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MD ELEMENTS PER 250 > E3_51 to E5 > Flashcards

E3_51 to E5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following will usually happen to the blade of flexible hacksaw applied by too much pressure?

A. Snap easily
B. Buckle or run out of line
C. Cut too fast
D. Cut on a slant

A

B. Buckle or run out of line

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines soldering?

A. It is holding two metals together by heating
B. It is joining two metals by third soft metal that is applied in a molten state
C. It is holding two different kinds of metals together by heating
D. It is joining two metals together by heating

A

B. It is joining two metals by third soft metal that is applied in a molten state

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3
Q
  1. What is the use of flux in soldering?

A. Keep the solder from running off the metal
B. Keep the metal from getting too hot
C. Keep the tip of the soldering iron clean
D. Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals

A

D. Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals

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4
Q
  1. A surface should be prepared for soldering by:

A. Filling the surfaces
B. Acid-cleaning the surface
C. Scraping the surfaces
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

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5
Q
  1. What is(are) the hand tool(s) used for cutting threads on round stock?

A. Stock and die
B. Stock
C. Die wrench
D. Stock cutter

A

A. Stock and die

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6
Q
  1. A tapered piece of stock is 2” long, 1-1/8” diameter at one end and ¾” diameter at the other end. The taper per foot is:

A. 2”
B. 2 – ¼”
C. 2 – ½”
D. 2 – 1/16”

A

B. 2 – ¼”

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7
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines sweating?

A. Soldering two different kinds of metal together
B. Separating two pieces two pieces of metal that have been soldered together
C. Thinning two surfaces, applying flux between them, holding the two together and heating
D. None of the above

A

C. Thinning two surfaces, applying flux between them, holding the two together and heating

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8
Q
  1. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered area must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to prevent:

A. Anyone touching it from getting burned
B. Remaining acid from eating the metal
C. The acid from evaporating and the solder disintegrating
D. None of these

A

B. Remaining acid from eating the metal

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9
Q
  1. Solder will not unite with a metal; surface that has:

A. Grease on it
B. Oxidation on it
C. Dirt on it
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

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10
Q
  1. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but if you did not have any, you could use:

A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Any of these

A

A. Hydrochloric acid

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11
Q
  1. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent and promotes the nitriding of steels

A. Aluminum
B. Boron
C. Copper
D. Brass

A

A. Aluminum

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12
Q
  1. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to reduce the grain size and to act as a cleanser and degasifier.

A. Nickel
B. Boron
C. Vanadium
D. Molybdenum

A

C. Vanadium

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13
Q
  1. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or steatite are known as

A. Titanium
B. Vanadium
C. Refractories
D. Ceramics

A

D. Ceramics

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14
Q
  1. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the metal by prolonged heating free from contact with air while the metal is packed in carbon in the form of bone
    char, leather scraps, or charcoal.

A. Carburizing
B. Cyaniding
C. Nitriding
D. Aging

A

A. Carburizing

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15
Q
  1. The degree to which a material will deform before ultimate fracture.

A. Brittleness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity

A

B. Ductility

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16
Q
  1. The property of a material that indicates its ability to transfer heat.

A. Thermal conductivity
B. Electrical resistivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Electrical conductivity

A

A. Thermal conductivity

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17
Q
  1. A group of heat treatable cast iron moderate to high strength, high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery and good resistance carbon.

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. Ductile
D. White iron

A

B. Malleable iron

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18
Q
  1. Steels may be carburized and nitrided simultaneously by the process known as:

A. Nitrding
B. Carburizing
C. Carbonitriding
D. Cyaniding

A

C. Carbonitriding

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19
Q
  1. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combine hardness obtained.

A. Vanadium
B. Chromium
C. Titanium
D. Molybdenum

A

B. Chromium

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20
Q
  1. The art of making definite impressions in sand by means of a pattern for the purpose of producing a casting

A. Molding
B. Pattern
C. Extrusion
D. Die casting

A

A. Molding

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21
Q
  1. Hard solder is made of which of the following?

A. Copper and zinc
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and zinc
D. Tin and lead

A

A. Copper and zinc

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22
Q
  1. Which of the following is the flux usually used for hard solder?

A. Rosin
B. Barium
C. Borax
D. Alum

A

C. Borax

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23
Q
  1. In which of the following where straight muriatic acid is often used as a flux?

A. Galvanized iron
B. Sheet metal
C. Cast iron
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

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24
Q
  1. For aluminum, special solders are being used and will usually require which of the following?

A. More heat
B. The same heat as copper wire
C. Less heat
D. The same heat as sheet metal

A

A. More heat

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25
Q
  1. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and ______.

A. Dousing in cold water
B. Dousing in oil
C. Cooling slowly in air
D. Dousing in hot water

A

C. Cooling slowly in air

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26
Q
  1. Soft solder is made of which of the following?

A. Copper and zinc
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and lead
D. Tin and zinc

A

C. Tin and lead

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27
Q
  1. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel will give off _____.

A. Bright shiny sparks
B. No sparks
C. Light straw-colored sparks
D. Green sparks

A

C. Light straw-colored sparks

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28
Q
  1. A gear wheel making 156 RPM has 56 teeth. It drives another gear at 91 RPM. The number of teeth on the second gear is:

A. 65
B. 50
C. 90
D. 96

A

D. 96

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29
Q
  1. Tool steel can be hardened by which of the following?

A. Heating red hot and plunging into water
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air
C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cottonseed oil
D. Any of these, depending on type and use

A

D. Any of these, depending on type and use

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30
Q
  1. At what temperature where soft solder approximately melts?

