E2/H25 Flashcards

1
Q

The nurse notes that a client has developed dyspnea; a productive, mucoid cough;
peripheral cyanosis; and noisy, moist-sounding, rapid breathing. These signs and
symptoms suggest which health problem?
A. Pericarditis
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Right ventricular hypertrophy

A

C. Pulmonary edema

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2
Q

pulmonary edema symptoms

A

restless, anxious, sudden onset of breathlessness, sense of suffocation, the client’s hands become cold and moist, the
nail beds become cyanotic (bluish), and the skin turns ashen (gray). The pulse is weak and rapid, and the neck veins are distended, Incessant coughing may occur, producing increasing quantities of foamy sputum.

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3
Q

The nurse is assessing an older adult client with numerous health problems. Which assessment finding indicates an increase in the client’s risk for heart failure?
A. The client takes furosemide 20 mg/day.
B. The client’s potassium level is 4.7 mEq/L.
C. The client is white.
D. The client’s age is greater than 65.

A

D. The client’s age is greater than 65.
Heart failure is the most common reason for hospitalization of people older than 65 years of age and is the second-most common reason for visits to a physician’s
office.

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4
Q

The triage nurse in the emergency department is assessing a client with chronic heart failure who has presented with worsening symptoms. In reviewing the client’s medical
history, which condition is a potential primary cause of the client’s heart failure?
A. Endocarditis
B. Pleural effusion
C. Atherosclerosis
D. Atrial septal defect

A

C. Atherosclerosis
Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries is the primary cause of heart failure.

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5
Q

The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a loop diuretic for the treatment of heart failure. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
A. Monitoring liver function studies
B. Blood pressure
C. Vitamin D intake
D. Monitoring potassium levels

A

B. Blood pressure
Diuretic therapy increases urine output and decreases blood volume, which places the client at risk of hypotension. Clients are at risk of losing potassium with loop diuretic therapy and need to continue with potassium in their diet; hypokalemia is a
consequent risk.

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6
Q

The nurse is assessing a client who is known to have right-sided heart failure. What assessment finding is most consistent with this client’s diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Distended neck veins
C. Dry cough
D. Orthopnea

A

B. Distended neck veins

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7
Q

right sided heart failure symptoms

A

distended neck veins (jugular veins), dependent edema, peripheral edema, hepatomegaly (right upper quadrant pain), weight gain, ascites, anorexia, nausea, nocturia, and weakness.

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8
Q

A nurse in the critical care unit is caring for a client with heart failure who has developed an intracardiac thrombus. The nurse should assess for signs and symptoms of
which sequela?
A. Stroke
B. Myocardial infarction (MI)
C. Hemorrhage
D. Peripheral edema

A

A. Stroke
Intracardiac thrombi can become lodged in the cerebral vasculature, causing stroke.

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for an adult client whom the nurse suspects has digoxin toxicity. In addition to physical assessment, the nurse should monitor what assessment information?
A. Skin turgor
B. Potassium level
C. White blood cell count
D. Peripheral pulses

A

B. Potassium level
The serum potassium level is monitored because the effect of digoxin is enhanced in the presence of hypokalemia and digoxin toxicity may occur.

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10
Q

The triage nurse in the emergency department is performing a rapid assessment of a client with reports of severe chest pain and shortness of breath. The client is diaphoretic, pale, and weak. When the client collapses, which action would the nurse take first?
A. Check for a carotid pulse.
B. Apply supplemental oxygen.
C. Give two full breaths.
D. Gently shake and shout, “Are you OK?”

A

D. Gently shake and shout, “Are you OK?”
Assessing responsiveness is the first step in basic life support

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11
Q

Steps in basic life support

A
  1. Assessing responsiveness
  2. Opening the airway and checking for respirations should occur next.
  3. If breathing is absent, two breaths should be given, usually accompanied by supplementary oxygen.
  4. Circulation ischecked by palpating the carotid artery.
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12
Q

A client presents to the ED reporting increasing shortness of breath. The nurse assessing the client notes a history of left-sided heart failure. The client is agitated and
occasionally coughing up pink-tinged, foamy sputum. The nurse should recognize the signs and symptoms of what health problem?
A. Right-sided heart failure
B. Acute pulmonary edema
C. Pneumonia
D. Cardiogenic shock

A

B. Acute pulmonary edema

Because of decreased contractility and increased fluid volume and pressure in clients with heart failure, fluid may be driven from the pulmonary capillary beds into the
alveoli, causing pulmonary edema and signs and symptoms described.

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13
Q

Cardiogenic shock

A

signs of hypotension and tachycardia

Cardiogenic shock may occur following an MI when a large area of the myocardium becomes ischemic, necrotic, and hypokinetic. It also can occur as a result of
end-stage heart failure, cardiac tamponade, pulmonary embolism, cardiomyopathy, and
dysrhythmias.

