

Only if the MEL allows repetitive deferrals within time limits.

121
Q

How are MEL updates communicated to crews (Ref: 8.7.21)?

A

Via revised manuals; bulletins; or electronic updates.

122
Q

What defines “airworthiness directives” (ADs) (Ref: 8.7.23)?

A

Mandatory repairs/modifications issued by EASA.

123
Q

How are temporary MEL revisions applied (Ref: 8.7.25)?

A

Via operator bulletins pending formal approval.

124
Q

What is a “kangaroo court” review (Ref: 8.7.27)?

A

Informal review of MEL compliance (non-regulatory term).

125
Q

How are MEL discrepancies reported (Ref: 8.7.29)?

A

Via SMS and technical log entries.

126
Q

What is a “Minimum Equipment List” vs. “Master MEL” (Ref: 8.7.31)?

A

MMEL is EASA-approved; MEL is operator-specific.

127
Q

How are MEL items categorized (Ref: 8.7.33)?

A

By system (e.g.; navigation; hydraulics) and repair urgency.

128
Q

Can MEL deferrals affect insurance coverage (Ref: 8.7.35)?

A

Yes; if operations violate MEL restrictions.

129
Q

How are MEL training requirements fulfilled (Ref: 8.7.37)?

A

Annual crew training on MEL use and limitations.

130
Q

What is the procedure for recurring MEL defects (Ref: 8.7.39)?

A

Investigate root cause and implement permanent fixes.

131
Q

Scenario: Cracked windshield deferred. Forecast turbulence. Precautions (Ref: 8.7.5)?

A

Limit altitude and avoid turbulence.

132
Q

Scenario: APU inoperative under MEL. Impact on ground ops (Ref: 8.7.3)?

A

Use external power/air and document in MEL.

133
Q

What are VFR minima in Class G airspace (Ref: 8.2.21)?

A

Visibility ≥ 5 km; clear of clouds with surface in sight.

134
Q

How is volcanic ash mitigated (Ref: 8.2.27)?

A

Avoid ash clouds; monitor engines; and land ASAP.

135
Q

What is “ceiling” in weather reports (Ref: 8.2.23)?

A

The height of the lowest broken/overcast cloud layer.

136
Q

How are SIGMETs used in flight planning (Ref: 8.2.25)?

A

To identify hazardous weather (e.g.; thunderstorms; turbulence).

137
Q

What is a “TAF” (Ref: 8.2.5)?

A

Terminal Aerodrome Forecast: weather predictions for an airport.

138
Q

How is “RVR” measured (Ref: 8.2.19)?

A

By transmissometers along the runway.

139
Q

What defines “marginal weather” (Ref: 8.2.39)?

A

Conditions close to operational minima requiring extra caution.

140
Q

How is “wind shear” identified (Ref: 8.2.41)?

A

Through PIREPs; onboard radar; or ATC alerts.

141
Q

What is a “METAR” (Ref: 8.2.5)?

A

Aviation routine weather report for an airport.

142
Q

How is “icing severity” categorized (Ref: 8.2.43)?

A

Trace; light; moderate; or severe.

143
Q

What is a “SIGMET” (Ref: 8.2.25)?

A

Weather advisory for en-route hazards (e.g.; turbulence; ash).

144
Q

How are AIRMETs different from SIGMETs (Ref: 8.2.45)?

A

AIRMETs cover moderate hazards (e.g.; turbulence; icing) for smaller areas.

145
Q

What is a “convective SIGMET” (Ref: 8.2.47)?

A

Advisory for thunderstorms; hail; or tornadoes.

146
Q

How is “visibility” reported in METAR (Ref: 8.2.49)?

A

In meters or statute miles; depending on region.

147
Q

What is a “TEMPO” in a TAF (Ref: 8.2.51)?

A

Temporary fluctuations in weather (e.g.; showers).

148
Q

How is “cloud cover” categorized (Ref: 8.2.53)?

