E3_51 to E5 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following will usually happen to the blade of flexible hacksaw applied by too much pressure?

A. Snap easily
B. Buckle or run out of line
C. Cut too fast
D. Cut on a slant

A

B. Buckle or run out of line

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines soldering?

A. It is holding two metals together by heating
B. It is joining two metals by third soft metal that is applied in a molten state
C. It is holding two different kinds of metals together by heating
D. It is joining two metals together by heating

A

B. It is joining two metals by third soft metal that is applied in a molten state

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. What is the use of flux in soldering?

A. Keep the solder from running off the metal
B. Keep the metal from getting too hot
C. Keep the tip of the soldering iron clean
D. Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals

A

D. Remove and prevent oxidation of the metals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. A surface should be prepared for soldering by:

A. Filling the surfaces
B. Acid-cleaning the surface
C. Scraping the surfaces
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. What is(are) the hand tool(s) used for cutting threads on round stock?

A. Stock and die
B. Stock
C. Die wrench
D. Stock cutter

A

A. Stock and die

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. A tapered piece of stock is 2” long, 1-1/8” diameter at one end and ¾” diameter at the other end. The taper per foot is:

A. 2”
B. 2 – ¼”
C. 2 – ½”
D. 2 – 1/16”

A

B. 2 – ¼”

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following best defines sweating?

A. Soldering two different kinds of metal together
B. Separating two pieces two pieces of metal that have been soldered together
C. Thinning two surfaces, applying flux between them, holding the two together and heating
D. None of the above

A

C. Thinning two surfaces, applying flux between them, holding the two together and heating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. If muriatic acid is used as a flux, the soldered area must be cleaned thoroughly afterwards to prevent:

A. Anyone touching it from getting burned
B. Remaining acid from eating the metal
C. The acid from evaporating and the solder disintegrating
D. None of these

A

B. Remaining acid from eating the metal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Solder will not unite with a metal; surface that has:

A. Grease on it
B. Oxidation on it
C. Dirt on it
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Prepared soldered paste flux is most popular but if you did not have any, you could use:

A. Hydrochloric acid
B. Nitric acid
C. Sulphuric acid
D. Any of these

A

A. Hydrochloric acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent and promotes the nitriding of steels

A. Aluminum
B. Boron
C. Copper
D. Brass

A

A. Aluminum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to reduce the grain size and to act as a cleanser and degasifier.

A. Nickel
B. Boron
C. Vanadium
D. Molybdenum

A

C. Vanadium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or steatite are known as

A. Titanium
B. Vanadium
C. Refractories
D. Ceramics

A

D. Ceramics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the metal by prolonged heating free from contact with air while the metal is packed in carbon in the form of bone
    char, leather scraps, or charcoal.

A. Carburizing
B. Cyaniding
C. Nitriding
D. Aging

A

A. Carburizing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. The degree to which a material will deform before ultimate fracture.

A. Brittleness
B. Ductility
C. Malleability
D. Plasticity

A

B. Ductility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The property of a material that indicates its ability to transfer heat.

A. Thermal conductivity
B. Electrical resistivity
C. Thermal expansion
D. Electrical conductivity

A

A. Thermal conductivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. A group of heat treatable cast iron moderate to high strength, high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery and good resistance carbon.

A. Gray iron
B. Malleable iron
C. Ductile
D. White iron

A

B. Malleable iron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Steels may be carburized and nitrided simultaneously by the process known as:

A. Nitrding
B. Carburizing
C. Carbonitriding
D. Cyaniding

A

C. Carbonitriding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combine hardness obtained.

A. Vanadium
B. Chromium
C. Titanium
D. Molybdenum

A

B. Chromium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. The art of making definite impressions in sand by means of a pattern for the purpose of producing a casting

A. Molding
B. Pattern
C. Extrusion
D. Die casting

A

A. Molding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. Hard solder is made of which of the following?

A. Copper and zinc
B. Tin and copper
C. Tin and zinc
D. Tin and lead

A

A. Copper and zinc

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q
  1. Which of the following is the flux usually used for hard solder?

A. Rosin
B. Barium
C. Borax
D. Alum

A

C. Borax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q
  1. In which of the following where straight muriatic acid is often used as a flux?

A. Galvanized iron
B. Sheet metal
C. Cast iron
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q
  1. For aluminum, special solders are being used and will usually require which of the following?