A. 250 deg.
B. 450 deg.
C. 350 deg.
D. 550 deg.

A

C. 350 deg.

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31
Q
  1. Products that have cross sections of less than 6 inches and that are not in the finished forms

A. Slabs
B. Gangue
C. Blooms
D. Billets

A

D. Billets

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32
Q
  1. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the plastic state is made to flow within a die by the application of plunger pressure.

A. Extrusion forging
B. Smith forging
C. Drop forging
D. Press forging

A

A. Extrusion forging

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33
Q
  1. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar stock for special purpose

A. Cold forging
B. Sizing
C. Cold rolling
D. Coining

A

C. Cold rolling

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34
Q
  1. The term used for most press operations.

A. Glazing
B. Stamping
C. Coning
D. Swaging

A

B. Stamping

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35
Q
  1. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is cut out to a definite outline in a press.

A. Blanking
B. Stamping
C. Spinning
D. Trimming

A

A. Blanking

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36
Q
  1. It is a special case of drawing in which the work is rotated and formed by means of a tool

A. Spinning
B. Embossing
C. Bulging
D. Stretching – forming

A

A. Spinning

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37
Q
  1. It’s a squeezing operation used for flattening or surfacing various parts where a very small amount of flow of the material is involved.

A. Hobbing
B. Stamping
C. Coining
D. Sizing

A

D. Sizing

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38
Q
  1. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to flow into dies by the application of sudden blows to the material.

A. Drop forging
B. Press forging
C. Extrusion
D. Machine forging

A

A. Drop forging

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39
Q
  1. It is a measure of stiffness.

A. Modulus of rigidity
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of toughness

A

C. Modulus of elasticity

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40
Q
  1. It is a measure of the total energy-absorbed capacity of the material and includes the energy of both the elastic and plastic deformation.

A. Modulus of toughness
B. Modulus of resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity

A

A. Modulus of toughness

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41
Q
  1. What material where a scriber made from?

A. Carbon steel
B. Tool steel
C. Cold-rolled steel
D. Hot-rolled steel

A

B. Tool steel

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42
Q
  1. What should be done first before applying layout blue on a piece of metal?

A. Roughened
B. Clean
C. Hot
D. Cold

A

B. Clean

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43
Q
  1. How many flutes does a drill bit have?

A. 4 flutes
B. 2 flutes
C. 3 flutes
D. No flutes

A

B. 2 flutes

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44
Q
  1. Where is the correction position of the tool bit when facing off a piece of material in the lathe chuck?

A. Above center
B. Below center
C. At the center
D. Off center

A

C. At the center

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45
Q
  1. Standard vise has _____ jaws?

A. Soft
B. Hard
C. Semi-hard
D. Semi-soft

A

B. Hard

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46
Q
  1. In machining, which of the following could be the reason if tool bit burns?
    A. Speed is too slow
    B. Materials is too hard
    C. Speed is too fast
    D. Material cannot be cut
A

C. Speed is too fast

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47
Q
  1. For which of the following where the lathe compound is used?

A. Angle cutting
B. Facing
C. Grooving
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

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48
Q
  1. When the dial on the cross-feed is turned 0.010”, how much is removed from the diameter of the stock being cut?

A. 0.010”
B. 0.005”
C. 0.020”
D. 0.015”

A

A. 0.010”

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49
Q
  1. Which of the following describes a flexible back hacksaw blade?

A. Only the teeth hardened
B. A movable back
C. Flexible ends
D. Only the back hardened

A

A. Only the teeth hardened

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50
Q
  1. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited for which of the following materials?

A. Channel iron
B. Aluminum
C. Tubing
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

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51
Q
  1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along the swivel table and is clamped in position by two bolts one an either side of the base.

A. Foot stock
B. Head stock
C. Tail stock
D. Cross stock

A

B. Head stock

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52
Q
  1. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of materials by a drop and rebound method.

A. Scleroscope
B. Rockwell Hardness Tester
C. Universal Testing Machine
D. Brinell Hardness Tester

A

A. Scleroscope

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53
Q
  1. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface roughness in micro inches.

A. Caliper
B. Micrometer
C. Profilometer
D. Scleroscope

A

C. Profilometer

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54
Q
  1. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding wheel touching the work being ground.

A. Area of contact
B. Arc of contact
C. Angle of contact
D. Contact ratio

A

B. Arc of contact

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55
Q
  1. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the wheel is mounted.

A. Bushing
B. Arbor
C. Bearing
D. Fluting

A

B. Arbor

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56
Q
  1. A device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or the working piece being grounded.

A. Head stock
B. Fixtures
C. Jigs
D. Chuck

A

D. Chuck

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57
Q
  1. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap.

A. Fluting
B. Flaring
C. Lapping
D. Honing

A

A. Fluting

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58
Q
  1. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is called.

A. Grinding
B. Glazing
C. Fluting
D. Lapping

A

B. Glazing

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59
Q
  1. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed as

A. Honing
B. Tumbling
C. Snagging
D. Truing

A

C. Snagging

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60
Q
  1. The process of increasing the cross-sectional area of a given portion or possibly of the whole piece.

A. Forging
B. Upsetting
C. Spreading
D. Drawing

A

B. Upsetting

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61
Q
  1. For ordinary steel, the modulus of elasticity usually falls between _____ million
    pounds.

A. 20 to 31
B. 35 to 45
C. 20 to 35
D. 25 to 30

A

A. 20 to 31

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62
Q
  1. The modulus of elasticity for metals in compression is usually taken as that in:

A. Tension
B. Bearing
C. Yield
D. Ultimate

A

A. Tension

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63
Q
  1. Which of the following is the ratio of moment and stress?