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14
Q

A client admitted to the medical unit with heart failure is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pulmonary edema. How should the nurse best position the client?
A. In a high Fowler position
B. On the left side-lying position
C. In a flat, supine position
D. In the Trendelenburg position

A

A. In a high Fowler position

help reduce venous return to the heart, lower the output of the right ventricle, or decrease lung congestion.

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15
Q

The nurse has entered a client’s room and found the client unresponsive and not breathing. What is the nurse’s next appropriate action?
A. Palpate the client’s carotid pulse.
B. Illuminate the client’s call light.
C. Begin performing chest compressions.
D. Activate the Emergency Response System (ERS).

A

D. Activate the Emergency Response System (ERS).

After checking for responsiveness and breathing, the nurse should activate the
ERS. Assessment of carotid pulse should follow and chest compressions may be
indicated.

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16
Q

The nurse is providing discharge education to a client diagnosed with heart failure. What should the nurse teach this client to do to assess fluid balance in the home setting?
A. Monitor and record blood pressure daily.
B. Monitor and record radial pulses daily.
C. Monitor weight daily.
D. Monitor bowel movements.

A

C. Monitor weight daily.

To assess fluid balance at home, the client should monitor daily weights at the
same time every day.

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17
Q

The nurse is caring for an older adult client who has just returned from the operating room (OR) after inguinal hernia repair. The OR report indicates that the client received large volumes of IV fluids during surgery, and the client has a history of coronary artery disease, increasing the risk for left-sided heart failure. Which signs and symptoms indicating this condition would the nurse look for?
A. Jugular vein distention
B. Right upper quadrant pain
C. Bibasilar fine crackles
D. Dependent edema

A

C. Bibasilar fine crackles

Bibasilar fine crackles are a sign of alveolar fluid, a sequela of left ventricular fluid, or pressure overload.

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18
Q

A client with heart failure is placed on a low-sodium diet. Which statement by the client indicates that the nurse’s nutritional teaching plan has been effective?
A. “I will have a ham and cheese sandwich for lunch.”
B. “I will have a baked potato with broiled chicken for dinner.”
C. “I will have a tossed salad with cheese and croutons for lunch.”
D. “I will have chicken noodle soup with crackers and an apple for lunch.”

A

B. “I will have a baked potato with broiled chicken for dinner.”

The client’s choice of a baked potato with broiled chicken indicates that the teaching plan has been effective. Potatoes and chicken are relatively low in sodium. Ham,
cheese, and soup are often high in sodium

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19
Q

The nurse’s comprehensive assessment of a client who has heart failure includes evaluation of the client’s hepatojugular reflux. What action should the nurse perform during this assessment?
A. Elevate the client’s head to 90 degrees.
B. Press the right upper abdomen.
C. Press above the client’s symphysis pubis.
D. Lay the client flat in bed.

A

B. Press the right upper abdomen.

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20
Q

The nurse overseeing care in the ICU reviews the shift report on four clients. The nurse recognizes which client to be at greatest risk for the development of cardiogenic
shock?
A. The client admitted with acute renal failure
B. The client admitted following an MI
C. The client admitted with malignant hypertension
D. The client admitted following a stroke

A

B. The client admitted following an MI

Cardiogenic shock may occur following an MI when a large area of the myocardium becomes ischemic, necrotic, and hypokinetic.

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21
Q

what is Hepatojugular reflux?

A

a sign of right-sided heart failure, is assessed with the head of the bed at a 45-degree angle. As the right upper abdomen (the area over the liver) is compressed for 30 to 40 seconds, the nurse observes the internal jugular vein. If
the internal jugular vein becomes distended, a client has positive hepatojugular reflux.

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22
Q

What is Pulsus Paradoxus

A

Systolic blood pressure that is markedly lower during inhalation is called pulsus paradoxus. The difference in systolic pressure between the point that is heard
during exhalation and the point that is heard during inhalation is measured. Pulsus paradoxus exceeding 10 mm Hg is abnormal.

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22
Q

When assessing the client with pericardial effusion, the nurse will assess for pulsus paradoxus. Pulsus paradoxus is characterized by what assessment finding?
A. A diastolic blood pressure that is lower during exhalation
B. A diastolic blood pressure that is higher during inhalation
C. A systolic blood pressure that is higher during exhalation
D. A systolic blood pressure that is lower during inhalation

A

D. A systolic blood pressure that is lower during inhalation

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23
Q

The cardiac monitor alarm alerts the critical care nurse that the client is showing no cardiac rhythm on the monitor. The nurse’s rapid assessment suggests cardiac arrest. In providing cardiac resuscitation documentation, how should the nurse describe this initial absence of cardiac rhythm?
A. Pulseless electrical activity (PEA)
B. Ventricular fibrillation
C. Ventricular tachycardia
D. Asystole

A

D. Asystole
when there is no heart rhythm at all (asystole)

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24
Q

Cardiac arrest occurs when

A

the heart ceases to produce an effective pulse and
circulate blood. It may be caused by a cardiac electrical event such as ventricular fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, profound bradycardia, or when there is no heart rhythm at all (asystole). Cardiac arrest may also occur when electrical activity is present, but there is ineffective cardiac contraction or circulating volume, which is PEA.