A. More heat
B. The same heat as copper wire
C. Less heat
D. The same heat as sheet metal

A

A. More heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
75. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and ______. A. Dousing in cold water B. Dousing in oil C. Cooling slowly in air D. Dousing in hot water
C. Cooling slowly in air
26
76. Soft solder is made of which of the following? A. Copper and zinc B. Tin and copper C. Tin and lead D. Tin and zinc
C. Tin and lead
27
77. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel will give off _____. A. Bright shiny sparks B. No sparks C. Light straw-colored sparks D. Green sparks
C. Light straw-colored sparks
28
78. A gear wheel making 156 RPM has 56 teeth. It drives another gear at 91 RPM. The number of teeth on the second gear is: A. 65 B. 50 C. 90 D. 96
D. 96
29
79. Tool steel can be hardened by which of the following? A. Heating red hot and plunging into water B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cottonseed oil D. Any of these, depending on type and use
D. Any of these, depending on type and use
30
80. At what temperature where soft solder approximately melts? A. 250 deg. B. 450 deg. C. 350 deg. D. 550 deg.
C. 350 deg.
31
81. Products that have cross sections of less than 6 inches and that are not in the finished forms A. Slabs B. Gangue C. Blooms D. Billets
D. Billets
32
82. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the plastic state is made to flow within a die by the application of plunger pressure. A. Extrusion forging B. Smith forging C. Drop forging D. Press forging
A. Extrusion forging
33
83. It is a squeezing process used to finish sheet or bar stock for special purpose A. Cold forging B. Sizing C. Cold rolling D. Coining
C. Cold rolling
34
84. The term used for most press operations. A. Glazing B. Stamping C. Coning D. Swaging
B. Stamping
35
85. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is cut out to a definite outline in a press. A. Blanking B. Stamping C. Spinning D. Trimming
A. Blanking
36
86. It is a special case of drawing in which the work is rotated and formed by means of a tool A. Spinning B. Embossing C. Bulging D. Stretching – forming
A. Spinning
37
87. It’s a squeezing operation used for flattening or surfacing various parts where a very small amount of flow of the material is involved. A. Hobbing B. Stamping C. Coining D. Sizing
D. Sizing
38
88. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to flow into dies by the application of sudden blows to the material. A. Drop forging B. Press forging C. Extrusion D. Machine forging
A. Drop forging
39
89. It is a measure of stiffness. A. Modulus of rigidity B. Modulus of resilience C. Modulus of elasticity D. Modulus of toughness
C. Modulus of elasticity
40
90. It is a measure of the total energy-absorbed capacity of the material and includes the energy of both the elastic and plastic deformation. A. Modulus of toughness B. Modulus of resilience C. Modulus of elasticity D. Modulus of rigidity
A. Modulus of toughness
41
91. What material where a scriber made from? A. Carbon steel B. Tool steel C. Cold-rolled steel D. Hot-rolled steel
B. Tool steel
42
92. What should be done first before applying layout blue on a piece of metal? A. Roughened B. Clean C. Hot D. Cold
B. Clean
43
93. How many flutes does a drill bit have? A. 4 flutes B. 2 flutes C. 3 flutes D. No flutes
B. 2 flutes
44
94. Where is the correction position of the tool bit when facing off a piece of material in the lathe chuck? A. Above center B. Below center C. At the center D. Off center
C. At the center
45
95. Standard vise has _____ jaws? A. Soft B. Hard C. Semi-hard D. Semi-soft
B. Hard
46
96. In machining, which of the following could be the reason if tool bit burns? A. Speed is too slow B. Materials is too hard C. Speed is too fast D. Material cannot be cut
C. Speed is too fast
47
97. For which of the following where the lathe compound is used? A. Angle cutting B. Facing C. Grooving D. Any of these
D. Any of these
48
98. When the dial on the cross-feed is turned 0.010”, how much is removed from the diameter of the stock being cut? A. 0.010” B. 0.005” C. 0.020” D. 0.015”
A. 0.010”
49
99. Which of the following describes a flexible back hacksaw blade? A. Only the teeth hardened B. A movable back C. Flexible ends D. Only the back hardened
A. Only the teeth hardened
50
100. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited for which of the following materials? A. Channel iron B. Aluminum C. Tubing D. Any of these
D. Any of these
51
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along the swivel table and is clamped in position by two bolts one an either side of the base. A. Foot stock B. Head stock C. Tail stock D. Cross stock
B. Head stock
52
2. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of materials by a drop and rebound method. A. Scleroscope B. Rockwell Hardness Tester C. Universal Testing Machine D. Brinell Hardness Tester
A. Scleroscope
53
3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface roughness in micro inches. A. Caliper B. Micrometer C. Profilometer D. Scleroscope
C. Profilometer
54
4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding wheel touching the work being ground. A. Area of contact B. Arc of contact C. Angle of contact D. Contact ratio
B. Arc of contact
55
5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the wheel is mounted. A. Bushing B. Arbor C. Bearing D. Fluting
B. Arbor
56
6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or the working piece being grounded. A. Head stock B. Fixtures C. Jigs D. Chuck
