EAQ OB1 Quiz

Question 1

A mother is in early labor and asks the nurse how long the labor will last. The nurse explains that the first stage of labor lasts from the beginning of regular contractions until when?
Select one:

a. The cervix is completely effaced.
b. The baby is in position.
c. The cervix is fully dilated.
d. The woman begins pushing.

Answer 1

c. The cervix is fully dilated.

Rationale

The first stage of labor begins with regular
contractions and ends with complete dilation
of the cervix.

Question 2

The nurse is giving a bath demonstration for a group of new mothers.
What should be included in the demonstration?

a. Apply baby powder generously to keep baby dry.
b. Cleanse perineum from front to back.
c. Use scented soap to make baby smell good.
d. Partially submerge head in water when shampooing.

Answer 2

b. Cleanse perineum from front to back.

Rationale

The perineum should be cleansed by wiping
from the anterior to the posterior. Excessive
use of powders and scented soaps can irritate the skin. The head should not be submerged in water.

Question 3

Smoking by the mother can have what effect in the fetus?
Select one:

a. Hearing deficits
b. Neuromuscular deformities
c. Cerebral palsy
d. Low birth weight

Answer 3

d. Low birth weight

Rationale

Smoking has been proven to cause slow intrauterine growth and low birth weight.

Question 4

Why is oxytocin administered in the third stage of labor?
Select one:

a. To stimulate lactation
b. To relieve postpartum pain
C. To stimulate uterine contractions
d. To sedate the mother so she can rest

Answer 4

C. To stimulate uterine contractions

Rationale

Oxytocin makes the uterus contract and reduces postpartum hemorrhage.

Question 5

A patient has been diagnosed with a tubal pregnancy. What is the typical outcome of a tubal pregnancy?
Select one:

a. The patient will carry the pregnancy to term and have a cesarean delivery.
b. The patient will have to remain in bed for the remainder of the pregnancy.
C. The patient will spontaneously abort this ectopic pregnancy.
d. The patient will require surgery to remove the zygote.

Answer 5

d. The patient will require surgery to remove the zygote.

Rationale

Any pregnancy where implantation occurs outside the uterine cavity is called ectopic. Tubal pregnancies usually must be resolved by surgical removal of the zygote.

Question 6

What is the appropriate way to assess the fundus of the postpartum patient?
Select one:

a. Using the side of one hand moving down from the umbilicus
b. Using one hand over the lower segment of the uterus
c. Using one hand pushing upward from the lower uterus
d. Using one hand on the lower uterine segment while other hand locates the fundus of the uterus

Answer 6

d. Using one hand on the lower uterine segment while other hand locates the fundus of the uterus

Rationale

The proper way to assess the fundus of a mother who has just given birth is by placing one hand on the lower uterine segment while the other hand locates the fundus of the uterus.

Question 7

The health care provider has decided to induce labor with prostaglandin gel and an amniotomy. When should the nurse expect that labor will start?
Select one:

a. 1 hour
b. 4 hours
c. 8 hours
d. 12 hours

Answer 7

a. 1 hour

Rationale

Medically approved methods of inducing labor include prostaglandin gel application that usually induces labor in 1 hour or less.

Question 8

A primigravida patient is admitted to the labor and delivery unit. During initial assessment, the baby is found to be engaged. Which statement is true?
Select one:

a. The narrowest diameter of the presenting part has reached the pelvic outlet.
b. The descending part is being initiated through the midpelvis.
C. The widest diameter of the presenting part crosses the pelvic inlet.
d. The narrowest diameter of the presenting part is at the ischial spines.

Answer 8

C. The widest diameter of the presenting part crosses the pelvic inlet.

Rationale

Engagement occurs when the biparietal diameter, which is the widess part of the fetal head, crosses the pelvic inlet.

Question 9

Why is vitamin K given by injection to the newborn?
Select one:

a. Most mothers have a vitamin K deficiency that develops during pregnancy.
b. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in Newborns.
c. Vitamin K prevents the synthesis of prothrombin.
d. The newborn does not store vitamin K.

Answer 9

b. Bacteria that synthesize vitamin K are not present in Newborns.

Rationale

Newborns are not able to synthesize vitamin K in the colon until they have adequate intestinal flora, therefore, the vitamin K injection is given as a prevention measure against hemorrhage.

Question 10

A woman is admitted in active labor, and the nurse assesses the fetal heart rate (FHR) at 124 beats/min. What action should the nurse take based on the assessment?
Select one:

a. Position patient on her left side.
b. Start oxygen per nasal cannula.
C. Reassure the mother the rate is normal.
d. Notify the health care provider at once.