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25
Q

The nurse is reviewing a newly admitted client’s electronic health record, which notes a history of orthopnea. What nursing action is most clearly indicated?
A. Teach the client deep breathing and coughing exercises.
B. Administer supplemental oxygen at all times.
C. Limit the client’s activity level.
D. Avoid positioning the client supine.

A

D. Avoid positioning the client supine.

Orthopnea is defined as difficulty breathing while lying flat. This is a possible complication of heart failure and, consequently, the nurse should avoid positioning the client supine.

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26
Q

The nurse is planning the care of a client with heart failure. The nurse should identify what overall goals of this client’s care? Select all that apply.
A. Improve functional status
B. Prevent endocarditis.
C. Extend survival.
D. Limit physical activity.
E. Relieve client symptoms.

A

A. Improve functional status
C. Extend survival.
E. Relieve client symptoms.

The overall goals of management of heart failure are to relieve the client’s symptoms, to improve functional status and quality of life, and to extend survival.

Endocarditis is not a common complication of heart failure and preventing it is not a major goal of care.

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27
Q

A client with heart failure has met with the primary care provider and begun treatment with an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. When the client
begins treatment, the nurse would prioritize which assessment?
A. Blood pressure
B. Level of consciousness (LOC)
C. Nausea
D. Oxygen saturation

A

A. Blood pressure

Clients receiving ACE inhibitors are monitored for hypotension, hyperkalemia (increased potassium in the blood), and alterations in renal function.

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28
Q
  1. The nurse is reviewing the medication administration record of a client diagnosed with systolic heart failure. Which medication would the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
    A. A beta-adrenergic blocker
    B. An antiplatelet aggregator
    C. A calcium channel blocker
    D. A nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
A

A. A beta-adrenergic blocker

Several medications are routinely prescribed for systolic heart failure, including ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, diuretics, and digitalis.

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29
Q

Medications prescribed for systolic heart failure

A

ACE inhibitors, beta-blockers, diuretics, and digitalis.

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30
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with systolic heart failure whose previous adverse reactions rule out the safe use of angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors. The
nurse should anticipate that the prescriber may choose which combination of drugs?
A. Loop diuretic and antiplatelet aggregator
B. Loop diuretic and calcium channel blocker
C. Combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate
D. Combination of digoxin and normal saline

A

C. Combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate

A combination of hydralazine and isosorbide dinitrate may be an alternative for clients who cannot take ACE inhibitors.

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31
Q

A client with a diagnosis of heart failure is started on a beta-blocker. What is the nurse’s priority role during gradual increases in the client’s dose?
A. Educating the client that symptom relief may not occur for several weeks
B. Stressing that symptom relief may take up to 4 months to occur
C. Making adjustments to each day’s dose based on the blood pressure trends
D. Educating the client about the potential changes in LOC that may result from the drug

A

A. Educating the client that symptom relief may not occur for several weeks
An important nursing role during titration is educating the client about the potential worsening of symptoms during the early phase of treatment and stressing that improvement may take several weeks.

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32
Q

The nurse is performing a physical assessment on a client suspected of having heart failure. The presence of which sound would tend to confirm the suspicion for heart failure?
A. An S3 heart sound
B. Pleural friction rub
C. Faint breath sounds
D. A heart murmur

A

A. An S3 heart sound

An S3 heart sound is a sign that the heart is beginning to fail and that increased blood volume fills the ventricle with each beat.

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33
Q

An older adult client with heart failure is being discharged home on an ACE inhibitor and a loop diuretic. The client’s most recent vital signs prior to discharge include oxygen saturation of 93% on room air, heart rate of 81 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 94/59 mm Hg. When planning this client’s subsequent care, what nursing concern should be identified?
A. Altered tissue perfusion risk related to arrhythmia
B. Excess fluid volume risk related to medication regimen
C. Altered breathing pattern risk related to hypoxia
D. Falls risk related to hypotension

A

D. Falls risk related to hypotension

The combination of low BP, diuretic use, and ACE inhibitor use constitutes a risk for falls.

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34
Q

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation has been initiated on a client who was found unresponsive. When performing chest compressions, the nurse should do which of the following actions?
A. Perform at least 100 chest compressions per minute.
B. Pause to allow a colleague to provide a breath every 10 compressions.
C. Pause chest compressions to allow for vital signs monitoring every 4 to 5 minutes.
D. Perform high-quality chest compressions as rapidly as possible.

A

A. Perform at least 100 chest compressions per minute.
During CPR, the chest is compressed 2 inches at a rate of at least 100 compressions per minute.

