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EAP Flashcards

1
Q

Carrier

A

a person or animal that harbors a specific infectious agent in the absence of discernible clinical disease

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2
Q

Communicable Disease

A

an illness which may pass or be carried from a reservoir to a susceptible host

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3
Q

Epidemic

A

occurrence of an illness in excess of normal expectancy in a specific region that originates from a common source

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4
Q

host

A

a human or other living animal affording nourishment to an infectious agent

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5
Q

incubation period

A

the time interval

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6
Q

the entry and development or multiplication of infectious agents in the body of humans or animals

A

infection

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7
Q

infectious agent

A

an organism capable of producing infection of infectious disease

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8
Q

Heath care associated infection

A

an infection that iss acquired in a hospital setting formally known as a nosocomial infection

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9
Q

portal of entry

A

The means of entry for an infectious agent into a host

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10
Q

reservoir

A

The habitat for infectious agents survival

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11
Q

susceptible host

A

I human or animal that has the potential for acquiring an infection

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12
Q

transmission

A

The process by which an infectious agent is spread from a reservoir to a susceptible host

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13
Q

sexually transmitted infections

A

A contagious disease transmitted by sexual contact

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14
Q

what is the most frequently reported infectious disease in the United States

A

chlamydia

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15
Q

what are the sexually transmitted infections

A

gonorrhea, chlamydia, syphilis, General herpes, AIDS

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16
Q

how do you know diagnose syphilis

A

blood test-RPR

microscopic exam

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17
Q

what is RPR

A

rapid plasma reagent

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18
Q

what are signs and symptoms of genital herpes

A

blisters, blebs and ulcers which become circular ulcerated lesions in the genitourinary/perineal area

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19
Q

what is mechanical prophylaxis

A

condom

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20
Q

what is direct transmission

A

Direct and essentially immediate transfer of infectious agents through portal of entry of a susceptible host

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21
Q

how many types of viral hepatitis have been positively identified

A

five ABC D and E

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22
Q

True or false hepatitis is a virus

A

True

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23
Q

what is strep throat caused by

A

streptococcus pyogenes

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24
Q

what are parasitic diseases

A

hookworm disease, malaria, scabies, lice

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25
Q

what are bacterial diseases

A

strep throat, tuberculosis, meningitis

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26
Q

what is tinea capitis

A

ringworm of the scalp, begins of the small papule and spreads peripherally, leaving a small area baldness or broken brittle hair

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27
Q

what is tinea corporis

A

ringworm of the body

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28
Q

tinea pedis

A

ringworm of the foot starts between the toes and spread along the bottom of the foot, this is also known as athletes foot

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29
Q

what is potable water

A

water that is suitable, safe, or prepared for drinking

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30
Q

true or false: all water is considered unsafe until it has been tested and disinfected if necessary

A

true

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31
Q

what is the approval of water based on

A

Color, odor, and the clarity of the water; The presence of vegetation, dead animals in the water point and possible sources of pollution upstream

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32
Q

procedures to produce potable water

A

iodine tablets, calcium hypochlorite, boiling

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33
Q

what chemical disinfection is used on large amounts of water

A

calcium hypochlorite

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34
Q

what is used only in emergencies for potable water

A

boiling

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35
Q

how long do you boil water

A

vigorously for two minutes

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36
Q

does the DPD #4 tab differentiate the type of chlorine

A

no, It indicates the level of total disinfectant present

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37
Q

why are health and comfort inspections conducted

A

conducted to determine and ensure the security, military fitness and good order and discipline of the organization

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38
Q

what are the three temperature measurements

A

wet bulb, dry bulb, globe

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39
Q

how often or WBGT readings conducted

A

hourly basis

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40
Q

White flag

A

less than 80°F

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41
Q

Green flag

A

80-84.9°F

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42
Q

yellow flag

A

85 to 87.9°F

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43
Q

Red flag

A

88 to 89.9°F

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44
Q

Black flag

A

90°F and above

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45
Q

Who is responsible for the provisions of periodic hearing test in the evaluation of this test, and the provision of refresher training in conjunction with the annual monitoring audiogram