A

FEW (1-2 oktas); SCT (3-4); BKN (5-7); OVC (8).

149
Q

What is a “PROB” in a TAF (Ref: 8.2.55)?

A

Probability of weather occurring (e.g.; PROB30).

150
Q

How is “freezing level” determined (Ref: 8.2.57)?

A

From temperature and humidity data in weather reports.

151
Q

What is a “tropical cyclone advisory” (Ref: 8.2.59)?

A

Warning for hurricanes/typhoons affecting flight routes.

152
Q

How is “pressure altitude” calculated (Ref: 8.2.61)?

A

By adjusting altimeter setting to 29.92 inHg/1013 hPa.

153
Q

Scenario: SIGMET warns turbulence at FL350. Flight at FL360. Proceed (Ref: 8.2.25)?

A

Yes; but monitor and request altitude changes.

154
Q

Scenario: TAF shows thunderstorms 2 hours post-ETA. Alternate needed (Ref: 8.2.7)?

A

Yes. Weather must be ≥ minima at ETA ±1 hour.

155
Q

Who has final flight authority (Ref: 8.1.3)?

A

The pilot-in-command (PIC).

156
Q

How is crew fatigue managed (Ref: 8.1.15)?

A

Follow EASA FTL regulations with rest tracking.

157
Q

What is required for crew resource management (CRM) (Ref: 8.9.1)?

A

Training in communication; decision-making; and teamwork.

158
Q

How are crew qualifications verified (Ref: 8.1.5)?

A

Check licenses; medical certificates; and training records.

159
Q

What is the co-pilot’s role during emergencies (Ref: 8.4.1)?

A

Assist the PIC with checklists; communications; and systems.

160
Q

How are crew duty times logged (Ref: 8.1.15)?

A

In electronic or paper logs; reviewed by the operator.

161
Q

What defines “crew pairing” (Ref: 8.9.3)?

A

Assignment of crew members to specific flights/duties.

162
Q

How is crew conflict resolved (Ref: 8.9.5)?

A

Through CRM principles and PIC final authority.

163
Q

What training is required for new aircraft types (Ref: 8.9.7)?

A

Type rating courses; simulator sessions; and line checks.

164
Q

How are crew briefings conducted pre-flight (Ref: 8.1.5)?

A

Cover weather; NOTAMs; fuel; MEL; and emergency roles.

165
Q

What is the procedure for crew incapacitation (Ref: 8.1.17)?

A

Remaining crew assumes duties and diverts if necessary.

166
Q

How are crew uniforms regulated (Ref: 8.9.9)?

A

Per operator policy and professional standards.

167
Q

What is required for crew language proficiency (Ref: 8.1.37)?

A

ICAO Level 4 or higher in the language used for ATC.

168
Q

How are crew meals managed during long flights (Ref: 8.1.15)?

A

Scheduled rest periods and meal breaks per FTL.

169
Q

What is a “crew rest facility” (Ref: 8.9.11)?

A

Designated area for sleep on ultra-long-haul flights.

170
Q

How are crew vaccinations verified (Ref: 8.9.13)?

A

Records must be current and submitted to the operator.

171
Q

What is the procedure for crew alcohol testing (Ref: 8.9.15)?

A

Random testing per operator and regulatory requirements.

172
Q

How are crew performance reviews conducted (Ref: 8.9.17)?

A

Annual assessments covering technical and CRM skills.

173
Q

What defines “crew deadheading” (Ref: 8.9.19)?

A

Crew traveling as passengers to/from duty stations.

174
Q

How are crew grievances handled (Ref: 8.9.21)?

A

Through formal reporting channels and HR processes.

175
Q

Scenario: Co-pilot disagrees with PIC’s decision to fly into marginal weather. Resolve (Ref: 8.1.3)?

A

PIC has final authority but must prioritize safety.

176
Q

Scenario: Duty time exceeded due to delays. Reporting (Ref: 8.1.15)?

A

Log exceedance; submit fatigue report.

OM - A (1 decks)

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