A. Strain
B. Section modulus
C. Contraction
D. Passions ratio

A

B. Section modulus

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64
Q
  1. What is the flexural stress when of a symmetrically cross-section beam when the
    vertical shear is maximum?

A. Infinity
B. Zero
C. Maximum
D. Minimum

A

B. Zero

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65
Q
  1. The riveted joints in ASME Code has a design surface compressive stress _______ higher than the design tensile stress.

A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 35%
D. 50%

A

B. 60%

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66
Q
  1. What is the ratio of the minimum strength of joint to the strength of solid joint in the pressure vessel?

A. Efficiency
B. Relative strength
C. Performance factor
D. Joint efficiency

A

B. Relative strength

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67
Q
  1. What is the usual factor of safety for a pressure vessel?

A. 4
B. 1.5
C. 3
D. 5

A

D. 5

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68
Q
  1. It is the permissible variation of the size.

A. Tolerance
B. Limits
C. Fits
D. None of these

A

A. Tolerance

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69
Q
  1. Considering that there is no fit, what is the permissible liberal tolerance in
    machining work?

A. ± 0.010
B. ± 0.090
C. ± 0.020
D. ± 0.050

A

A. ± 0.010

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70
Q
  1. Which of the following is a tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only or smaller only, than the given dimension.

A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. None of these

A

A. Unilateral

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71
Q
  1. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while the cross-sectional area is being
    reduced.

A. Tapping
B. Honing
C. Drawing
D. Upsetting

A

C. Drawing

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72
Q
  1. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony.

A. Bearing
B. Babbitt
C. Iconel
D. Titanium

A

B. Babbitt

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73
Q
  1. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin.

A. Tallow
B. Sal ammonia
C. Tinning
D. Rosin

A

D. Rosin

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74
Q
  1. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and zinc.

A. Soldering pastes
B. Muriatic acid
C. Zinc chloride
D. Cut acid

A

B. Muriatic acid

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75
Q
  1. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling depressions into the surface.

A, Honing
B. Knurling
C. Snagging
D. Reaming

A

B. Knurling

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76
Q
  1. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads or teeth, chip passage and lubrication.

A. Heel
B. Land
C. Flute
D. Thread relief

A

C. Flute

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77
Q
  1. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a cutting tool.

A. Tapping
B. Reaming
C. Chamfering
D. Honing

A

A. Tapping

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78
Q
  1. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing solid metal.

A. Knurling
B. Reaming
C. Boring
D. Drilling

A

D. Drilling

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79
Q
  1. The surface below the cutting edge.

A. Face
B. Flank
C. Nose
D. Side relief

A

B. Flank

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80
Q
  1. The surface over which the chip flows.

A. Face
B. Flank
C. Nose
D. None of these

A

C. Nose

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81
Q
  1. A tolerance where the size of a part permitted to be either larger or smaller than the given dimension.

A. Unilateral
B. Lateral
C. Bilateral
D. None of these

A

C. Bilateral

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82
Q
  1. Which of the following is the basis for ASA fits?

A. Basic number system
B. Basic hole system
C. Basic size system
D. Unit system

A

B. Basic hole system

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83
Q
  1. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take force or pressure to put the cold parts together. In such case the allowance is negative. Which of the following terms is appropriate for such allowance?

A. Negative fits of metals
B. Interference of metals
C. Positive fits of the shaft
D. Intangible fits

A

B. Interference of metals

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84
Q
  1. What is the direction of the predominant surface pattern?

A. Smoothness
B. Waviness
C. Lay
D. Roughness

A

C. Lay

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85
Q
  1. It is the irregularities of departures from the nominal surface of greater spacing than roughness.

A. Waviness
B. Roughness
C. Lay
D. Smoothness

A

A. Waviness

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86
Q
  1. It is the surface finish of micrometer in rms.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

A

A. 1

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87
Q
  1. Which of the following gears has the simplest type of teeth?

A. Helical gears
B. Spur gears
C. Bevel gears
D. Worm gears

A

B. Spur gears

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88
Q
  1. In gears, an imaginary circle on which the level arm is based in:

A. Base circle
B. Pitch circle
C. Addendum circle
D. Clearance circle

A

B. Pitch circle

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89
Q
  1. It is the circle tangent to the addendum of the meshing gears.

A. Clearance circle
B. Base circle
C. Addendum circle
D. Pitch circle

A

A. Clearance circle

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90
Q
  1. The distance form a point on one gear to the corresponding point measured along the base circle.

A. Normal pitch
B. Circular pitch
C. Axial pitch
D. Diametral pitch

A

A. Normal pitch

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91
Q
  1. It measures the downward slope of the top surface of the tool from the nose to the rear along the longitudinal.

A. Side cutting edge angle
B. End relief angle
C. Side rake angle
D. Back rake angle

A

D. Back rake angle

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92
Q
  1. Which one is the hardness material?

A. Steel
B. Diamond
C. Bronze
D. Brass

A

B. Diamond

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93
Q
  1. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to the side in a direction perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.

A. Side rake angle
B. Side cutting edge angle
C. Side relief edge angle
D. End relief angle

A

A. Side rake angle

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94
Q
  1. A type of bonding material, which is made of clay and water.

A. Resinoid bond
B. Vitrified bond
C. Shellac bond
D. Rubber bond

A

B. Vitrified bond

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95
Q
  1. The process of producing an extremely accurate highly finished surface.

A. Lapping
B. Buffing
C. Polishing
D. Honing

A

A. Lapping

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96
Q
  1. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and toll marks are removed with a
    polishing wheel.