Answer 10

C. Reassure the mother the rate is normal.

Rationale

The normal FHR is 120 to 160 beats/min. No interventions are required.

Question 11

An infant presents 5 minutes after delivery with a heart rate of 105, is crying, has some flexion in the arms, sneezes, and has a pink body and blue limbs. What Apgar score should be assigned to this infant?
Select one:

a. 5
b. 7
c. 8
d. 10

Answer 11

c. 8

Rationale

The Apgar scoring is: fetal heart rate (FHR) over 100 = 2; crying = 2;
flexed arms = 1; sneeze = 2; pink body, blue limbs = 1.

Question 12

What protects the fetus from most bacterial infections?
Select one:

a. The yolk sac
b. The placental barrier
c. The cotyledons
d. The chorionic villa

Answer 12

b. The placental barrier

Rationale

The placental barrier protects the embryo/fetus from most bacteria, but not from viruses or drugs. The cotyledons are sections that make up the placenta. The chorionic villa are tiny vascular projections on the chorionic surface that help form the placenta.

Question 13

A new Native American mother tells the nurse that when she goes home, her mother-in-law will be caring for the baby while she rests. The nurse has concerns. What should the nurse do?
Select one:

a. Explain the importance of ambulating to recover.
b. Explain the importance of maternal-infant bonding.
c. Explore ways to blend this with safe health teaching.
d. Encourage this cultural behavior.

Answer 13

c. Explore ways to blend this with safe health teaching.

Rationale

Follow principles that facilitate nursing practice within transcultural situations.

Question 14

After the delivery of a newborn, what is the priority action of the nurse?
Select one:

a. Place the newborn on the right side.
b. Cover the cord stump.
c. Dry the infant immediately.
d. Suction nose and mouth.

Answer 14

d. Suction nose and mouth.

Rationale

To prevent aspiration of amniotic fluid, the baby should be suctioned, then quickly dried to prevent hypothermia.

Question 15

During labor, the patient screams at her husband to get out of her sight. What would be the most appropriate action for the nurse?
Select one:

a. Ask the husband to leave the room.
b. Assure the husband that such behavior is normal.
c. Remind the patient that the husband wants to help.
d. Change the patient’s position.

Answer 15

b. Assure the husband that such behavior is normal.

Rationale

During labor the patient frequently becomes angry and outspoken. It is a normal occurrence, but the husband needs to be reassured that such behavior is normal.

Question 16

Within the first hour following a vaginal delivery, the nurse assesses the mother and finds the fundus is firm and there is a trickle of bright red blood. What should be the nurse’s reaction to the assessment?
Select one:

a. This is a normal occurrence.
b. This is abnormal and should be reported.
c. The patient should be administered a blood thinner.
d. The patient should be restricted to bed rest.

Answer 16

a. This is a normal occurrence.

Rationale

A bright red drainage is normal immediately after delivery. The patient should be monitored at regular intervals. Bed rest is not indicated. A blood thinner would not be given.

Question 17

The patient’s membranes have just ruptured. What is the first priority of the nurse?
Select one:

a. Turn the patient on the left side.
b. Perform a Nitrazine test.
c. Check the fetal heart rate (FHR)
d. Perform a vaginal examination.

Answer 17

c. Check the fetal heart rate (FHR)

Rationale

The FHR should be assessed immediately after rupture of the membranes to determine the well-being of the baby.

Question 18

The nurse is trying to differentiate true labor from false labor. Which of the following is correct regarding true labor?
Select one:

a. Discomfort of the contraction is in the fundus.
b. Contractions do not follow a pattern.
c. Contractions get stronger with ambulation.
d. Contractions may stop with ambulation.

Answer 18

c. Contractions get stronger with ambulation.

Rationale

Contractions get stronger with ambulation in true labor. True labor is also marked by the onset of regular, rhythmic contractions.

Question 19

What method is used to visualize soft tissue and to determine adequacy of the pelvis with no detrimental effects to the fetus?
Select one:

a. Pelvimetry
b. Palpation
c. Ultrasonography
d. X-ray

Answer 19

c. Ultrasonography

Rationale

In more than 20 years of use, ultrasonography has had no detrimental effects on the fetus. Pelvimetry and x-ray uses radiation to visualize - bony prominences. Pelvimetry is not used in the pregnant patient due to detrimental effects to the fetus. Palpation does not allow for visualization of soft tissue.