D. Chuck
57
7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap. A. Fluting B. Flaring C. Lapping D. Honing
A. Fluting
58
8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel resulting in a decreased rate of cutting is called. A. Grinding B. Glazing C. Fluting D. Lapping
B. Glazing
59
9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed as A. Honing B. Tumbling C. Snagging D. Truing
C. Snagging
60
10. The process of increasing the cross-sectional area of a given portion or possibly of the whole piece. A. Forging B. Upsetting C. Spreading D. Drawing
B. Upsetting
61
11. For ordinary steel, the modulus of elasticity usually falls between _____ million pounds. A. 20 to 31 B. 35 to 45 C. 20 to 35 D. 25 to 30
A. 20 to 31
62
12. The modulus of elasticity for metals in compression is usually taken as that in: A. Tension B. Bearing C. Yield D. Ultimate
A. Tension
63
13. Which of the following is the ratio of moment and stress? A. Strain B. Section modulus C. Contraction D. Passions ratio
B. Section modulus
64
14. What is the flexural stress when of a symmetrically cross-section beam when the vertical shear is maximum? A. Infinity B. Zero C. Maximum D. Minimum
B. Zero
65
15. The riveted joints in ASME Code has a design surface compressive stress _______ higher than the design tensile stress. A. 70% B. 60% C. 35% D. 50%
B. 60%
66
16. What is the ratio of the minimum strength of joint to the strength of solid joint in the pressure vessel? A. Efficiency B. Relative strength C. Performance factor D. Joint efficiency
B. Relative strength
67
17. What is the usual factor of safety for a pressure vessel? A. 4 B. 1.5 C. 3 D. 5
D. 5
68
18. It is the permissible variation of the size. A. Tolerance B. Limits C. Fits D. None of these
A. Tolerance
69
19. Considering that there is no fit, what is the permissible liberal tolerance in machining work? A. ± 0.010 B. ± 0.090 C. ± 0.020 D. ± 0.050
A. ± 0.010
70
20. Which of the following is a tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only or smaller only, than the given dimension. A. Unilateral B. Lateral C. Bilateral D. None of these
A. Unilateral
71
21. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while the cross-sectional area is being reduced. A. Tapping B. Honing C. Drawing D. Upsetting
C. Drawing
72
22. An alloy of copper, tin and antimony. A. Bearing B. Babbitt C. Iconel D. Titanium
B. Babbitt
73
23. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin. A. Tallow B. Sal ammonia C. Tinning D. Rosin
D. Rosin
74
24. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and zinc. A. Soldering pastes B. Muriatic acid C. Zinc chloride D. Cut acid
B. Muriatic acid
75
25. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling depressions into the surface. A, Honing B. Knurling C. Snagging D. Reaming
B. Knurling
76
26. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads or teeth, chip passage and lubrication. A. Heel B. Land C. Flute D. Thread relief
C. Flute
77
27. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a cutting tool. A. Tapping B. Reaming C. Chamfering D. Honing
A. Tapping
78
28. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing solid metal. A. Knurling B. Reaming C. Boring D. Drilling
D. Drilling
79
29. The surface below the cutting edge. A. Face B. Flank C. Nose D. Side relief
B. Flank
80
30. The surface over which the chip flows. A. Face B. Flank C. Nose D. None of these
C. Nose
81
31. A tolerance where the size of a part permitted to be either larger or smaller than the given dimension. A. Unilateral B. Lateral C. Bilateral D. None of these
C. Bilateral
82
32. Which of the following is the basis for ASA fits? A. Basic number system B. Basic hole system C. Basic size system D. Unit system
B. Basic hole system
83
33. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take force or pressure to put the cold parts together. In such case the allowance is negative. Which of the following terms is appropriate for such allowance? A. Negative fits of metals B. Interference of metals C. Positive fits of the shaft D. Intangible fits
B. Interference of metals
84
34. What is the direction of the predominant surface pattern? A. Smoothness B. Waviness C. Lay D. Roughness
C. Lay
85
35. It is the irregularities of departures from the nominal surface of greater spacing than roughness. A. Waviness B. Roughness C. Lay D. Smoothness
A. Waviness
86
36. It is the surface finish of micrometer in rms. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
A. 1
87
37. Which of the following gears has the simplest type of teeth? A. Helical gears B. Spur gears C. Bevel gears D. Worm gears
B. Spur gears
88
38. In gears, an imaginary circle on which the level arm is based in: A. Base circle B. Pitch circle C. Addendum circle D. Clearance circle
B. Pitch circle
89
39. It is the circle tangent to the addendum of the meshing gears. A. Clearance circle B. Base circle C. Addendum circle D. Pitch circle
A. Clearance circle
90
40. The distance form a point on one gear to the corresponding point measured along the base circle. A. Normal pitch B. Circular pitch C. Axial pitch D. Diametral pitch
A. Normal pitch
91
41. It measures the downward slope of the top surface of the tool from the nose to the rear along the longitudinal. A. Side cutting edge angle B. End relief angle C. Side rake angle D. Back rake angle
D. Back rake angle
92
42. Which one is the hardness material? A. Steel B. Diamond C. Bronze D. Brass
B. Diamond
93
