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MD ELEMENTS PER 50 > E3_1-50 > Flashcards

E3_1-50 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The ability of substance to exist in more than one lattice form is known as:

A. Allotropy
B. Grain
C. Crystallization
D. Diamagnetic

A

A. Allotropy

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2
Q
  1. Properties which describe the behavior of materials under the association of force are called as:

A. Physical properties
B. Chemical properties
C. Mechanical properties
D. Electrical properties

A

C. Mechanical properties

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3
Q
  1. The amount of energy per unit volume which the material will possess when subjected to the elastic limit stress is called:

A. Bulk modulus
B. Modulus of Resilience
C. Modulus of elasticity
D. Modulus of rigidity

A

B. Modulus of Resilience

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4
Q
  1. _________ means the resistance to penetration

A. Hardness
B. Strength
C. Toughness
D. Stiffness

A

A. Hardness

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5
Q
  1. _____ means the increasing hardness and strength by plastic deformation at temperatures lower than the recrystallization range.

A. Case hardening
B. Strain hardening
C. Nitriding
D. Stiffness

A

B. Strain hardening

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6
Q
  1. The plastic deformation at temperatures above the recrystallization temperature.

A. Hot working
B. Cold working
C. Normalizing
D. Annealing

A

A. Hot working

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7
Q
  1. The plastic deformation at temperatures below the recrystallization temperature.

A. Hot working
B. Normalizing
C. Annealing
D. Cold working

A

D. Cold working

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8
Q
  1. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated temperature properties of materials may be secured by means of a

A. Stress rupture test
B. Creep
C. Impact test
D. Modulus of rupture

A

A. Stress rupture test

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9
Q
  1. The temperature at which this decrease of impact energy occurs is called

A. Recrystallization temperature
B. Transition temperature
C. Rupture temperature
D. Ultimate temperature

A

B. Transition temperature

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10
Q
  1. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a definite composition and a definite freezing melting point.

A. Allotropy
B. Peritectic
C. Eutectic
D. Protectic

A

C. Eutectic

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11
Q
  1. What is the approximate gap clearance for new piston rings for steam pumps?

A. 0.003” for each inch diameter of cylinder
B. 0.001” for each inch diameter of cylinder
C. 0.010” each inch diameter of cylinder
D. 0.050” for each inch diameter of cylinder

A

A. 0.003” for each inch diameter of cylinder

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12
Q
  1. The familiar “3/8 – 16” in machine shop means what?

A. 6 pieces, 3/8” long
B. Gear with 16 teeth and a 3/8” arbor hole
C. 3/8” square, 16” lone
D. 3/8” diameter, 16 threads per inch

A

D. 3/8” diameter, 16 threads per inch

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13
Q

13 The work should be held _______ when using a drill press.

A. The hand
B. A vise or clamp
C. A gloved hand
D. Pliers

A

B. A vise or clamp

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14
Q
  1. What is(are) the reason(s) why tapered shanks are used on large drill presses?

A. The drill can be centered more easily
B. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve with a drift
C. The shank will not turn when cutting
D. The shank can be reground when worn

A

B. The drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve with a drift

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15
Q

15 Which of the following is not a common drill shank?

A. Straight
B. Fluted
C. Taper
D. Bit

A

B. Fluted

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16
Q
  1. What is the usual cutting angle on a drill for drilling mild steel?

A. 39 deg.
B. 59 deg.
C. 49 deg.
D. 69 deg.

A

B. 59 deg.

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17
Q
  1. When installing a new grinding wheel, always use:

A. Blotting paper gaskets on each side of the wheel
B. Copper gasket on each side of the wheel
C. Only the steel washers provided with the machine
D. None of the above

A

A. Blotting paper gaskets on each side of the wheel

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18
Q
  1. What is the other term for the operation of “truing” a grinding wheel?

A. Centering
B. Sizing
C. Dressing
D. Rounding

A

C. Dressing

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19
Q
  1. What tool is used to check external pipe threads?

A. Plug gage
B. Pitch gage
C. Thread gage
D. Ring gage

A

D. Ring gage

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20
Q
  1. What tool is used to check internal pipe threads?

A. Plug gage
B. Pitch gage
C. Thread gage
D. Ring gage

A

A. Plug gage

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21
Q
  1. The science which deals with the preparation and application of metals and alloys.

A. Manufacturing
B. Metalloids
C. Metallurgy
D. Refractories

A

C. Metallurgy

22
Q
  1. A combination of minerals which can be profitably mined.

A. Gangue
B. Metal
C. Alloy
D. Ores

A

D. Ores

23
Q
  1. The mechanical treatment by which the concentration of ores is increased are called.

A. Gravity separation
B. Ore dressing
C. Distillation
D. Sintering

A

B. Ore dressing

24
Q
  1. Process which involve the reduction of the metal from aqueous solution by replacement or by electrolysis are called

A. Pyrometallurgical processes
B. Electrometallurgical processes
C. Hydrometallurgical processes
D. Amalgamation process

A

C. Hydrometallurgical processes

25
Q
  1. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature used in the construction of furnaces, crucibles and so forth are called.