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35
Q

The nurse is providing client education prior to a client’s discharge home after treatment for heart failure. The nurse gives the client a home care checklist as part of the discharge teaching. What should be included on this checklist?
A. Know how to recognize and prevent orthostatic hypotension.
B. Weigh yourself weekly at a consistent time of day.
C. Measure everything you eat and drink until otherwise instructed.
D. Limit physical activity to only those tasks that are absolutely necessary.

A

A. Know how to recognize and prevent orthostatic hypotension.

Clients with heart failure should be aware of the risks of orthostatic hypotension. Weight should be measured DAILY

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36
Q

The nurse is educating an 80-year-old client diagnosed with heart failure about the medication regimen. Which instruction would the nurse give this client about the use of oral diuretics?
A. Avoid drinking fluids for 2 hours after taking the diuretic.
B. Take the diuretic in the morning to avoid interfering with sleep.
C. Avoid taking the medication within 2 hours consuming dairy products.
D. Take the diuretic only on days when experiencing shortness of breath.

A

B. Take the diuretic in the morning to avoid interfering with sleep.

Discussing the timing of medication administration is especially important for older adult clients who may have urinary urgency or incontinence.

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37
Q

The nurse is creating a care plan for a client diagnosed with heart failure. When addressing the problem of anxiety, what interventions should the nurse include in the care plan? Select all that apply.
A. Facilitate the presence of friends and family whenever possible.
B. Teach the client about the harmful effects of anxiety on cardiac function.
C. Provide supplemental oxygen, as needed.
D. Provide validation of the client’s expressions of anxiety.
E. Administer benzodiazepines two to three times daily.

A

A. Facilitate the presence of friends and family whenever possible.
C. Provide supplemental oxygen, as needed.
D. Provide validation of the client’s expressions of anxiety.

The nurse should empathically validate the client’s sensations of anxiety. The presence of friends and family is frequently beneficial, and oxygen supplementation
promotes comfort.

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38
Q

A cardiovascular client with a previous history of pulmonary embolism (PE) is experiencing a sudden onset of dyspnea, rapid breathing, and chest pain. The nurse recognizes the characteristic signs and symptoms of a PE. Which action is the nurse’s best action?
A. Rapidly assess the client’s cardiopulmonary status.
B. Arrange for an electrocardiogram (ECG).
C. Increase the height of the client’s bed.
D. Manage the client’s anxiety.

A

A. Rapidly assess the client’s cardiopulmonary status.

Client management in the event of a PE begins with cardiopulmonary assessment and intervention.

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39
Q

A cardiac client’s resistance to left ventricular filling has caused blood to back up into the client’s circulatory system. Which health problem is likely to result?
A. Acute pulmonary edema
B. Right-sided heart failure
C. Right ventricular hypertrophy
D. Left-sided heart failure

A

A. Acute pulmonary edema

With increased resistance to left ventricular filling, blood backs up into the pulmonary circulation. The client quickly develops pulmonary edema from the blood volume overload in the lungs.

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40
Q

A client who is at high risk for developing intracardiac thrombi has been placed on long-term anticoagulation. Which aspect of the client’s health history creates a heightened risk of intracardiac thrombi?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Infective endocarditis
C. Recurrent pneumonia
D. Recent surgery

A

A. Atrial fibrillation

Intracardiac thrombi are especially common in clients with atrial fibrillation, because the atria do not contract forcefully and blood flows slowly and turbulently,
increasing the likelihood of thrombus formation.

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41
Q

Diagnostic imaging reveals that the quantity of fluid in a client’s pericardial sac is dangerously increased. The nurse should collaborate with the other members of the care
team to prevent the development of which complication?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Pericardiocentesis
C. Cardiac tamponade
D. Pericarditis

A

C. Cardiac tamponade

An increase in pericardial fluid raises the pressure within the pericardial sac and compresses the heart, eventually causing cardiac tamponade. Pericardiocentesis is the treatment for this complication.

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42
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with severe left ventricular dysfunction who has been identified as being at risk for sudden cardiac death. Which medical intervention can be
performed that may extend the survival of the client?
A. Insertion of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)
B. Insertion of an implantable pacemaker
C. Administration of a calcium channel blocker
D. Administration of a beta-blocker

A

A. Insertion of an implantable cardioverter defibrillator (ICD)

In clients with severe left ventricular dysfunction and the possibility of life-threatening dysrhythmias, placement of an ICD can prevent sudden cardiac death
and extend survival.

43
Q

The nurse is caring for an adult client with heart failure who is prescribed digoxin. When assessing the client for adverse effects, the nurse should assess for which of the
following signs and symptoms? Select all that apply.
A. Confusion
B. Shortness of breath
C. Numbness and tingling in the extremities
D. Chest pain
E. Bradycardia
F. Diuresis

A

A. Confusion
E. Bradycardia

44
Q

digitalis toxicity symptoms

A

anorexia, nausea, visual disturbances, confusion, and bradycardia

45
Q

The nurse is addressing exercise and physical activity during discharge education with a client diagnosed with heart failure. What should the nurse teach this client about
exercise?
A. “Do not exercise unsupervised.”
B. “Eventually aim to work up to 30 minutes of exercise each day.”
C. “Keep exercising but slow down if you get dizzy or short of breath.”
D. “Start your exercise program with high-impact activities.”