43. It measures the slope of top surface of the tool to the side in a direction perpendicular to the longitudinal axis. A. Side rake angle B. Side cutting edge angle C. Side relief edge angle D. End relief angle
A. Side rake angle
94
44. A type of bonding material, which is made of clay and water. A. Resinoid bond B. Vitrified bond C. Shellac bond D. Rubber bond
B. Vitrified bond
95
45. The process of producing an extremely accurate highly finished surface. A. Lapping B. Buffing C. Polishing D. Honing
A. Lapping
96
46. It is surface finishing process by which scratches and toll marks are removed with a polishing wheel. A. Honing B. Lapping C. Polishing D. Buffing
C. Polishing
97
47. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of the machine when drilling. A. Drill chuck B. Chuck key C. Floating holder D. Magic chuck
A. Drill chuck
98
48. Continuous chips are formed when cutting A. Brittle materials B. Ductile materials C. Amorphous plastic materials D. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only
B. Ductile materials
99
49. The rake angle of a cutting tool. A. Controls the chip formation B. Prevents rubbing C. Determine the profile of load D. Determine whether the cutting action is oblique or orthogonal
A. Controls the chip formation
100
50. Back rake angle for HSS single point cutting tool to machine free cutting brass is A. 0o B. 5o C. 10o D. 15o
A. 0o
101
51. A line passing through the pitch point that is tangent to both base circles of a gear is: A. Pressure line B. Perpendicular line C. Tangent line D. Center line
A. Pressure line
102
52. Which of the following is the contact ratio for a good gear design? A. 1.5 : 1 B. 1 : 1.3 C. 1 : 3 D. 1.2 : 2
A. 1.5 : 1
103
53. In pressure vessels, which of the following resists internal pressure through tension? A. Shell-type element B. Cam type element C. Plate-type element D. Spherical type element
A. Shell-type element
104
54. It is the study of the body’s motion independent of the forces on the body. A. Kinetics B. Dynamics C. Kinematics D. Mechanics
C. Kinematics
105
55. What is the reciprocal of the velocity ratio? A. Train value B. Ratio factor C. Modular value D. None of these
A. Train value
106
56. It is a type of bolt finished all over and has usually having coarse threads. A. Coupling bolt B. Stud bolt C. Machine bolt D. Automobile bolt
A. Coupling bolt
107
57. It is a type of bolt distinguished by a short portion of the shank underneath the head being square or finned or ribbed. A. Coupling bolt B. Stud bolt C. Machine bolt D. Carriage bolt
D. Carriage bolt
108
58. It is a type of bolt threaded on both ends and can be used where a through bolt impossible. A. Coupling bolt B. Carriage bolt C. Stud bolt D. Machine bolt
C. Stud bolt
109
59. Which of the following is not a type of bolt? A. Stud bolt B. Steel bolt C. Machine bolt D. Coupling bolt
B. Steel bolt
110
60. It is a locking device that is used to maintain pressure between threads of the bolt and nut. A. Gasket B. Lock washer C. Lock nuts D. Filler
B. Lock washer
111
61. In the list of process given below, the chip removal process is the A. Die casting B. Extruding C. Forging D. Broaching
D. Broaching
112
62. The twist drill has its point thinned in order to A. Reduce the hole diameter B. Increase the rake angle C. Locate in the center punch mark D. Reduce the axial pressure
D. Reduce the axial pressure
113
63. In the list of process given below, the non-chip removal process is A. Grinding B. Spinning on lathe C. Thread cutting D. Milling
B. Spinning on lathe
114
64. A reamer is used to correct the A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole B. Size and position of a drilled hole C. Finish and position of a drilled hole D. Finish and depth of a drilled hole
A. Size and roundness of a drilled hole
115
65. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if A. Lips of drill are of unequal length B. Feed is too high C. Insufficient coolant is used D. Cutting speed is too high
A. Lips of drill are of unequal length
116
66. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even when their cutting elements get heated up to a temperature of A. 1650oC B. 1000oC C. 1400oC D. 1800oC
B. 1000oC
117
67. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with: A. Positive back rake angle B. Neutral back rake angle C. Negative back rake angle D. None of these
C. Negative back rake angle
118
68. The point angle of twist drill to machine is A. 112o B. 116o C. 118o D. 120o
C. 118o
119
69. The cutting speed of HSS twist drill to machine gray cast iron is A. 10 – 20 m/min B. 15 – 25 m/min C. 20 – 30 m/min D. 25 – 40 m/min
D. 25 – 40 m/min
120
70. The recommended value of rake angle for machining aluminum with cutting tools made up of diamond tool. A. 0o B. 15o C. 35o D. 45o
A. 0o
121
71. What is the large wood screw used to fasten machinery and equipment? A. Lag screw B. Loss screw C. Wood screw D. Cross screw
A. Lag screw
122
74. What is the overall length of the spring when it is compressed until all adjacent coils touched? A. Free length B. Solid length C. Compressed length D. Expansion length
B. Solid length
123
72. What is the minimum length of contact in a tapped hole for cast iron? A. 1.7 D B. 1.5 D C. 1.2 D D. 2.1 D
B. 1.5 D
124
73. It is the ratio of the mean diameter of coil over the coil diameters. A. Wahl factor B. Spring index C. Coil ratio D. Lead scale
B. Spring index
125
75. It is the length of a coil spring under no load. A. Compressed length B. Free length C. Solid height D. None of these
B. Free length
126
76. In general, the steel springs are made of relatively or relative high carbon steel usually: A. 5% B. Less than 0.5% C. More than 0.5% D. 7.5%
