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USCG SWE > E7 > Flashcards

E7 Flashcards

1
Q

Are used by a Coast Guard unit to document when and how it has been notified of an incident that may lead to a response, investigation and/or other Coast Guard activity

A

MISLE Notifications

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2
Q

Before changing the status of a MISLE case, what must be updated within the case?

A

Associated IMA Statuses

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3
Q

What type of scenarios may require CISM intervention?

A

1) Personnel in fear for their life
2) Serious line of duty injury
3) Disaster/multi-casualty event
4) Death of AD member
5) Recovery of human remains

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4
Q

Crisis management briefings typically last how long?

A

30-75 minutes

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5
Q

Crisis management briefings typically address what size audience

A

10-300 people

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6
Q

Critical Incident Stress Management debriefings should normally occur at what timeframe after an incident

A

24-72 hours

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7
Q

___ Is the process by which people respond to challenges or threats

A

Stress

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8
Q

An ___ must be developed for protecting, removing or destroying CNSI in case of fire, natural disaster, civil disturbance, terrorist activities or enemy action to minimize the risk of compromise.

A

EAP

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9
Q

What is CG-4819 for

A

Classified document control log

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10
Q

What is form 11000-18 for

A

Classified document certificate of destruction

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11
Q

How long are TS destruction records held

A

6 years

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12
Q

CNSI may be jettisoned at sea depths of what

A

1,000 fathoms = 6,000 feet

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13
Q

Emergency destruction reports must contain what info

A

1) material destroyed
2) classification of material
3) date of destruction
4) method of destruction
5) any material not destroyed/compromised

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14
Q

COMSEC material which has been designed for ___ use is not exclusively NATO material but is, in fact, COMSEC material

A

NATO

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15
Q

What are 3 categories of COMSEC materials that may require destruction

A

1) COMSEC keying material
2) COMSEC related material
3) Equipment

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16
Q

What are the types of EAP destruction

A

Precautionary A
Complete B
Complete C

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17
Q

When is Complete destruction B utilized for EAP

A

When there’s sufficient people to complete EAP

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18
Q

What 2 UCMJ articles are not chargeable offenses

A

77 and 79

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19
Q

How many parts are there to a CG 4910

A

8 parts
1- initial info 2- intial disposition
3- PIO info 4- recommendation for disposition
5- direction of CO
6- notification of accused for disposition
7- record of NJP 8- Final admin action

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20
Q

CG 4910 is known as what

A

Report of offense and disposition and record of non judicial punishment

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21
Q

How can you determine staff symbols

A

Standard distribution list

COMDTNOTE 5605

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22
Q

What is the current revision date of the CG 4910

A

2018 August

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23
Q

In a memo, the subject line is typically ___

words or less

A

10

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24
Q

Where are enclosures annotated on a memo

A

Lower right corner

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25
Q

Correspondence should be answered within

___ days

A

15 work days

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26
Q

What are common team member roles when planning a meeting

A 
Time keeper
Scribe
Recorder
Co facilitator 
Participant 
SME
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27
Q

When may employee appeals be made

A

Incorrect info
Prejudice
Discrimination
Disproportionately low marks for particular circumstances

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28
Q

EER’s must be signed ___ days after the end of the employee review period ended date

A

21

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29
Q

How many days after signature of EER does an employee have to appeal their marks

A

15 days (AD) 45 days (reserve)

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30
Q

CO’s will endorse and send EER appeal letters within ___ days of receipt

A

15

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31
Q

How long does appeal authority have to review and act for EER appeals

A

15 days (AD) 45 days (RV)

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32
Q

What does the SMART acronym stand for

A 
Specific 
Measurable
Attainable 
Realistic 
Time Oriented
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33
Q

What form must accompany award recommendations

A

CG 1650

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34
Q

What blocks within the CG 1650 for award recommendations must be filled entirely

A

1-13 and 18

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35
Q

Block 20 of the CG 1650 is signed by who

A

Awarding authority

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36
Q

What is required for extraordinary heroism, the CG unit commendation or meritorious service medal and higher awards

A

Summary of action

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37
Q

What is an absconder

A

A crew member that illegally gains access and does not come back

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38
Q

What is a Deserter

A

A crew member who gains access and does not come back

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39
Q

What book is used for boarding commercial vessels under 65 feet

A

BOJAK

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40
Q

How many AL codes are there

A

5 (1,2,4,6,7)