A

B. “Eventually aim to work up to 30 minutes of exercise each day.”

Supervision is not necessarily required and the emergence of symptoms, such as dizziness or shortness of breath, should prompt the client to stop exercising, not
simply to slow the pace.

46
Q

A client with a history of an anterior wall myocardial infarction is being transferred from the coronary care unit (CCU) to the cardiac step-down unit (CSU). While giving a report to the CSU nurse, the CCU nurse says, “His pulmonary artery wedge pressures have been in the high normal range.” What additional assessment information would be important for the CSU nurse to obtain?

A. hypertension
B.dry mucous membranes
C. high urine output
D. pulmonary crackles

A

D. pulmonary crackles

High pulmonary artery wedge pressures are diagnostic for left-sided heart failure. With left-sided heart failure, pulmonary edema can develop causing pulmonary crackles. In left-sided heart failure, hypotension may result and urine output will decline.

47
Q

The physician writes orders for a patient to receive an angiotensin II receptor blocker for treatment of heart failure. What medication does the nurse administer?

A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
B. Valsartan (Diovan)
C. Carvedilol (Coreg)
D.Metolazone (Zaroxolyn)

A

B. Valsartan (Diovan)

48
Q

The nurse is performing a respiratory assessment for a patient in left-sided heart failure. What does the nurse understand is the best determinant of the patient’s ventilation and oxygenation status?

A. End-tidal CO2
B. Pulse oximetry
C.Arterial blood gases
D. Listening to breath sounds

A

C.Arterial blood gases

In left-sided heart failure, arterial blood gases may be obtained to assess ventilation and oxygenation.

49
Q

The nurse assessing a client with an exacerbation of heart failure identifies which symptom as a cerebrovascular manifestation of heart failure (HF)?

A. Tachycardia
B. Ascites
C. Nocturia
D. Dizziness

A

D. Dizziness

Cerebrovascular manifestations of heart failure stemming from decreased brain perfusion include dizziness, lightheadedness, confusion, restlessness, and anxiety due to decreased oxygenation and blood flow.

50
Q

A client with a history of heart failure is returning from the operating room after inguinal hernia repair and the nurse assesses a low pulse oximetry reading. What is the most important nursing intervention?

A. Assess the surgical incisional area.
B. Administer pain medication.
C. Titrate oxygen therapy.
D. Assess for jugular vein distention.

A

C. Titrate oxygen therapy.

The nurse needs to titrate oxygen therapy to increase the client’s oxygen levels.

51
Q

A client is receiving captopril for heart failure. During the nurse’s assessment, what sign indicates that the medication therapy is ineffective?

A. bradycardia
B. postural hypotension
C. skin rash
D. peripheral edema

A

D. peripheral edema

Peripheral edema is a sign of fluid volume excess and worsening heart failure.

52
Q

Which feature is the hallmark of systolic heart failure?

A. Limited activities of daily living (ADLs)
B. Low ejection fraction (EF)
C. Pulmonary congestion
D. Basilar crackles

A

B. Low ejection fraction (EF)

A low EF is a hallmark of systolic heart failure (HF); the severity of HF is frequently classified according to the client’s symptoms.

53
Q

A client is exhibiting digitalis toxicity. Which of the following medications would the nurse expect to be ordered for this client?

A. Warfarin
B. Ibuprofen
C. Amlodipine
D. Digoxin immune FAB

A

D. Digoxin immune FAB

54
Q

A nurse is caring for a client with left-sided heart failure. During the nurse’s assessment, the client is wheezing, restless, tachycardic, and has severe apprehension. The clients reports that these symptoms came on suddenly. The nurse knows that these are symptoms of what condition?

A. Pulmonary hypertension
B. Progressive heart failure
C. Cardiogenic shock
D. Acute pulmonary edema

A

D. Acute pulmonary edema

Patients with acute pulmonary edema exhibit sudden dyspnea, wheezing, orthopnea, restlessness, cough (often productive of pink, frothy sputum), cyanosis, tachycardia, and severe apprehension.

55
Q

The pathophysiology of pericardial effusion is associated with all of the following except:

A. Inability of the ventricles to fill adequately.
B. Increased venous return.
C. Increased right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures.
D. Atrial compression.

A

B. Increased venous return.

Venous return is decreased because there is an increase in the pericardial fluid, which raises the pressure within the pericardial sac and compresses the heart. Increased right and left ventricular end-diastolic pressures, inability of the ventricles to fill adequately, and atrial compression are all effects of pericardial effusion.

56
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What are the management goals for the client with heart failure? Select all that apply.