C. More than 0.5%
127
77. It is a low cost spring material suitable where service is not severe and dimensional precision is not needed. A. Helical spring wire B. Stainless steel C. Hard drawn wire spring D. Copper
C. Hard drawn wire spring
128
78. What is the hard drawn (80% reduction) spring wire made of high carbon steel? A. Oil tempered wire B. Music wire C. Tension wire D. Chromium wire
B. Music wire
129
79. Which of the following wires with good quality and is used for impact loading? A. Hard drawn wire B. Song wire C. Helical spring wire D. Chromium-silicon wire
D. Chromium-silicon wire
130
80. When heated-treated wire is coiled cold, It should be stress relieved for bending stress and after cooling is heated at some: A. 4000F B. 6000F C. 7000F D. 5000F
D. 5000F
131
81. The cutting speeds of HSS milling cutter to machine aluminum is A. 140 – 200 m/min B. 160 – 220 m/min C. 180 – 240 m/min D. 200 – 260 m/min
C. 180 – 240 m/min
132
82. The major factors, which determine the rpm of milling cutter, are the material being cut and the ________. A. Number of teeth in cutter B. Diameter of cutter C. Time allowed to complete the job D. Depth of cutter
C. Time allowed to complete the job
133
83. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by A. Increased sliding B. Increased shear angle C. Use of low tool finish D. None of these
A. Increased sliding
134
84. The studs used as a coolant machine shop consists of A. Solution of detergent and water B. A straight mineral oil C. An emulsion of oil and water D. A chemical solution
C. An emulsion of oil and water
135
85. The recommended value of rake angle for machine aluminum with cutting tools made up of high speed steel tool. A. 5o B. 10o C. 15o D. 35o
D. 35o
136
86. Milling cutter is sharpened on A. Tool and cutter grinder B. Cylindrical grinder C. Centerless grinder D. Surface grinder
A. Tool and cutter grinder
137
87. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a material having A. High melting point and high thermal conductivity B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity C. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity D. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity
B. High melting point and low thermal conductivity
138
88. A process can be considered as a hot working process if the material is heated. A. Below recrystallization temperature B. Above rescrystallization temperature C. Below normal temperature D. Above normal temperature
B. Above rescrystallization temperature
139
89. Grinding is A. Metal fusing operation B. Metal powdering operation C. Metal finishing operation D. None of these
C. Metal finishing operation
140
90. Grinding is done wherever A. Other machining operation cannot be carried out B. A large amount of material is to be removed C. High accuracy is required D. None of these
C. High accuracy is required
141
91. Which of the following is not a function of spring? A. Absorbs energy B. Source of potential energy C. Measure weight D. Measure thickness
D. Measure thickness
142
92. Which of the following is the type of spring made in the form of dished washer? A. Air spring B. Bellevile spring C. Volute spring D. Motor spring
B. Bellevile spring
143
93. What is the type of failure due to unstability? A. Buckling B. Slenderness ratio C. Stability D. Euler’s failure
A. Buckling
144
94. What type of formula that is best applied to a very slender column? A. Column formula B. Slenderness formula C. Moment formulas D. Euler formula
D. Euler formula
145
95. If two principal stresses is zero, the state of stress is: A. Biaxial B. Mono-axial C. Uniaxial D. Biaxial
C. Uniaxial
146
96. What do you call the system that has finite values of principal stresses? A. Triaxial B. Uniaxial C. Mono-axial D. Biaxial
A. Triaxial
147
97. A screw that requires positive torque to lower the load or to loosen the screw if it has been turned tight against a resistance. A. Self locking screw B. Lock screw C. Self screw D. Power screw
D. Power screw
148
98. What is the rotating member used in transmitting power? A. Shaft B. Counter shaft C. Axle D. Washer
A. Shaft
149
99. For machinery shafts, the permissible deflection is approximately: A. 0.02 in./ft B. 0.03 in./ft C. 0.01 in/ft D. 0.05 in./ft
A. 0.02 in./ft
150
100. For shafts, the shear due to bending is a maximum at the neutral plane where the normal stress is: A. Minimum B. Constant C. Maximum also D. Zero
D. Zero
151
1. The process of increasing the carbon content to surface of steel by exposing it to hot carbonaceous material above the transformation of 1650 to 17500F. A. Carbonitriding B. Case hardening C. Carburing D. Induction hardening
C. Carburing
152
2. In the SAE identification code of steel shafting the 3rd and 4th digits represents the content of: A. % of manganese in the steel B. % of alloy C. % of carbon content D. % of chromium in the steel
C. % of carbon content
153
3. It is associated with nickel steel. A. Magensium B. Lead C. Columbium D. Tin
D. Tin
154
4. A non-magnetic metal is: A. Nodular iron B. Manganese steel C. Tungsten – molybdenum steel D. All of these
B. Manganese steel
155
5. In small quantity this alloy is effective for improvement strength at high temperature. A. Chromium B. Manganese C. Selenium D. Molybdenum
A. Chromium
156
6. T of carbon and alloy used in production of precision work tools. A. Chrome – manganese B. Titanium C. High speed steel D. Chrome – molybdenum
C. High speed steel
157
7. Powder metallurgy, the process of heating the cold pressed metal powder is called: A. Deposition B. Granulation C. Precipitation D. Sintering