A. Honing
B. Lapping
C. Polishing
D. Buffing

A

C. Polishing

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97
Q
  1. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of the machine when drilling.

A. Drill chuck
B. Chuck key
C. Floating holder
D. Magic chuck

A

A. Drill chuck

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98
Q
  1. Continuous chips are formed when cutting

A. Brittle materials
B. Ductile materials
C. Amorphous plastic materials
D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only

A

B. Ductile materials

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99
Q
  1. The rake angle of a cutting tool.

A. Controls the chip formation
B. Prevents rubbing
C. Determine the profile of load
D. Determine whether the cutting action is oblique or orthogonal

A

A. Controls the chip formation

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100
Q
  1. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool to machine free cutting brass is

A. 0o
B. 5o
C. 10o
D. 15o

A

A. 0o

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101
Q
  1. A line passing through the pitch point that is tangent to both base circles of a gear is:

A. Pressure line
B. Perpendicular line
C. Tangent line
D. Center line

A

A. Pressure line

102
Q
  1. Which of the following is the contact ratio for a good gear design?

A. 1.5 : 1
B. 1 : 1.3
C. 1 : 3
D. 1.2 : 2

A

A. 1.5 : 1

103
Q
  1. In pressure vessels, which of the following resists internal pressure through tension?

A. Shell-type element
B. Cam type element
C. Plate-type element
D. Spherical type element

A

A. Shell-type element

104
Q
  1. It is the study of the body’s motion independent of the forces on the body.

A. Kinetics
B. Dynamics
C. Kinematics
D. Mechanics

A

C. Kinematics

105
Q
  1. What is the reciprocal of the velocity ratio?

A. Train value
B. Ratio factor
C. Modular value
D. None of these

A

A. Train value

106
Q
  1. It is a type of bolt finished all over and has usually having coarse threads.

A. Coupling bolt
B. Stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Automobile bolt

A

A. Coupling bolt

107
Q
  1. It is a type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the shank underneath the head being square or finned or ribbed.

A. Coupling bolt
B. Stud bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Carriage bolt

A

D. Carriage bolt

108
Q
  1. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends and can be used where a through bolt impossible.

A. Coupling bolt
B. Carriage bolt
C. Stud bolt
D. Machine bolt

A

C. Stud bolt

109
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of bolt?

A. Stud bolt
B. Steel bolt
C. Machine bolt
D. Coupling bolt

A

B. Steel bolt

110
Q
  1. It is a locking device that is used to maintain pressure between threads of the bolt and nut.

A. Gasket
B. Lock washer
C. Lock nuts
D. Filler

A

B. Lock washer

111
Q
  1. In the list of process given below, the chip removal process is the

A. Die casting
B. Extruding
C. Forging
D. Broaching

A

D. Broaching

112
Q
  1. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to

A. Reduce the hole diameter
B. Increase the rake angle
C. Locate in the center punch mark
D. Reduce the axial pressure

A

D. Reduce the axial pressure

113
Q
  1. In the list of process given below, the non-chip removal process is

A. Grinding
B. Spinning on lathe
C. Thread cutting
D. Milling

A

B. Spinning on lathe

114
Q
  1. A reamer is used to correct the

A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
B. Size and position of a drilled hole
C. Finish and position of a drilled hole
D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole

A

A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole

115
Q
  1. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if

A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
B. Feed is too high
C. Insufficient coolant is used
D. Cutting speed is too high

A

A. Lips of drill are of unequal length

116
Q
  1. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even when their cutting elements get heated up to a temperature of

A. 1650oC
B. 1000oC
C. 1400oC
D. 1800oC

A

B. 1000oC

117
Q
  1. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with:

A. Positive back rake angle
B. Neutral back rake angle
C. Negative back rake angle
D. None of these

A

C. Negative back rake angle

118
Q
  1. The point angle of twist drill to machine is

A. 112o
B. 116o
C. 118o
D. 120o

A

C. 118o

119
Q
  1. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine gray cast iron is

A. 10 – 20 m/min
B. 15 – 25 m/min
C. 20 – 30 m/min
D. 25 – 40 m/min

A

D. 25 – 40 m/min

120
Q
  1. The recommended value of rake angle for machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of diamond tool.

A. 0o
B. 15o
C. 35o
D. 45o

A

A. 0o

121
Q
  1. What is the large wood screw used to fasten machinery and equipment?

A. Lag screw
B. Loss screw
C. Wood screw
D. Cross screw

A

A. Lag screw

122
Q
  1. What is the overall length of the spring when it is compressed until all adjacent
    coils touched?

A. Free length
B. Solid length
C. Compressed length
D. Expansion length

A

B. Solid length

123
Q
  1. What is the minimum length of contact in a tapped hole for cast iron?

A. 1.7 D
B. 1.5 D
C. 1.2 D
D. 2.1 D

A

B. 1.5 D

124
Q
  1. It is the ratio of the mean diameter of coil over the coil diameters.

A. Wahl factor
B. Spring index
C. Coil ratio
D. Lead scale

A

B. Spring index

125
Q
  1. It is the length of a coil spring under no load.

A. Compressed length
B. Free length
C. Solid height
D. None of these

A

B. Free length

126
Q
  1. In general, the steel springs are made of relatively or relative high carbon steel usually:

A. 5%
B. Less than 0.5%
C. More than 0.5%
D. 7.5%

A

C. More than 0.5%

127
Q
  1. It is a low cost spring material suitable where service is not severe and dimensional precision is not needed.