A

The medical department

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46
Q

what is HCP

A

Navy hearing conservation program

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47
Q

what is the preferred method of noise control

A

The reduction or elimination of hazardous noise through the use of engineering controls

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48
Q

acute pulpitis

A

an inflammation of the pulp caused by injury to the pulp usually from dental caries or trauma

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49
Q

apical foramen

A

opening at apex of the tooth which permits passage of nerve and blood supplies

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50
Q

dental carries

A

bacteria that causes cavities

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51
Q

dental dams

A

thin rectangular sheet of latex used in dentistry, in particular endodontic therapy, to reduce contamination, and where dental composite is being placed, due to the need for the area to remain dry during filling placement

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52
Q

dentin

A

light yellow substance found inside the crown, under enamel and inside the root, bulk of tooth

53
Q

enamel

A

covers the entire crowd and provides protection to exposed tooth. Hardest substance in the body

54
Q

gingiva (gums)

A

soft tissue that covers and surrounds neck of the tooth. Healthy gingival is pink firm and resilient

55
Q

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis

A

severe infection of the gingival tissue commonly referred to as trench mouth

56
Q

Periapical abscess

A

and alveolar abscess localized around the a tooth root

57
Q

Pericoronitis

A

i’m formation of the gingival around a partially erupted tooth

58
Q

Periodontitus

A

inflammation of the gingival that involves the crest of the alveolar bone and the periodontal ligament above the alveolar crest

59
Q

periodontal abscess

A

localized, pus forming inflammation of the tissue surrounding the teeth

60
Q

post extraction alveolar osteitis

A

it condition comely referred to as a dry socket

61
Q

pulp

A

provide sensation and blood supply to the tooth

62
Q

root canal

A

houses nerves, veins and arteries of the tooth

63
Q

stomatitis

A

a general term used to denote inflammation of the oral mucosa

64
Q

what are the teeth structures

A

The crown, the route, the cervix

65
Q

anatomical crown

A

The portion of the tooth incased in the enamel

66
Q

clinical crown

A

Applied to the part of the crown exposed(visible) in the mouth

67
Q

how many teeth are there

A

32

68
Q

explain the universal method

A

numbered 1 to 32
top:1-16
bottom:17-32
left to right

69
Q

primary tooth number diagram

A

lettered A-J right to left

k-t lower left to right

70
Q

class one dental classification

A

had an examination of them 13 months
requires no dental treatment
worldwide deployable

71
Q

class two dental classification

A

had an exam in the last 13 months
requires non-urgent dental treatment
service member is worldwide deployable

72
Q

class III dental classification

A

has had no examination of the last 13 months

requires urgent dental treatment not worldwide deployable

73
Q

class 4 dental classification

A

requires annual dental examination
unknown dental classification or has no dental record
not worldwide deployable

74
Q

what is the most common cause of dental caries

A

bacterial plaque

75
Q

what do you flush cavities with

A

warm water

76
Q

what is the most frequent cause of severe tooth pain

A

pressure of fluid building up inside the pump chamber or root canal

77
Q

Parulis

A

swelling that is confined to a small area at the site of a sinus tract

78
Q

do you apply heat to the external surfaces of the face

A

NEVER

79
Q

diseases of tooth tissue

A

dental caries, acute pulpitis, periapical abscess, tooth avulsion

80
Q

diseases of periodontal tissue

A

necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, periodontitis, Periodontal abscess, pericoronitis

81
Q

mucosa conditions

A

herpetic gingivostomatitas, aphthous stomatitis (canker sore)

82
Q

tooth extractions

A

post-extraction hemorrhage and post extraction alveolar osteitis

83
Q

treatment for post extraction hemorrhage

A

notify the dentist, monitor the patient’s vital signs and watch for changes in his or her condition until the dentist arrives, stop the bleeding by packing moisten sterile gauze over the extraction site and instruct the patient to bite down firmly