D. Sintering
158
8. Electro-forming is especially valuable for: A. Decorative items B. Good conductors of electricity C. Non-ferrous components D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface finish
D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of accuracy and internal surface finish
159
9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting. A. Must possess considerable fluidity B. Must not be free from hot shortness C. Must have iron as one of the constituents D. Must be light
A. Must possess considerable fluidity
160
10. In carbon steel castings. A. The percentage for alloying elements is controlled B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7% to 2% C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7% D. None of the above
C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%
161
11. The minimum value of numerical combined shock and fatigue factor to be applied in every case to the computed bending moment of the shaft is: A. 2.0 B. 1.75 C. 1.5 D. 1.3
C. 1.5
162
12. What is the other name given to short shafts on machines? A. Spindles B. Head shafts C. Cores shafts D. All of these
A. Spindles
163
13. The other name given to a line shaft is: A. Countershaft B. Main shaft C. Long shaft D. Head shaft
B. Main shaft
164
14. The speed at which the center of mass will be equal the deflecting forces on the shaft, the shaft with its attached bodies will then vibrate violently, since the centrifugal force changes its direction as the shaft turns in. A. Nominal speed B. Critical speed C. Relative speed D. Mean speed
B. Critical speed
165
15. An old rule of thumb for transmission shafting is that the deflection should not exceed ____ of length between supports. A. 0.01 in. per foot B. 0.08 in. per foot C. 0.02 in. per foot D. 0.05 in. per foot
A. 0.01 in. per foot
166
16. For transmission shafts, the allowable deflection is 1 degree in a length of ____ diameters. A. 20 B. 25 C. 30 D. 40
A. 20
167
17. What is the limiting torsional deflection for machinery shafts. If the criteria of limiting torsional deflection vary from 0.080 per foot of length. A. 10 B. 2.50 C. 20 D. 3.50
A. 10
168
18. Bevel gears of sizes 5 in. to 15 in. should not be lift or depress more than _____ as Gleason statement. A. 0.004 B. 0.003 C. 0.002 D. 0.001
B. 0.003
169
19. What type of key that allows the hub to move along the shaft but prevents the rotation of the shaft? A. Woodruf key B. Feather key C. Gibbs key D. Square key
B. Feather key
170
20. What is the other name for Kennedy key? A. Tangential key B. Woodruf key C. Saddle key D. Rollpin
A. Tangential key
171
21. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron and its pressure in cast iron reduces the ability of the iron to retain carbon in chemical combination. A. Aluminum B. Carbon C. Silicon D. Sulphur
C. Silicon
172
22. Cyaniding is the process of: A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath C. Obtaining cyanide salts D. Reacting steel surface with cyanide salts
A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of steel to increase its surface hardness
173
23. An engineer’s hammer is made of A. Cast iron B. High speed steel C. Forged steel D. Mild steel
C. Forged steel
174
24. A cold chisel is made of: A. Cast iron B. High carbon steel C. High speed steel D. Mild steel
B. High carbon steel
175
25. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is: A. 0.02% B. 0.30% C. 0.63% D. 0.80%
D. 0.80%
176
26. Machining properties of steel can be improved by adding: A. Chromium, nickel B. Silicon, aluminum, titanium C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus D. Vanadium, aluminum
C. Sulfur, lead, phosphorus
177
27. The ability of a material to absorb energy when deformed elastically and to return it when unloaded is known as: A. Creep B. Fatigue strength C. Hardness D. Resilience
D. Resilience
178
28. A ductile fracture is characterized by A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces C. Negligible deformation D. Rapid rate for crack propagation
A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to propagation of crack
179
29. Of metals where in strength of metal is increased and the ductility increases the heating at a relatively low temperature after cold working. A. Cluster B. Screw dislocation C. Solid solution hardening D. Strain aging
D. Strain aging
180
30. The material recovers its original dimensions, when the load is removed, it is called: A. Annealed B. Brittle C. Elastic D. Plastic
C. Elastic
181
31. What type of fits used for involute spline? A. Close fit B. Press fit C. Sliding fit D. All of these
D. All of these
182
32. It is used for permanent fits and similar to involute splines except that the pressure angle is 14.50. A. Separation load B. Spline shaft C. Stub serrations D. Involute serrations
D. Involute serrations
183
33. It is used a coupling, or in addition to another couplings where in case of overload, there is danger of injury to machine or to material in process. A. Shear pin B. Flange coupling C. Involute serrations D. King pin
A. Shear pin
184
34. What is the maximum shaft angle for a single Hooke’s coupling? A. 100 B. 170 C. 150 D. 200
C. 150
185
35. What are the two principal parts of a journal bearing? A. Bearing and journal B. Shaft and Babbitt C. Clearance and fitted D. Shaft and cylinder
A. Bearing and journal
186
36. When the line of action of the load bisects the arc of partial bearing, the bearing is said to be: A. Eccentrically loaded B. Fully loaded C. Centrally loaded D. Partially loaded
C. Centrally loaded