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41
Q

What ORM model ID hazards

A

PEACE

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42
Q

How many days does a new CO have to send out message for EKMS

A

45 days

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43
Q

What is heavy weather seas

A

8 feet

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44
Q

What is heavy weather winds

A

30 knots

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45
Q

Who is responsible for the accuracy of MISLE

A

SMC

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46
Q

What’s the MLEM pub number

A

16247.1

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47
Q

Telecommunications manual types

A

Complete and Abbreviated
Quarterly training

6 months - shore
90 days - cutter

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48
Q

How long does R21 records

A

30 days

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49
Q

Types of destruction

A

Shredding
Burning
Pulping

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50
Q

What is the DSC frequency

A

157.525

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51
Q

How many levels of ORM

A

7

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52
Q

How far out can a 1 watt radio be heard

A

R21 20nm

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53
Q

Retention for SF700/701/702

A

90 days

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54
Q

VHF range

A

30-300 mhz

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55
Q

HF range

A

3-30 mhz

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56
Q

MF range

A

300 khz 3 mhz

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57
Q

What is the booking form

A

CG 4910

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58
Q

What is POS

A

Probability of Success

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59
Q

What does POS measure

A

Effectiveness

60
Q

How many paragraphs are in a SAP

A

7

61
Q

How many paragraphs are in a SAR SITREP

A

5

62
Q

What is a case suspension based on

A

POS

63
Q

How long is a OPS brief

A

30 minutes

64
Q

What does MISLE stand for

A

Maritime information safety and law enforcement

65
Q

What is the time limit for a launch delay

A

30 minutes

66
Q

How often are physical inspections conducted

A

6 months - self assessment

67
Q

What publication drives derivative classification

A

EO13526

68
Q

Latitude

A

60nm = 1 degree

69
Q

Max offshore distance for an 87

A

875NM

70
Q

Max range for HC144

A

2000NM

71
Q

On a moboard, your vessel is listed as

A

E-R

72
Q

What is speed of advance

A

E-M

73
Q

What are the GAR levels if all added maxed

A

60

74
Q

When can you delete a sub surface neutral track

A

6 hours

75
Q

When you delete a hostile track

A

24 hours

76
Q

Who is responsible for notifying NOK

A

ACTSUS

77
Q

How long prior to ACTSUS on a case does the NOK to be notified

A

24 hours

78
Q

Who at a minimum is briefed for suspension

A

CO

79
Q

What does a circle represent when plotting

A

Celestial

80
Q

What does a square represent when plotting

A

Estimate

81
Q

Who can authorize an everlasting shave chit to a PBL

A

medical officer

82
Q

Who can grant alterations to the UOD for medical reasons

A

Medical officer

83
Q

To carry a gun one must say verbatim what rules

A

4 fire arm rules

84
Q

Max bulk for mens hair

A

1-1/2 inch

85
Q

Max length of women’s finger nails

A

1/4

86
Q

Under UCMJ 134 soliciting is

A

Prostitution

87
Q

What type of plan do you use when you don’t know a vessel speed, position

A

LKP+DR

88
Q

What type of plan do you use when working an overdue

A

Voyage

89
Q

What do you use to find a debris field

A

Reverse drift

90
Q

What search pattern is used when there is likelyhood of the search object being in one area over another

A

Creep

91
Q

In TSR what does S stand for

A

Single unit

92
Q

Who is in charge of fisheries

A

NOAA

National Oceanic and Atmosphere

93
Q

What act protects species that are caught

A

Magnus Steven act

94
Q

What is BAC for a commercial vessel

A

.04

95
Q

List all the bead windows

A 
Position 
Communication 
Operations 
Personnel 
EW electronic warfare 
COMSEC
96
Q

Who runs HF DSC cases

A

LANTAREA

97
Q

When a hitron is attached to a cutter who is responsible for doing SAR case sortie

A

Extension of the cutter

98
Q

How long to review a MISLE case

A

5 days

99
Q

How long to validate a MISLE case

A

Every 12 hour watch

100
Q

What are the categories listed in CGBI

A

Enterprise
Unit
Personal
Cubes and Reports

101
Q

Who’s responsible for reviewing and validating MISLE cases

A

MISLE reviewer

102
Q

Who’s responsible to ensure MISLE entries are entered and completed

A

SMC

103
Q

What is total water current

A

The vector sum of currents affecting the search object. The best info on TWC in a localized area is usually obtained from one or more DMB’s

104
Q

What is Leeway

A

The movement of water caused by winds blowing against the exposed surfaces of the search object. The pushing force of the wind is countered by water drag on the underwater surface of the object.