A. Helical spring wire
B. Stainless steel
C. Hard drawn wire spring
D. Copper

A

C. Hard drawn wire spring

128
Q
  1. What is the hard drawn (80% reduction) spring wire made of high carbon steel?

A. Oil tempered wire
B. Music wire
C. Tension wire
D. Chromium wire

A

B. Music wire

129
Q
  1. Which of the following wires with good quality and is used for impact loading?

A. Hard drawn wire
B. Song wire
C. Helical spring wire
D. Chromium-silicon wire

A

D. Chromium-silicon wire

130
Q
  1. When heated-treated wire is coiled cold, It should be stress relieved for bending stress and after cooling is heated at some:

A. 4000F
B. 6000F
C. 7000F
D. 5000F

A

D. 5000F

131
Q
  1. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to machine aluminum is

A. 140 – 200 m/min
B. 160 – 220 m/min
C. 180 – 240 m/min
D. 200 – 260 m/min

A

C. 180 – 240 m/min

132
Q
  1. The major factors, which determine the rpm of milling cutter, are the material being cut and the ________.

A. Number of teeth in cutter
B. Diameter of cutter
C. Time allowed to complete the job
D. Depth of cutter

A

C. Time allowed to complete the job

133
Q
  1. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by

A. Increased sliding
B. Increased shear angle
C. Use of low tool finish
D. None of these

A

A. Increased sliding

134
Q
  1. The studs used as a coolant machine shop consists of

A. Solution of detergent and water
B. A straight mineral oil
C. An emulsion of oil and water
D. A chemical solution

A

C. An emulsion of oil and water

135
Q
  1. The recommended value of rake angle for machine aluminum with cutting tools made up of high speed steel tool.

A. 5o
B. 10o
C. 15o
D. 35o

A

D. 35o

136
Q
  1. Milling cutter is sharpened on

A. Tool and cutter grinder
B. Cylindrical grinder
C. Centerless grinder
D. Surface grinder

A

A. Tool and cutter grinder

137
Q
  1. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a material having

A. High melting point and high thermal conductivity
B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity
C. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity
D. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity

A

B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity

138
Q
  1. A process can be considered as a hot working process if the material is heated.

A. Below recrystallization temperature
B. Above rescrystallization temperature
C. Below normal temperature
D. Above normal temperature

A

B. Above rescrystallization temperature

139
Q
  1. Grinding is

A. Metal fusing operation
B. Metal powdering operation
C. Metal finishing operation
D. None of these

A

C. Metal finishing operation

140
Q
  1. Grinding is done wherever

A. Other machining operation cannot be carried out
B. A large amount of material is to be removed
C. High accuracy is required
D. None of these

A

C. High accuracy is required

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a function of spring?

A. Absorbs energy
B. Source of potential energy
C. Measure weight
D. Measure thickness

A

D. Measure thickness

142
Q
  1. Which of the following is the type of spring made in the form of dished washer?

A. Air spring
B. Bellevile spring
C. Volute spring
D. Motor spring

A

B. Bellevile spring

143
Q
  1. What is the type of failure due to unstability?

A. Buckling
B. Slenderness ratio
C. Stability
D. Euler’s failure

A

A. Buckling

144
Q
  1. What type of formula that is best applied to a very slender column?

A. Column formula
B. Slenderness formula
C. Moment formulas
D. Euler formula

A

D. Euler formula

145
Q
  1. If two principal stresses is zero, the state of stress is:

A. Biaxial
B. Mono-axial
C. Uniaxial
D. Biaxial

A

C. Uniaxial

146
Q
  1. What do you call the system that has finite values of principal stresses?

A. Triaxial
B. Uniaxial
C. Mono-axial
D. Biaxial

A

A. Triaxial

147
Q
  1. A screw that requires positive torque to lower the load or to loosen the screw if it has been turned tight against a resistance.

A. Self locking screw
B. Lock screw
C. Self screw
D. Power screw

A

D. Power screw

148
Q
  1. What is the rotating member used in transmitting power?

A. Shaft
B. Counter shaft
C. Axle
D. Washer

A

A. Shaft

149
Q
  1. For machinery shafts, the permissible deflection is approximately:

A. 0.02 in./ft
B. 0.03 in./ft
C. 0.01 in/ft
D. 0.05 in./ft

A

A. 0.02 in./ft

150
Q
  1. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the neutral plane where the normal stress is:

A. Minimum
B. Constant
C. Maximum also
D. Zero

A

D. Zero

151
Q
  1. The process of increasing the carbon content to surface of steel by exposing it to hot carbonaceous material above the transformation of 1650 to 17500F.

A. Carbonitriding
B. Case hardening
C. Carburing
D. Induction hardening

A

C. Carburing

152
Q
  1. In the SAE identification code of steel shafting the 3rd and 4th digits represents the content of:

A. % of manganese in the steel
B. % of alloy
C. % of carbon content
D. % of chromium in the steel

A

C. % of carbon content

153
Q
  1. It is associated with nickel steel.

A. Magensium
B. Lead
C. Columbium
D. Tin

A

D. Tin

154
Q
  1. A non-magnetic metal is:

A. Nodular iron
B. Manganese steel
C. Tungsten – molybdenum steel
D. All of these

A

B. Manganese steel

155
Q
  1. In small quantity this alloy is effective for improvement strength at high temperature.

A. Chromium
B. Manganese
C. Selenium
D. Molybdenum

A

A. Chromium

156
Q
  1. T of carbon and alloy used in production of precision work tools.

A. Chrome – manganese
B. Titanium
C. High speed steel
D. Chrome – molybdenum

A

C. High speed steel

157
Q
  1. Powder metallurgy, the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is called:

A. Deposition
B. Granulation
C. Precipitation
D. Sintering

A

D. Sintering

158
Q
  1. Electro-forming is especially valuable for:

A. Decorative items
B. Good conductors of electricity
C. Non-ferrous components
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface finish