Question 20

A new mother had spinal anesthesia during a cesarean delivery. She now has a desire to void and can wiggle her toes. What should be the nurse’s response when the mother asks to go the bathroom?
Select one:

a. Assess her blood pressure.
b. Obtain a wheelchair.
c. Palpate her bladder.
d. Put slippers on her feet.

Answer 20

d. Put slippers on her feet.

Rationale

The nurse should check that the mother is wearing slippers to ensure better footing. If the mother has a desire to void and can move her toes, there is no need for her to remain bedridden.

Question 21

A patient arrives at the hospital having contractions. How should the nurse determine that the patient is in true labor?
Select one:

a. There is no dilation.
b. The contractions are in the fundus.
C. The cervix has softened and effaced.
d. The contractions are irregular.

Answer 21

C. The cervix has softened and effaced.

Rationale

One sign of true labor is when the cervix has softened and effaced. True labor contractions are regular and rhythmic.

Question 22

What is the name of the vaginal discharge that occurs immediately following delivery?
Select one:

a. Lochia serosa
b. Lochia rubra
c. Lochia palatine
d. Lochia alba

Answer 22

b. Lochia rubra

Rationale

The vaginal discharge that occurs immediately following discharge is known as lochia rubra and is made up mostly of blood. As the placenta heals, the draining turns pink to dark brown in color and is known as lochia serosa. After about 7 days, the discharge turns slight yellowito white and is called lochia alba.

Question 23

The nurse is alarmed as she assesses a protruding umbilical cord from the vagina. What immediate action should the nurse take?
Select one:

a. Monitor intensity of contractions.
b. Place the patient in the knee chest position.
c. Notify the charge nurse.
d. Ask the patient to perform a Valsalva’s maneuver.

Answer 23

b. Place the patient in the knee chest position.

Rationale

The knee-chest position reduces the pressure on the prolapsed cord.
The charge nurse will need to be notified, and the contractions will need to be monitored. However, the priority is reducing the pressure on the prolapsed cord.

Question 24

What is a characteristic of a normal breast-fed infant’s stool?
Select one:

a. Green and loose
b. Dark green and sticky
c. Pale yellow and frequent.
d. Light brown and pasty

Answer 24

c. Pale yellow and frequent.

Rationale

Breast-fed infants tend to pass stools frequently and they

Question 25

The first-time mother has been told by the nurse that the first stage of labor is the longest. What would be an appropriate nursing intervention for comfort during this time?
Select one:

a. Cool fluids to drink
b. A backrub in the sacral area.
c. Assisting to lie in a supine position
d. Decreasing illumination in the room

Answer 25

b. A backrub in the sacral area.

Rationale

Backache in the sacral area is a common complaint during the first stage of labor. The keyword is “comfort” in the question. Providing a backrub is providing comfort to the laboring patient.

Question 26

Why is the nurse concerned about a patient in her first trimester of pregnancy being exposed to German measles?
Select one:

a. The disease is capable of causing a spontaneous abortion.
b. The disease is capable of causing birth defects
c. The disease is capable of causing high fever and convulsions.
d. The disease is capable of interfering with placental implantation.

Answer 26

b. The disease is capable of causing birth defects

Rationale

Rubella is a known teratogen, which can cause birth defects.
The correct answer is: The disease is capable of causing birth defects.

Question 27

Which tests are performed to detect inborn errors of metabolism in the newborn?
Select one:

a. Blood glucose
b. Phenylketonuria (PKU)
c. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
d. Prothrombin time (PI)

Answer 27

b. Phenylketonuria (PKU)

Rationale

State law requires certain diagnostic tests be performed on the newborn, including PKU, which detects an inborn error of metabolism.

Question 28

The new mother calls the nurse to her room to show how her baby is
“jerking around” when she changes his position. The nurse understands that the baby is exhibiting which normal reflex?
Select one:

a. Traction reflex
b. Babinski reflex
C. Tonic neck reflex
d. Moro reflex

Answer 28

d. Moro reflex

Rationale

The Moro reflex (startle reflex) causes the baby to abduct the extremities and fan the fingers with the thumb and index fingers making a “C” shape followed by flexion and adduction of the
extremities.

Question 29

The postpartum mother with a third degree laceration tells the nurse she is afraid to have a bowel movement because of her painful episiotomy. What should the nurse do?
Select one:

a. Offer a suppository or enema.
b. Encourage ambulation.
c. Offer stool softeners as prescribed.
d. Offer pain medication before defecating.

Answer 29

c. Offer stool softeners as prescribed.