Increasing preload and afterload
Promoting a healthy lifestyle
Increasing cardiac output by strengthening muscle contractions
Reducing the amount of circulating blood volume
Lowering the risk for hospitalization

A

Promoting a healthy lifestyle
Increasing cardiac output by strengthening muscle contractions
Lowering the risk for hospitalization

57
Q

The nurse is assigned to care for a client with heart failure. What medication does the nurse anticipate administering that will improve client symptoms as well as increase survival?

A. cholestyramine
B. bumetanide
C. lisinopril
D. diltiazem

A

C. lisinopril

Medications for HF: ACE inhibitors such as lisinopril, beta-blockers, and diuretics such as bumetanide. Many of these medications, particularly ACE inhibitors and beta-blockers, improve symptoms and extend survival. Others, such as diuretics, improve symptoms but may not affect survival.

58
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with heart failure. What sign will lead the nurse to suspect right-sided and left-sided heart failure?

A. weight loss
B. resting bradycardia
C.warm extremities
D. ascites

A

D. ascites

59
Q

A client is awaiting the availability of a heart for transplant. What option may be available to the client as a bridge to transplant?

A. Pacemaker
B. Intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)
C. Ventricular assist device (VAD)
D. Implanted cardioverter-defibrillator (ICD)

A

C. Ventricular assist device (VAD)

VADs may be used for one of three purposes:(1) a bridge to recovery, (2) a bridge to transplant, or (2) destination therapy (mechanical circulatory support when there is no option for a heart transplant)

60
Q

Which action will the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) who is receiving milrinone?

A. Teach the client about safe home use of the medication
B. Encourage the client to ambulate in room
C. Monitor blood pressure frequently
D. Titrate milrinone rate slowly before discontinuing

A

C. Monitor blood pressure frequently

Milrinone is a phosphodiesterase inhibitor that delays the release of calcium from intracellular reservoirs and prevents the uptake of extracellular calcium by the cells. This promotes vasodilation, resulting in decreased preload and afterload and reduced cardiac workload. Milrinone is administered intravenously to clients with severe HF, including those who are waiting for a heart transplant.

61
Q

The nurse is assessing a client admitted with cardiogenic shock. What medication will the nurse titrate to improve blood flow to vital organs?
A. enalapril
B. dopamine
C. metoprolol
D. furosemide

A

B. dopamine

dopamine, a sympathomimetic drug, is used to treat cardiogenic shock. It increases perfusion pressure to improve myocardial contractility and blood flow through vital organs.

62
Q

The nurse is administering furosemide to a client with heart failure. What best describes the therapeutic action of the medication?

A. Furosemide blocks reabsorption of potassium on the collecting tubule.
B. The medication promotes potassium secretion into the distal tubule and constrict renal vessels.
C. The medication blocks sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop and dilate renal vessels.
D. Furosemide promotes sodium secretion into the distal tubule.

A

C. The medication blocks sodium reabsorption in the ascending loop and dilate renal vessels.

63
Q

The nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure and a sudden onset of tachypnea. What is the nurse’s priority action?

A. Notify the family of a change in condition.
B. Report a decrease in urine output.
C. Assess pulse oximetry reading.
D. Elevate the head of the bed.

A

D. Elevate the head of the bed.

he nurse’s priority action is to elevate the head of bed to help with breathing. The pulse oximetry reading provides more data, but is not the priority intervention

64
Q

The nurse is assessing a patient who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with ordinary physical activity. Under what classification does the nurse understand this patient would be categorized?

I
IV
III
II

A

II

Classification II of heart failure is indicated by the patient being comfortable at rest, but experiencing fatigue, palpitation, or dyspnea during ordinary physical activity.

65
Q

Which is a manifestation of right-sided heart failure?

A. Accumulation of blood in the lungs
B. Systemic venous congestion
C. Increase in forward flow
D. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea

A

B. Systemic venous congestion

Right-sided heart failure causes systemic venous congestion and a reduction in forward flow.

66
Q

A client arrives at the ED with an exacerbation of left-sided heart failure and reports shortness of breath. Which is the priority nursing action?

A. Administer angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors
B. Administer diuretics
C. Administer angiotensin II receptor blockers
D. Assess oxygen saturation

A

D. Assess oxygen saturation

The nurse’s priority action is to assess oxygen saturation to determine the severity of the exacerbation.

66
Q

A patient is undergoing a pericardiocentesis. Following withdrawal of pericardial fluid, which assessment by the nurse indicates that cardiac tamponade has been relieved?

A. Increase in CVP
B. Absence of cough
C. Decrease in blood pressure
D. Decrease in central venous pressure (CVP)

A

D. Decrease in central venous pressure (CVP)

A resulting decrease in CVP and an associated increase in blood pressure after withdrawal of pericardial fluid indicate that the cardiac tamponade has been relieved.

67
Q

A nurse reviews the client’s medical record and reads in the progress notes that the client has decreased left ventricular function. What assessment will validate the diagnosis?