A. Refractories
B. Ceramics
C. Insulators
D. Grate

A

A. Refractories

26
Q
  1. The flux and gangue when in proper proportions will have a melting temperature considerably lower than that of either one and the resulting combination is called:

A. Lime
B. Residue
C. Slag
D. Refractories

A

C. Slag

27
Q
  1. An iron-bearing slate or chert in the form of compact siliceous rock.

A. Taconite
B. Hematite
C. Magnetite
D. Limonite

A

A. Taconite

28
Q
  1. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate slag

A. Bronze
B. Brass
C. Cast iron
D. Wrought iron

A

D. Wrought iron

29
Q
  1. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon content does not exceed 1.7 percent

A. Brass
B. Steel
C. Babbit
D. Bronze

A

B. Steel

30
Q
  1. The structure formed when transformation occurs at temperature down to the knee of the curve

A. Pearlite
B. Bainite
C. Martinsite
D. Limonite

A

A. Pearlite

31
Q
  1. Which of the following is used to cut gears?

A. gear cutter
B. Gear center
C. Gear hob
D. Gear threader

A

C. Gear hob

32
Q
  1. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool bits, dip the end of the bit in water frequently to prevent:

A. Burning your fingers
B. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit
C. Hardening of the tip
D. The tip from crystallizing

A

B. Annealing the cutting edge of the bit

33
Q
  1. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel will give off:

A. White sparks with stars on the ends
B. Yellow sparks
C. No sparks
D. Green sparks

A

A. White sparks with stars on the ends

34
Q
  1. Grinding wheels have a range of soft to hard abrasive materials depending on the use. Most manufacturers letter their wheels from A to Z. Which of the following
    mark represents the hardest?

A. E
B. Z
C. A
D. E 1

A

B. Z

35
Q
  1. What is the main difference between a planer and a shaper?

A. The planer has an offset table and the shaper has a horizontal table
B. The shaper has a rotting table and the planer has a horizontal table
C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating motion past the tool head while the table of the shaper is stationary and the tool head has a reciprocating motion
D. One is larger than the other

A

C. The table of a planer has a reciprocating motion past the tool head while the table of the shaper is stationary and the tool head has a reciprocating motion

36
Q
  1. One of the factors involved in the choice of a grinding wheel is:

A. The kind of material to be ground
B. The amount of stock to be removed
C. The kind of finish required
D. All of these

A

D. All of these

37
Q
  1. The “tang” of a file is the part that:

A. Does the cutting
B. Has no teeth
C. Fits into the handle
D. Is opposite the handle

A

C. Fits into the handle

38
Q
  1. In general, files are divided into two classes called:

A. Single-cut and double-cut
B. Rough and smooth
C. Fine and coarse
D. Heel and sizes

A

A. Single-cut and double-cut

39
Q
  1. The length of a file is measured from:

A. End to end
B. Point to end
C. Point to heel
D. Heel to end

A

C. Point to heel

40
Q
  1. The process producing a hard surface in a steel having a sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by rapid cooling of the surface.

A. Flame hardening
B. Induction hardening
C. Cyaniding
D. Carburizing

A

A. Flame hardening

41
Q
  1. It is one in which some elements other than carbon has been added to improve change the physical properties.

A. Low carbon steel
B. Alloy steel
C. Medium carbon steel
D. High carbon steel

A

B. Alloy steel

42
Q
  1. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing _______ percent carbon.

A. 20%
B. 0.20%
C. 10%
D. 0.10%

A

B. 0.20%

43
Q
  1. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel steel alloy containing ____ percent nickel.

A. 2%
B. 3%
C. 1%
D. 7%

A

B. 3%

44
Q
  1. AISI C1095 designates that it is a basic open hearth carbon steel having ____ percent carbon.

A. 5%
B. 9%
C. 95%
D. 0.95%

A

D. 0.95%

45
Q
  1. Molybdenum steels are painted ________.

A. Green
B. Blue
C. Red
D. Orange

A

A. Green

46
Q
  1. Used for members of intricate shape that would be difficult to manufacture by other methods.

A. Forging
B. Casting
C. Extruding
D. Hot working

A

B. Casting

47
Q
  1. AISI means:

A. American Iron and Steel Institute
B. African Iron and Steel Institute
C. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute
D. American Investment for Steel Industry

A

A. American Iron and Steel Institute

48
Q
  1. SAE means:

A. Society of American Engineers
B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Society of Australian Engineers
D. Society of African Engineers

A

B. Society of Automotive Engineers

49
Q
  1. Which of the following metals increases the strength without sacrificing the ductility of the carbon steels?

A. Brass
B. Nickel
C. Bronze
D. Copper

A

B. Nickel

50
Q
  1. Which of the following where “pillar” files are used?

A. Filling slots
B. Filling against a shoulder
C. Filling keyways
D. Any of these

A

D. Any of these

MD ELEMENTS PER 50 (10 decks)

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