Rationale

Stool softeners are available to ease the pain of defecation caused by hemorrhoids and birth trauma. Suppositories or enemas are contraindicated in mothers with third or fourth degree lacerations. Pain medications can often cause constipation. Ambulation may aid ins defecation, but will not soften the stool.

Question 30

Why is the size and shape of the true pelvis more important than that of the false pelvis?
Select one:

a. The fetal head must be able to pass through the true pelvis.
b. The true pelvis are the mother’s measurements.
c. The size of the false pelvis can change.
d. The size of the true pelvis needs to be larger.

Answer 30

a. The fetal head must be able to pass through the true pelvis.

Rationale

The size and shape of the true pelvis is more important than the false pelvis because the fetal head must be able to pass through for vaginal delivery to occur.

Question 31

During the final weeks of pregnancy, urinary frequency may return due to the enlarged uterus, compressing the bladder against the pelvic bones. What does the nurse suggest to aid in relieving the urinary frequency?
Select one:

a. Decrease fluid intake.
b. Use the knee-chest position.
c. Sleep on her side.
d. Avoid fluid intake in evening.

Answer 31

c. Sleep on her side.

Rationale

The patient should decrease pressure on the bladder at night by sleeping on her side. Fluids should not be decreased unless directed by a health care provider.

Question 32

When assessing a mother 12 hours following the delivery of a baby, where should the nurse expect to palpate the fundus?
Select one:

a. 2 cm below the umbilicus
b. At the umbilicus
c. 1 cm below the umbilicus
d. Halfway between the umbilicus and the symphysis pubis

Answer 32

b. At the umbilicus

Rationale

Within 12 hours, the fundus rises to the level of the umbilicus. The fundus should be firm. Immediately following delivery, the fundus will be felt halfway between the umbilicus and the symphysis.

Question 33

What should be included when discussing the care of a circumcised infant after discharge from the hospital?
Select one:

a. Gently remove the yellow exudate from the foreskin.
b. Apply sterile petroleum gauze after each diaper change.
c. Wipe the circumcision with alcohol each day.
d. Avoid the use of cloth diapers until the foreskin has healed.

Answer 33

b. Apply sterile petroleum gauze after each diaper change.

Rationale

Wash the penis at diaper change and apply sterile petroleum gauze.
The yellow exudate should not be removed as it is part of the normal healing process. The circumcised area should be cleansed gently, not with alcohol. Cloth diapers are sometimes recommended to promote healing.

Question 34

During the immediate postpartum period, the mother has a temperature of 100.2°F (37.8°C), pulse 52, respirations 18, BP 138/84.
What should the nurse do?
Select one:

a. Report the temperature as abnormal.
b. Continue to monitor every 15 minutes.
C. Report the pulse as abnormal.
d. Nothing as the vital signs are normal.

Answer 34

d. Nothing as the vital signs are normal.

Rationale

The vital signs are normal for a new postpartum patient.

Question 35

Which of the following discomforts of a pregnant woman should be reported to the health care provider at the first occurrence?
Select one:

a. Leg cramps
b. Pelvic discomfort
c. Vaginal bleeding
d. Urinary frequency

Answer 35

c. Vaginal bleeding

Rationale

Vaginal bleeding at any time during pregnancy should be reported tp the health care provider. Leg cramps, pelvic discomfort, and urinary frequency are common discomforts of pregnancy and not a cause for immediate concern.

Question 36

A woman who is 38 weeks pregnant tells the nurse that the baby has dropped and she is having urinary frequency again. What do these symptoms describe?
Select one:

a. Lightening
b. Braxton-Hicks contractions
c. Initiation of labor
d. Engagement

Answer 36

a. Lightening

Rationale

The symptoms of lightening are a return of urinary frequency, and the patient is able to breathe more normally.

Question 37

A mother delivered her baby at midnight and it is now 9 a.m. She wants to sleep and asks the nurse to take care of the baby. What is this considered?
Select one:

a. Fatigue from labor
b. Normal taking in response.
c. Abnormal “taking in” response
d. Risk for altered maternal-infant bonding

Answer 37

b. Normal taking in response.

Rationale

Her primary focus will be on her own needs such as sleep (“taking in” stage).

Question 38

What is the term for the cream cheese-like substance that protects the infant’s skin from amniotic fluid?
Select one:

a. Lanugo
b. Meconium
c. Desquamation
d. Vernix caseosa

Answer 38

d. Vernix caseosa

Rationale

At birth, the skin is covered with a yellowish-white cream cheese-like substance called vernix caseosa.