A

D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface finish

159
Q
  1. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting.

A. Must possess considerable fluidity
B. Must not be free from hot shortness
C. Must have iron as one of the constituents
D. Must be light

A

A. Must possess considerable fluidity

160
Q
  1. In carbon steel castings.

A. The percentage for alloying elements is controlled
B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7% to 2%
C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%
D. None of the above

A

C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%

161
Q
  1. The minimum value of numerical combined shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the computed bending moment of the shaft is:

A. 2.0
B. 1.75
C. 1.5
D. 1.3

A

C. 1.5

162
Q
  1. What is the other name given to short shafts on machines?

A. Spindles
B. Head shafts
C. Cores shafts
D. All of these

A

A. Spindles

163
Q
  1. The other name given to a line shaft is:

A. Countershaft
B. Main shaft
C. Long shaft
D. Head shaft

A

B. Main shaft

164
Q
  1. The speed at which the center of mass will be equal the deflecting forces on the shaft, the shaft with its attached bodies will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force changes its direction as the shaft turns in.

A. Nominal speed
B. Critical speed
C. Relative speed
D. Mean speed

A

B. Critical speed

165
Q
  1. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the deflection should not exceed ____ of length between supports.

A. 0.01 in. per foot
B. 0.08 in. per foot
C. 0.02 in. per foot
D. 0.05 in. per foot

A

A. 0.01 in. per foot

166
Q
  1. For transmission shafts, the allowable deflection is 1 degree in a length of ____ diameters.

A. 20
B. 25
C. 30
D. 40

A

A. 20

167
Q
  1. What is the limiting torsional deflection for machinery shafts. If the criteria of limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.080 per foot of length.

A. 10
B. 2.50
C. 20
D. 3.50

A

A. 10

168
Q
  1. Bevel gears of sizes 5 in. to 15 in. should not be lift or depress more than _____ as Gleason statement.

A. 0.004
B. 0.003
C. 0.002
D. 0.001

A

B. 0.003

169
Q
  1. What type of key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the rotation of the
    shaft?

A. Woodruf key
B. Feather key
C. Gibbs key
D. Square key

A

B. Feather key

170
Q
  1. What is the other name for Kennedy key?

A. Tangential key
B. Woodruf key
C. Saddle key
D. Rollpin

A

A. Tangential key

171
Q
  1. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its pressure in cast iron reduces the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical combination.

A. Aluminum
B. Carbon
C. Silicon
D. Sulphur

A

C. Silicon

172
Q
  1. Cyaniding is the process of:

A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath
C. Obtaining cyanide salts
D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts

A

A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness

173
Q
  1. An engineer’s hammer is made of

A. Cast iron
B. High speed steel
C. Forged steel
D. Mild steel

A

C. Forged steel

174
Q
  1. A cold chisel is made of:

A. Cast iron
B. High carbon steel
C. High speed steel
D. Mild steel

A

B. High carbon steel

175
Q
  1. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is:

A. 0.02%
B. 0.30%
C. 0.63%
D. 0.80%

A

D. 0.80%

176
Q
  1. Machining properties of steel can be improved by adding:

A. Chromium, nickel
B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus
D. Vanadium, aluminum

A

C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus

177
Q
  1. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return it when unloaded is known as:

A. Creep
B. Fatigue strength
C. Hardness
D. Resilience

A

D. Resilience

178
Q
  1. A ductile fracture is characterized by

A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack
B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces
C. Negligible deformation
D. Rapid rate for crack propagation

A

A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack

179
Q
  1. Of metals where in strength of metal is increased and the ductility increases the heating at a relatively low temperature after cold working.

A. Cluster
B. Screw dislocation
C. Solid solution hardening
D. Strain aging

A

D. Strain aging

180
Q
  1. The material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is called:

A. Annealed
B. Brittle
C. Elastic
D. Plastic

A

C. Elastic

181
Q
  1. What type of fits used for involute spline?

A. Close fit
B. Press fit
C. Sliding fit
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

182
Q
  1. It is used for permanent fits and similar to involute splines except that the pressure angle is 14.50.

A. Separation load
B. Spline shaft
C. Stub serrations
D. Involute serrations

A

D. Involute serrations

183
Q
  1. It is used a coupling, or in addition to another couplings where in case of overload, there is danger of injury to machine or to material in process.

A. Shear pin
B. Flange coupling
C. Involute serrations
D. King pin

A

A. Shear pin

184
Q
  1. What is the maximum shaft angle for a single Hooke’s coupling?

A. 100
B. 170
C. 150
D. 200

A

C. 150

185
Q
  1. What are the two principal parts of a journal bearing?

A. Bearing and journal
B. Shaft and Babbitt
C. Clearance and fitted
D. Shaft and cylinder

A

A. Bearing and journal

186
Q
  1. When the line of action of the load bisects the arc of partial bearing, the bearing is said to be:

A. Eccentrically loaded
B. Fully loaded
C. Centrally loaded
D. Partially loaded

A

C. Centrally loaded

187
Q
  1. What is the difference in radii of the bearing and journal?

A. Even clearance
B. Clearance ratio
C. Odd clearance
D. Radial clearance

A

D. Radial clearance

188
Q
  1. When radii of both the bearing and the journal are the same, then the bearing is said to be:

A. Fitted bearings
B. Clearance bearing
C. Full bearing
D. Ambiguous bearing

A

A. Fitted bearings

189
Q
  1. What is the line that passes through the centers of the bearing and the journal?

A. Line of action
B. Line of centers
C. Line of symmetry
D. Tangent line

A

B. Line of centers

190
Q
  1. Which of the following is considered advantageous for bearing materials?

A. Conformability
B. Compatibility
C. Embeddability
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

191
Q
  1. A body having identical properties all over is called:

A. Ductile
B. Elastic
C. Homogeneous
D. Isentropic

A

C. Homogeneous

192
Q
  1. Points of arrest of iron correspond to:

A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for sometime
C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature
D. There is nothing like points of arrest