187
37. What is the difference in radii of the bearing and journal? A. Even clearance B. Clearance ratio C. Odd clearance D. Radial clearance
D. Radial clearance
188
38. When radii of both the bearing and the journal are the same, then the bearing is said to be: A. Fitted bearings B. Clearance bearing C. Full bearing D. Ambiguous bearing
A. Fitted bearings
189
39. What is the line that passes through the centers of the bearing and the journal? A. Line of action B. Line of centers C. Line of symmetry D. Tangent line
B. Line of centers
190
40. Which of the following is considered advantageous for bearing materials? A. Conformability B. Compatibility C. Embeddability D. All of these
D. All of these
191
41. A body having identical properties all over is called: A. Ductile B. Elastic C. Homogeneous D. Isentropic
C. Homogeneous
192
42. Points of arrest of iron correspond to: A. Stages at which allotropic forms change B. Stages at which further heating does not increase temperature for sometime C. Stages at which properties do not change with increase in temperature D. There is nothing like points of arrest
A. Stages at which allotropic forms change
193
43. Delta iron occurs at: A. Temperature above melting point B. Temperature between 14000C and 15390C C. Temperature between 10000C and 14000C D. Room temperature
B. Temperature between 14000C and 15390C
194
44. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range. A. Between 9100C and 14000C B. Between 14000C and 15390C C. Near melting point D. Room temperature
A. Between 9100C and 14000C
195
45. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of: A. Below 7230C B. 700 – 9100C C. 1000 – 14400C D. 1400 – 15390C
A. Below 7230C
196
46. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous melting process is made of: A. Low carbon steel B. Medium carbon steel C. High carbon steel D. Copper
D. Copper
197
47. A silver refers to A. The pointed location spot silver plated B. The point on an instrument dial a reading beyond which may be dangerous for the system C. The temperature at which silver melts D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid silver at normal atmospheric pressure
D. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid silver at normal atmospheric pressure
198
48. Piston compression rings are made of A. Aluminum B. Bronze C. Cast iron D. White metal
C. Cast iron
199
49. One of the materials used for making surface plate is A. Brass B. Granite C. Stainless steel D. Wood
B. Granite
200
50. Cast iron contains _____% carbon A. 0.05 to 0.30 B. 0.30 to 0.60 C. 0.60 to 1.30 D. 2 to 4
D. 2 to 4
201
51. A conclusion repeatedly verified by experiment is that the smoother surface. A. Has the greater load capacity of the bearing B. Has the lesser capacity of the bearing C. Has constant load D. None of these
A. Has the greater load capacity of the bearing
202
52. Which of the following considers the 200 series of bearing? A. Heavy B. Medium C. Light D. All of these
C. Light
203
53. Which of the following considers the 300 series of bearing? A. Medium B. Heavy C. Light D. All of these
B. Heavy
204
54. A type of roller bearing in which the balls are assembled by the eccentric displacement of the inner ring. A. Shallow groove ball bearing B. Filling-slot ball bearing C. Self-aligning ball bearing D. Deep-groove bearing
D. Deep-groove bearing
205
55. Which of the following is not a type of ball bearing? A. Shallow groove ball bearing B. Filling-slot ball bearing C. Self-aligning ball bearing D. Deep-groove ball bearing
A. Shallow groove ball bearing
206
56. Which of the following is the approximate density of the leather belt? A. 0.035 lb/in.3 B. 0.0135 lb/in.3 C. 0.025 lb/in.3 D. 0.0465 lb/in.3
A. 0.035 lb/in.3
207
57. Which of the following is the approximate density of a fat rubber belt? A. 0.055 lb/in.3 B. 0.0135 lb/in.3 C. 0.045 lb/in.3 D. 0.0465 lb/in.3
C. 0.045 lb/in.3
208
58. A toothed wheel whose tooth elements are straight and parallel to the shaft axis or used to transmit motion and power between parallel shafts. A. Helical gear B. Spur gear C. Worm gear D. Bevel gear
B. Spur gear
209
59. The breaking strength of oak-tanned beltings varies from 3 to more than. A. 5 ksi B. 6 ksi C. 7 ksi D. 9 ksi
B. 6 ksi
210
60. Experience suggests that the most economical designs are obtained for a belt speed of: A. 6000 to 7500 fpm B. 3000 to 5000 fpm C. 3500 to 4700 fpm D. 5000 to 1000 fpm
A. 6000 to 7500 fpm
211
61. Tungsten in high speed steel imparts which of the following characteristics? A. Corrosion resistance B. Ductility C. Red hardness D. Shock resistance
C. Red hardness
212
62. High carbon steel has a carbon content of: A. 0.5 to 1% B. 0.8 to 2% C. 1 to 3% D. 2%
B. 0.8 to 2%
213
63. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and cone formation is observed with ___. A. Cast iron B. Cast steel C. Glass D. Mild steel
D. Mild steel
214
64. Kerosene is used as coolant, while machining which material? A. Aluminum B. Cast iron C. Mild steel D. Stainless
B. Cast iron
215
65. One of the following materials is commonly used for bearings? A. Aluminum B. Gun metal C. Steel D. Zinc
B. Gun metal
216
66. Babbitt metal is an alloy of: A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead B. Copper, zinc and tin C. Iron and tungsten D. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorus
A. Tin, copper, antimony and lead
217
67. The bed of machine tool is normally made of A. Alloy steel B. Cast iron C. Medium carbon steel D. Mild steel
B. Cast iron
218
68. The main constituent molding sand is A. Carbon B. Clay C. Graphite D. Silicon