105
Q

Where is info stored or how long once segment is deleted

A

SF 153, 2 years

106
Q

What scale is a harbor chart less than

A

50,000

107
Q

Depth charted on the chart is at

A

Mean low water

108
Q

If radio silence is imposed and an asset needs to pass status do they not pass OPS and position

A

Requirements are waived

109
Q

What is a safety zone

A

Protects from what’s outside

110
Q

What is a security zone

A

Protects what’s inside

111
Q

When do you assume an aircraft guard

A

5 mins into the air

112
Q

COTHEN stands for

A 
Cellular 
Over
The
Horizon 
Network
113
Q

COTHEN transmits on what

A

ALE

114
Q

What is the datum point

A

A point at the center of the area where it is estimated that the search object is most likely located

115
Q

Drift- Search planning

A

The movement of a search object caused by alll of the environmental forces

116
Q

What is placed centered 2 lines below the last paragraph to indicate the end of the memorandum?

A

#

117
Q

When are thru lines used on a memo?

A

When 1 or more offices or units outside yours must see the memo.

118
Q

What is used to comment on a memorandum in routing?

A

An endorsement

119
Q

Every memo must include?

A

Date

From

120
Q

Where does the signing office place his/her signature on a memorandum?

A

The from line

121
Q

Where is the SSIC placed on the memo?

A

The first and subsequent pages

122
Q

What is the primary means of formalized correspondence to communicate both with the CG and within the framework of the federal government?

A

The business letter

123
Q

When writing a mem, the most appropriate SSIC code should be used. Where can you look to find the SSIC code?

A

M5212.12

124
Q

When writing an internal command memo requiring command visibility a ___ maybe used

A

Thru line

125
Q

Where can the precise title and staff symbol to include on a memo be found?

A

Standard distribution list

COMDT NOTE 5605

126
Q

Where is information on routing a memo found?

A

M5216.4D

127
Q

What is a parking lot within the context of meeting facilitation?

A

Discuss/ resolve these items at the end of the session.

128
Q

What is another form of parking lot or board?

A

Issues
Decisions
Actions

129
Q

What is a common team member role assigned during a meeting?

A 
Time keeper
Scribe
Recorder
Co facilitator 
Participants 
SME
130
Q

Which step in meeting facilitation involves describing how the meeting will be run and how decisions will be made?

A

Issues
Decisions
Actions

131
Q

What is a responsibility of a participant in a meeting?

A

Givd ideas, input opinions, listens, clarifies, ise team process skills

132
Q

What is a responsibility of a time keeper in a meeting?

A

Keep track of time

Notifies group when allocated time is up

132
Q

What is a responsibility of a time keeper in a meeting?

A

Keep track of time

Notifies group when allocated time is up

133
Q

During a meeting, who has the responsibility to capture information as accurately as possible so that non attendees can follow the group’s train of thought?

A

Recorder

134
Q

During a meeting, who is required to stay out of content discussion?

A

Scribe

135
Q

How many types of meeting evaluation processes are there?

A 
4 
Round robin
Consensus discussion 
Plus/delta
Meeting surveys
136
Q

What type of meeting eval process involves making a chart?

A

Plus/delta

137
Q

Action plan should be broken down into manageable chunks that require less than how many hours to complete?

A

80

138
Q

When should items in the parking lot be discussed?

A

At the end of discussion

139
Q

Consensus discussions are apart of what step in meeting facility?

A

Evaluation

140
Q

The round robin process is part of what step in meeting facility?

A

Evaluation

141
Q

Which step in meeting facilitation are ground rules established?

A

Plan a meeting

142
Q

Time spent planning your meeting will ensure

____?

A

A better outcome

143
Q

There are __ items to include on a meeting agenda

A 
4
Date/time
Start and end time
Time allowed for each item 
Meeting evaluation
144
Q

Where can you look to find examples in writing a citation for a member?

A

Enclosure 24

145
Q

What acronym should you use to respond to a member who is contemplating suicide?

A

ACE
Ask
Care
Escort

146
Q

When can you make a unrestricted sexual report?

A

Anytime

USCG SWE (1 decks)

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