Question 39

Where would acrocyanosis be assessed on a newborn?
Select one:

a. Circumoral area
b. Brow
c. Feet
d. Mucous membrane

Answer 39

c. Feet

Rationale

Acrocyanosis is the slightly blue appearance of the hands and feet that is caused by poor circulation. It can last for 7 to 10 days in the newborn.

Question 40

Which type of monitor will assesses the intensity of contractions?
Select one:

a. External monitor
b. Fetal monitor
c. Maternal monitor
d. Internal monitor

Answer 40

d. Internal monitor

Rationale

Internal monitoring is used to monitor the intensity of contractions, the frequency and duration of contractions, and the resting tone of uterine contractions. An external monitor is used to monitor the fetal heart rate and uterine activity.

Question 41

The nurse is admitting a patient to the labor and delivery unit. While performing the initial assessment, which assessment is the priority?
select one:

a. The number of previous pregnancies
b. When the baby is due
c. When the patient last ate
d. The timing of contraction.

Answer 41

d. The timing of contraction.

Rationale

Assessment begins with timing the contractions on admission to form a database.

Question 42

Early in the first trimester, a woman complains of morning sickness.
What does the nurse suggest to aid with the discomfort?
Select one:

a. Eating something with a high-fat content
b. Eating dry crackers before getting up
c. Eating three well-balanced meals
d. Getting rest and taking antiemetics

Answer 42

b. Eating dry crackers before getting up

Rationale

A remedy for morning sickness is to eat a few dry crackers before getting up.

Question 43

A woman asks the nurse about the safety of sexual intercourse during her pregnancy. Which response by the nurse is the most correct?
Select one:

a. “Sexual activity should be avoided after the first trimester.”
b. “Sexual activity should the ceased in the case of vaginal bleeding.
c. “Sexual activity should be avoided in the second trimester.”
d. “Sexual activity should be limited to activity that does not include intercourse.”

Answer 43

b. “Sexual activity should the ceased in the case of vaginal bleeding.

Rationale

Sexual intercourse can be enjoyed throughout pregnancy unless it is contraindicated by other conditions. In the case of vaginal bleeding, sexual activity should cease until the cause of the bleeding is determined by the health care provider.

Question 44

A mother has entered the second stage of labor. When does the second stage of labor end?
Select one:

a. When the mother begins to push
b. When the baby’s head crowns
c. With delivery of the baby
d. With delivery of the placenta

Answer 44

c. With delivery of the baby

Rationale

The second stage of labor begins with complete dilation and ends with the birth of the baby.

Question 45

What is the cause of frequent urination in early pregnancy?
Select one:

a. Increased fluid intake
b. The fetus’s kidneys functioning
C. Retention of fluid
d. Increased circulating volume

Answer 45

d. Increased circulating volume

Rationale

Early in pregnancy, the increase in circulating volume and the enlarging uterus placing pressure on the bladder cause urinary frequency.

Question 46

Which newborn assessment finding can suggest a chromosomal disorder?
Select one:

a. Epstein pearls
b. Gynecomastia
c. Babinski reflex
d. Simian crease

Answer 46

d. Simian crease

Rationale

A simian crease may indicate a chromosomal disorder.

Question 47

The nurse identifies that the newborn is jaundiced within the first 24 hours of birth, with jaundice occurring over bony prominences of the face and the mucous membrane. What type of jaundice does this represent?
Select one:

a. Physiologic
b. Normal
c. Pathologic
d. Transitory

Answer 47

c. Pathologic

Rationale

Jaundice that appears within the first 48 hours of life is termed pathologic jaundice and is abnormal. Pathologic jaundice indicates excessive red blood cell destruction and it should be reported. Jaundice that appears after the first 48 hours of life is known as physiologic jaundice and is considered normal.

Question 48

What area of the uterus provides the force during a contraction?
Select one:

a. Lower portion
b. Middle portion
c. Upper portion
d. Cervical portion

Answer 48

c. Upper portion

Rationale

The upper portion of the uterus provides the force during contractions.

Question 49

What is the first secretion produced by the breast?
Select one:

a. Prolactin
b. Colostrum
c. False milk
d. Whey

Answer 49

b. Colostrum

Rationale

The first secretion to be produced by the breast is colostrum.

Question 50

The health care provider decides to send the mother for a test to determine the fetal lung maturity. What is the name of this fetal wellbeing test?
Select one:

a. Biophysical profile
b. Alpha-fetoprotein
c. Amniocentesis
d. Ultrasound

Answer 50

c. Amniocentesis

Rationale

Amniocentesis helps determine the maturity of the fetal lungs.