84
Q

type one enamel fracture

A

A chip or fracture of the tooth enamel without dentin involvement

85
Q

type two enamel/Dentin fracture

A

and extensive fracture involving the enamel and the Dentin layers with no pulp exposure

86
Q

type three enamel/Dentin fracture with pulp exposure

A

extensive tooth fracture with the pulp experience

87
Q

treatment for a type III tooth fracture

A

place calcium hydroxide over pulp and seal if available

88
Q

type for root fracture

A

A fracture of the route which may include fracture of the crown

89
Q

what to do if patient has fractured jaw

A

clear any obstruction in the upper respiratory passages ASAP

90
Q

treatment for mandibular/maxillary fracture’s

A

Report the patient’s condition to the dentist, immobilize the injured area by applying in elastic bandage. Wrap around head and mandible, ensure that a pair scissors is close by to cut the bandage of the patient starts to vomit or has respiratory difficulties, apply ice packs are the injured area to reduce swelling and pain, immediately transfer the patient to the nearest medical or dental facility

91
Q

anemia

A

A decrease in certain elements of the blood, especially red blood cells and hemoglobin

92
Q

hemoglobin

A

Iron containing red pigment combine with a protein substance

93
Q

hematocrit

A

A determination of the volume percentage of red blood cells in whole blood

94
Q

leukocytosis

A

abnormally high white blood cell count

95
Q

leukopenia

A

abnormally low white blood cell count

96
Q

Hgb

A

hemoglobin determination

97
Q

HCT

A

hematocrit calculation

98
Q

what color pen

A

Black or blue-black ink

99
Q

what do color coded tops indicate

A

additive/anticoagulant

100
Q

lavender top

A

CBC

101
Q

redtop

A

PSA prostate specific antigen

102
Q

Gold or red marble top

A

chemistry, lipids, glucose, TSA (thyroid) RPR

103
Q

total RBC count for males

A

4.6 to 6.2 million/mm^3

104
Q

total RBC count for females

A

4.2 to 5.4 million/mm^3

105
Q

hemoglobin determination for males

A

14 to 18 g per 100 mL of blood

106
Q

hemoglobin determination for females

A

12 to 16 g per hundred milliliters of blood

107
Q

hematocrit calculation for females

A

37 to 47%

108
Q

hematocrit calculation for males

A

42 to 52%

109
Q

total white blood cell count

A

used in determining the nature and severity of systemic infections
range from 4800 to 10,800 per cubic mL

110
Q

White blood cell differential count

A

used to determine the different types of white blood cells present

111
Q

five types of white blood cells found in the circulating blood

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, monocytes

112
Q

neutrophils

A

function by ingesting and invading bacteria, largest percent of leukocytes in normal blood sample

113
Q

eosinophil

A

function is to respond in immediate allergic reactions and destroy parasites, common cause of increased numbers is parasitic infections

114
Q

basophil

A

common cause of increased numbers is associated with inflammatory disorders

115
Q

lymphocyte

A

function is associated with the body’s defense against viral infections and immune response

116
Q

monocyte

A

largest of the normal white blood cells, function is to control microbial and fungal infections, and remove damage cells from the body

117
Q

common bacteria

A

cocci and bacilli

118
Q

RPR reactive

A

appears as black clumps

119
Q

nonreactive RPR

A

appears as a light gray color

120
Q

Monospot test

A

reported as positive or negative

121
Q

meningitis

A

information of the meninges

122
Q

tuberculosis

A

potentially serious infectious disease that mainly affects the lungs

123
Q

hepatitis e

A

Enterically transmitted by the fecal/oral route through contaminated food or water

124
Q

hepatitis D

A

A co-infection with hepatitis B and is parenterally transmitted

125
Q

hepatitis C

A

most common chronic blood borne infection in the United States, persons are at risk for infection through injection drug use

126
Q

hepatitis B

A

three part immunizations received by medical personnel is to protect individuals against this type of hepatitis

127
Q

hepatitis A

A

formally called infectious hepatitis

128
Q

viral diseases

A 
Vericella zoster (chxpox)
influenza

EAP (1 decks)

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