D. Silicon
219
69. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to A. Increase ductility B. Increase fatigue strength C. Increase hot hardness D. Increase wear resistance
C. Increase hot hardness
220
70. During cold working metals are worked. A. Below room temperature B. Below their melting point C. Below their recrystallization temperature D. Below 2000C
C. Below their recrystallization temperature
221
71. The tension in the belt due to centrifugal force increasing rapidly above about: A. 2500 fpm B. 3000 fpm C. 3500 fpm D. 4000 fpm
A. 2500 fpm
222
72. For leather belts, recommended speed is: A. 6000 to 7000 fpm B. 5000 to 6000 fpm C. 7000 to 8000 fpm D. 4500 to 5600 fpm
C. 7000 to 8000 fpm
223
73. The recommended initial tension of the belt is: A. 75 lb/in of width B. 73 lb/in of width C. 71 lb/in of width D. 80 lb/in of width
C. 71 lb/in of width
224
74. Two shafts at right angles to each other may be connected by what arrangement. A. Half turn B. Quarter turn C. ¾ turn D. One turn
B. Quarter turn
225
75. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for low speed is: A. 12 B. 21 C. 17 D. 14
A. 12
226
76. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for moderate speed is: A. 17 B. 21 C. 12 D. 14
A. 17
227
77. The minimum number of teeth on a smaller sprocket for high speed is: A. 21 B. 24 C. 12 D. 14
A. 21
228
78. The resultant of a pair of equal forces but opposite in direction is called: A. Concurrent B. Couple C. Non-concurrent D. Resultant
B. Couple
229
79. The helical and herringbone gear teeth cut after heat treatment should have a hardness in the range of 210/300 BHN. The pinion gear teeth hardness on the other hand, ideally/normally should be at _____ BHN. A. 250/320 B. 350/380 C. 400 D. 340/350
D. 340/350
230
80. As a rule, the center to center distance between sprocket should not be less than ______ times the diameter of the bigger sprocket and not less than 30 times the pitch nor more than about 50 times to pitch. A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 2.5 D. 3
A. 1.5
231
81. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and A. Dousing in cold water B. Cooling slowly in water C. Dousing in oil D. Dousing in hot water
B. Cooling slowly in water
232
82. Tool steel can be hardened by A. Heating red hot and plunging into water B. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry C. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cotton seed oil D. Any of the above, depending on type and use
D. Any of the above, depending on type and use
233
83. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal A. Harder B. Medium hard C. Softer D. Shiny
C. Softer
234
84. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal A. Harder B. Softer C. Less brittle D. More brittle
C. Less brittle
235
85. A scriber is made of A. Carbon steel B. Cold-rolled steel C. Hot-rolled steel D. Tool steel
D. Tool steel
236
86. Knurling is done to A. Polish material B. Roughen material C. Sharpen the material D. Smoothen material
B. Roughen material
237
87. Muntz metal contains which of the following alloys? A. Copper - nickel B. Copper – zinc C. Copper – tin D. Copper – aluminum
B. Copper – zinc
238
88. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of: A. Clad material B. Composite material C. Homogeneous material D. Heterogeneous
D. Heterogeneous
239
89. In testing a material for endurance strength t is subjected to: A. Static load B. Impact load C. Dynamic load D. Completely reversed load
D. Completely reversed load
240
90. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material? A. Rug B. Mirror C. Carpet D. Heavy drape
B. Mirror
241
91. A single force, which produces the same effect upon a mass as two or several forces acting together is called: A. Components B. Composition of forces C. Resolution of forces D. Resultant
D. Resultant
242
92. All forces in the same plane are called: A. Coplanar B. Couple C. Parallel D. Resultant
A. Coplanar
243
93. Which of the following laws which states that the force of attraction between two bodies is directly proportional to the product of their masses and inversely proportional to distance square between their centers. A. Hooke’s law B. Law of gravitational C. Law of motion D. Newton’s law
B. Law of gravitational
244
94. Any object thrown upward will return to earth with the magnitude of the terminal velocity equal to: A. 50% of the initial velocity B. 80% of the initial velocity C. About 90% of the initial velocity D. The initial velocity
D. The initial velocity
245
95. Flat belt that is too tight will induce strain on the bearing and belt ______. A. Life will be shortened B. Result to uneconomical operation C. Suffer/shatter D. Will be sheared/cut
A. Life will be shortened
246
96. The resulting cross-sectional area of the tensile test specimen divided by the specimen original area is called: A. Charpy test B. % Elongation C. Impact test D. Izod test
B. % Elongation
247
97. SAE 51XXX belongs to the _______ steel family. A. Carbon B. Chromium C. Manganese D. Nickel
B. Chromium
248
98. In itself, it is a lubricant and usually one of the important elements in casting non-ferrous metals like bronze, for example. A. Antimony B. Babbitt C. Lead D. Zinc
C. Lead
249
99. Gasket material, which should avoid hot liquid/steam applications? A. Asbestos fiber B. Nylon fiber C. Rubberized D. Wool
C. Rubberized
250
100. The same material properties all over/direction and at any particular point in a structural member is: A. Heterogeneous B. Homogeneous C. Isentropic D. Isotropic
D. Isotropic