A. increased appetite
B. bibasilar rales cleared with coughing
C. orthopnea
D. resting bradycardia

A

C. orthopnea

Decreased left ventricular function would be characterized by orthopnea, dyspnea, anorexia, bibasilar rales not cleared with coughing, and resting tachycardia.

68
Q

A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with left-sided heart failure. What clinical manifestations does the nurse anticipate finding when performing an assessment? (Select all that apply.)

Jugular vein distention
Cough
Ascites
Dyspnea
Pulmonary crackles

A

Cough
Dyspnea
Pulmonary crackles

69
Q

Which term describes the degree of stretch of the ventricular cardiac muscle fibers at the end of diastole?

A. Afterload
B. Stroke volume
C. Ejection fraction
D.Preload

A

D.Preload

70
Q

The nurse recognizes that which laboratory test is a key diagnostic indicator of heart failure?

A. Creatinine
B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)
C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
D.Complete blood count (CBC)

A

B. Brain natriuretic peptide (BNP)

BNP is the key diagnostic indicator of heart failure. High levels of BNP are a sign of high cardiac filling pressure and can aid in the diagnosis of heart failure.

71
Q

A client who was admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of thrombophlebitis 1 day ago suddenly reports chest pain and shortness of breath and is visibly anxious. The nurse immediately assesses the client for other signs and symptoms of

pneumonia.
myocardial infarction.
pulmonary embolism.
pulmonary edema.

A

pulmonary embolism.

Clinical indicators of pulmonary embolism can vary but typically include dyspnea, pleuritic chest pain, and tachypnea.

72
Q

A client with heart failure must be monitored closely after starting diuretic therapy. What is the best indicator for the nurse to monitor?

urine specific gravity.
fluid intake and output.
weight.
vital signs.

A

weight

Heart failure typically causes fluid overload, resulting in weight gain. Therefore, weight is the best indicator of this client’s status.

73
Q

Assessment of a client on a medical surgical unit finds a regular heart rate of 120 beats per minute, audible third and fourth heart sounds, blood pressure of 84/64 mm Hg, bibasilar crackles on lung auscultation, and a urine output of 5 mL over the past hour. What is the reason the nurse anticipates transferring the client to the intensive care unit?

The client is going into cardiogenic shock.
The client shows signs of aneurysm rupture.
The client is in the early stage of right-sided heart failure.
The client is experiencing heart failure.

A

The client is going into cardiogenic shock.

Cardiogenic shock also may cause cold, clammy skin and generalized weakness, fatigue, and muscle pain

74
Q

A nurse is administering digoxin. What client parameter would cause the nurse to hold the digoxin and notify the health care prescriber?

urine output of 300 mL in eight hours
heart rate of 55 beats per minute
blood pressure of 125/80
atrial fibrillation rhythm

A

heart rate of 55 beats per minute

Digoxin therapy slows conduction through the AV node. A heart rate of 55 is slow and the digoxin therapy may slow the heart rate further.

75
Q

The nurse observes a client with an onset of heart failure having rapid, shallow breathing at a rate of 32 breaths/minute. What blood gas analysis does the nurse anticipate finding initially?

Metabolic alkalosis
Respiratory acidosis
Metabolic acidosis
Respiratory alkalosis

A

Respiratory alkalosis

At first, arterial blood gas analysis may reveal respiratory alkalosis as a result of rapid, shallow breathing. Later, there is a shift to metabolic acidosis as gas exchange becomes more impaired.

76
Q

What is the main difference between Class I and Class II heart failure as defined by the New York Heart Association (NYHA)?

The level of physical activity each allows
Duration of symptoms
The client is unable to carry out any physical activity.
There is a marked limitation of physical activity.

A

The level of physical activity each allows

77
Q

The nurse is interviewing a client during an initial visit at a cardiologist’s office. What symptom will the nurse expect to find as an early symptom of chronic heart failure?

nocturia
fatigue
pedal edema
irregular pulse

A

fatigue

Fatigue is commonly the earliest symptom of chronic heart failure; it is caused by decreased cardiac output and tissue oxygenation. Pedal edema and nocturia are symptoms of heart failure, but they occur later in the course of the condition. An irregular pulse can be a complication of heart failure, but it is not necessarily an early indication of the condition.

78
Q

A client has been diagnosed with right-sided heart failure based on symptomology. The cardiologist will confirm this suspicion through diagnostics. Which diagnostic(s) should the nurse anticipate in the client’s plan of care? Select all that apply.

echocardiography
chest radiograph
electrocardiogram
cardiac resynchronization
cardiomyoplasty

A

echocardiography
chest radiograph
electrocardiogram

79
Q

The nurse is preparing a client for a multiple gated acquisition (MUGA) scan. What would be an important instruction for the nurse to give a client who is to undergo a MUGA scan?