A

A. Stages at which allotropic forms change

193
Q
  1. Delta iron occurs at:

A. Temperature above melting point
B. Temperature between 14000C and 15390C
C. Temperature between 10000C and 14000C
D. Room temperature

A

B. Temperature between 14000C and 15390C

194
Q
  1. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range.

A. Between 9100C and 14000C
B. Between 14000C and 15390C
C. Near melting point
D. Room temperature

A

A. Between 9100C and 14000C

195
Q
  1. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of:

A. Below 7230C
B. 700 – 9100C
C. 1000 – 14400C
D. 1400 – 15390C

A

A. Below 7230C

196
Q
  1. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous melting process is made of:

A. Low carbon steel
B. Medium carbon steel
C. High carbon steel
D. Copper

A

D. Copper

197
Q
  1. A silver refers to

A. The pointed location spot silver plated
B. The point on an instrument dial a reading beyond which may be dangerous for the system
C. The temperature at which silver melts
D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid silver at normal atmospheric pressure

A

D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid silver at normal atmospheric pressure

198
Q
  1. Piston compression rings are made of

A. Aluminum
B. Bronze
C. Cast iron
D. White metal

A

C. Cast iron

199
Q
  1. One of the materials used for making surface plate is

A. Brass
B. Granite
C. Stainless steel
D. Wood

A

B. Granite

200
Q
  1. Cast iron contains _____% carbon

A. 0.05 to 0.30
B. 0.30 to 0.60
C. 0.60 to 1.30
D. 2 to 4

A

D. 2 to 4

201
Q
  1. A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiment is that the smoother surface.

A. Has the greater load capacity of the bearing
B. Has the lesser capacity of the bearing
C. Has constant load
D. None of these

A

A. Has the greater load capacity of the bearing

202
Q
  1. Which of the following considers the 200 series of bearing?

A. Heavy
B. Medium
C. Light
D. All of these

A

C. Light

203
Q
  1. Which of the following considers the 300 series of bearing?

A. Medium
B. Heavy
C. Light
D. All of these

A

B. Heavy

204
Q
  1. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled by the eccentric displacement of the inner ring.
    A. Shallow groove ball bearing
    B. Filling-slot ball bearing
    C. Self-aligning ball bearing
    D. Deep-groove bearing
A

D. Deep-groove bearing

205
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing?

A. Shallow groove ball bearing
B. Filling-slot ball bearing
C. Self-aligning ball bearing
D. Deep-groove ball bearing

A

A. Shallow groove ball bearing

206
Q
  1. Which of the following is the approximate density of the leather belt?

A. 0.035 lb/in.3
B. 0.0135 lb/in.3
C. 0.025 lb/in.3
D. 0.0465 lb/in.3

A

A. 0.035 lb/in.3

207
Q
  1. Which of the following is the approximate density of a fat rubber belt?

A. 0.055 lb/in.3
B. 0.0135 lb/in.3
C. 0.045 lb/in.3
D. 0.0465 lb/in.3

A

C. 0.045 lb/in.3

208
Q
  1. A toothed wheel whose tooth elements are straight and parallel to the shaft axis or used to transmit motion and power between parallel shafts.

A. Helical gear
B. Spur gear
C. Worm gear
D. Bevel gear

A

B. Spur gear

209
Q
  1. The breaking strength of oak-tanned beltings varies from 3 to more than.

A. 5 ksi
B. 6 ksi
C. 7 ksi
D. 9 ksi

A

B. 6 ksi

210
Q
  1. Experience suggests that the most economical designs are obtained for a belt speed of:

A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
B. 3000 to 5000 fpm
C. 3500 to 4700 fpm
D. 5000 to 1000 fpm

A

A. 6000 to 7500 fpm

211
Q
  1. Tungsten in high speed steel imparts which of the following characteristics?

A. Corrosion resistance
B. Ductility
C. Red hardness
D. Shock resistance

A

C. Red hardness

212
Q
  1. High carbon steel has a carbon content of:

A. 0.5 to 1%
B. 0.8 to 2%
C. 1 to 3%
D. 2%

A

B. 0.8 to 2%

213
Q
  1. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and cone formation is observed with ___.

A. Cast iron
B. Cast steel
C. Glass
D. Mild steel

A

D. Mild steel

214
Q
  1. Kerosene is used as coolant, while machining which material?

A. Aluminum
B. Cast iron
C. Mild steel
D. Stainless

A

B. Cast iron

215
Q
  1. One of the following materials is commonly used for bearings?

A. Aluminum
B. Gun metal
C. Steel
D. Zinc

A

B. Gun metal

216
Q
  1. Babbitt metal is an alloy of:

A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead
B. Copper, zinc and tin
C. Iron and tungsten
D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorus

A

A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead

217
Q
  1. The bed of machine tool is normally made of

A. Alloy steel
B. Cast iron
C. Medium carbon steel
D. Mild steel

A

B. Cast iron

218
Q
  1. The main constituent molding sand is

A. Carbon
B. Clay
C. Graphite
D. Silicon

A

D. Silicon

219
Q
  1. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to

A. Increase ductility
B. Increase fatigue strength
C. Increase hot hardness
D. Increase wear resistance

A

C. Increase hot hardness

220
Q
  1. During cold working metals are worked.

A. Below room temperature
B. Below their melting point
C. Below their recrystallization temperature
D. Below 2000C

A

C. Below their recrystallization temperature

221
Q
  1. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force increasing rapidly above about:

A. 2500 fpm
B. 3000 fpm
C. 3500 fpm
D. 4000 fpm

A

A. 2500 fpm

222
Q
  1. For leather belts, recommended speed is:

A. 6000 to 7000 fpm
B. 5000 to 6000 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm
D. 4500 to 5600 fpm

A

C. 7000 to 8000 fpm

223
Q
  1. The recommended initial tension of the belt is:

A. 75 lb/in of width
B. 73 lb/in of width
C. 71 lb/in of width
D. 80 lb/in of width

A

C. 71 lb/in of width

224
Q
  1. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be connected by what arrangement.

A. Half turn
B. Quarter turn
C. ¾ turn
D. One turn

A

B. Quarter turn

225
Q
  1. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for low speed is:

A. 12
B. 21
C. 17
D. 14

A

A. 12

226
Q
  1. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for moderate speed is:

A. 17
B. 21
C. 12
D. 14

A

A. 17

227
Q
  1. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for high speed is:

A. 21
B. 24
C. 12
D. 14

A

A. 21

228
Q
  1. The resultant of a pair of equal forces but opposite in direction is called:

A. Concurrent
B. Couple
C. Non-concurrent
D. Resultant

A

B. Couple

229
Q
  1. The helical and herringbone gear teeth cut after heat treatment should have a hardness in the range of 210/300 BHN. The pinion gear teeth hardness on the other hand, ideally/normally should be at _____ BHN.

A. 250/320
B. 350/380
C. 400
D. 340/350

A

D. 340/350

230
Q
  1. As a rule, the center to center distance between sprocket should not be less than ______ times the diameter of the bigger sprocket and not less than 30 times the pitch nor more than about 50 times to pitch.

A. 1.5
B. 2
C. 2.5
D. 3

A

A. 1.5

231
Q
  1. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and

A. Dousing in cold water
B. Cooling slowly in water
C. Dousing in oil
D. Dousing in hot water

A

B. Cooling slowly in water

232
Q
  1. Tool steel can be hardened by

A. Heating red hot and plunging into water
B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry
C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cotton seed oil
D. Any of the above, depending on type and use

A

D. Any of the above, depending on type and use

233
Q
  1. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal

A. Harder
B. Medium hard
C. Softer
D. Shiny

A

C. Softer

234
Q
  1. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal

A. Harder
B. Softer
C. Less brittle
D. More brittle

A

C. Less brittle

235
Q
  1. A scriber is made of

A. Carbon steel
B. Cold-rolled steel
C. Hot-rolled steel
D. Tool steel

A

D. Tool steel

236
Q
  1. Knurling is done to

A. Polish material
B. Roughen material
C. Sharpen the material
D. Smoothen material

A

B. Roughen material

237
Q
  1. Muntz metal contains which of the following alloys?

A. Copper - nickel
B. Copper – zinc
C. Copper – tin
D. Copper – aluminum

A

B. Copper – zinc

238
Q
  1. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of:

A. Clad material
B. Composite material
C. Homogeneous material
D. Heterogeneous

A

D. Heterogeneous

239
Q
  1. In testing a material for endurance strength t is subjected to:

A. Static load
B. Impact load
C. Dynamic load
D. Completely reversed load

A

D. Completely reversed load

240
Q
  1. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?

A. Rug
B. Mirror
C. Carpet
D. Heavy drape

A

B. Mirror

241
Q
  1. A single force, which produces the same effect upon a mass as two or several forces acting together is called:

A. Components
B. Composition of forces
C. Resolution of forces
D. Resultant

A

D. Resultant

242
Q
  1. All forces in the same plane are called:

A. Coplanar
B. Couple
C. Parallel
D. Resultant

A

A. Coplanar

243
Q
  1. Which of the following laws which states that the force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to distance square between their centers.

A. Hooke’s law
B. Law of gravitational
C. Law of motion
D. Newton’s law

A

B. Law of gravitational

244
Q
  1. Any object thrown upward will return to earth with the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to:

A. 50% of the initial velocity
B. 80% of the initial velocity
C. About 90% of the initial velocity
D. The initial velocity

A

D. The initial velocity

245
Q
  1. Flat belt that is too tight will induce strain on the bearing and belt ______.

A. Life will be shortened
B. Result to uneconomical operation
C. Suffer/shatter
D. Will be sheared/cut

A

A. Life will be shortened

246
Q
  1. The resulting cross-sectional area of the tensile test specimen divided by the specimen original area is called:

A. Charpy test
B. % Elongation
C. Impact test
D. Izod test

A

B. % Elongation

247
Q
  1. SAE 51XXX belongs to the _______ steel family.

A. Carbon
B. Chromium
C. Manganese
D. Nickel

A

B. Chromium

248
Q
  1. In itself, it is a lubricant and usually one of the important elements in casting non-ferrous metals like bronze, for example.

A. Antimony
B. Babbitt
C. Lead
D. Zinc

A

C. Lead

249
Q
  1. Gasket material, which should avoid hot liquid/steam applications?

A. Asbestos fiber
B. Nylon fiber
C. Rubberized
D. Wool

A

C. Rubberized

250
Q
  1. The same material properties all over/direction and at any particular point in a structural member is:

A. Heterogeneous
B. Homogeneous
C. Isentropic
D. Isotropic

A

D. Isotropic

MD ELEMENTS PER 250 (2 decks)

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