Avoid any activity at least 2 hours before the test.
Lie very still at intermittent times during the test.
Drink plenty of fluids during the test.
Avoid dairy products a day before and a day after the test.

A

Lie very still at intermittent times during the test.

80
Q

The nurse is assisting in the care of a client who is receiving cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR). For which reason will the client be prescribed to receive amiodarone during the resuscitation efforts?

Treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.

Prevent the development of hypotension.

Correct metabolic acidosis.

Reduce the development of torsade de pointes.

A

Treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia.
During CPR, the medications provided will depend upon the client’s condition and response to therapy. Amiodarone is used to treat pulseless ventricular tachycardia. Sodium bicarbonate is used to correct metabolic acidosis. Norepinephrine and dopamine are used to prevent the development of hypotension. Magnesium sulfate is used for the client with torsade de pointes.

81
Q

A nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure for jugular vein distension (JVD). Which observation is important to report to the physician?

JVD is noted at the level of the sternal angle.
JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle.
No JVD is present.
JVD is noted 2 cm above the sternal angle.

A

JVD is noted 4 cm above the sternal angle.

JVD is assessed with the client sitting at a 45° angle. Jugular vein distention greater than 4 cm above the sternal angle is considered abnormal and is indicative of right ventricular failure.

82
Q

A nurse is teaching clients newly diagnosed with coronary heart disease (CHD) about the disease process and risk factors for heart failure. Which problem can cause left-sided heart failure (HF)?

Pulmonary embolus
Myocardial ischemia
Cystic fibrosis
Ineffective right ventricular contraction

A

Myocardial ischemia

83
Q

The critical care nurse is caring for a client with cardiogenic shock. What is the premise for inserting an intra-aortic balloon pump?

coronary artery stenosis
myocardial ischemia
right atrial flutter
inadequate tissue perfusion

A

inadequate tissue perfusion

The classic signs of cardiogenic shock are related to tissue hypoperfusion and an overall state of shock that is proportional to the extent of left ventricular damage. Reduced cardiac output and stroke volume reduces arterial blood pressure and tissue perfusion.

84
Q

A client has been diagnosed with heart failure. What is the major nursing outcome for the client?

Sleep 8 hours per night.
Reduce the workload on the heart.
Maintain a healthy diet.
Walk 30 minutes three times a week.

A

Reduce the workload on the heart.

Specific objectives of medical management of heart failure include reducing the workload on the heart by reducing preload and afterload. T

85
Q

The nurse is discussing basic cardiac hemodynamics and explains preload to the client. What nursing intervention will decrease preload?

application of antiembolic stockings
sustained elevation of the client’s legs
increasing activity
administration of a vasodilating drug (as ordered by a health care provider)

A

administration of a vasodilating drug (as ordered by a health care provider)

Anything that decreases the amount of blood returning to the heart will decrease preload, such as vasodilation or blood pooling in the extremities.

86
Q

The nurse documents pitting edema in the bilateral lower extremities of the client. What does this documentation mean?

There is excess fluid volume in the interstitial space in areas affected by gravity.
There is excess fluid volume in the venous system of the lower extremities.
There is excess fluid volume in the arterial system of the lower extremities.
There is excess fluid volume in the hepatic system.

A

There is excess fluid volume in the interstitial space in areas affected by gravity.

Dependent pitting edema (excess fluid volume in the interstitial space in body areas affected by gravity) in the feet and ankles can be observed. This type of edema may seem to disappear overnight but really is temporarily redistributed by gravity to other tissues, such as the sacral area.

87
Q

A client with pulmonary edema has been admitted to the ICU. What would be the standard care for this client?

Hourly administration of a fluid bolus
BP and pulse measurements every 15 to 30 minutes
Intubation of the airway
Insertion of a central venous catheter

A

BP and pulse measurements every 15 to 30 minutes

Bedside ECG monitoring is standard, as are continuous pulse oximetry, automatic BP, and pulse measurements approximately every 15 to 30 minutes.

88
Q

A nurse suspects that a client has digoxin toxicity. The nurse should assess for:

hearing loss.
vision changes.
decreased urine output.
gait instability.

A

vision change

89
Q

Which is a potassium-sparing diuretic used in the treatment of heart failure?

Bumetanide
Chlorothiazide
Ethacrynic acid
Spironolactone

A

Spironolactone

90
Q

The nurse is administering sublingual nitroglycerin to a client with chest pain. What action will the nurse take after administering two sublingual tablets if the client continues with chest pain and has a blood pressure of 120/82 mm Hg?

Hold any further treatment until the client’s blood pressure increases.
Notify the health care provider of the chest pain.
Administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.
Wait ten minutes after the second tablet to assess pain.

A

Administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet.

The nurse will need to administer the third sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. Nitroglycerin is given as three doses for chest pain as the client’s blood pressure can tolerate it. The health care provider will be notified after three tablets

91
Q

Following a left anterior myocardial infarction, a client undergoes insertion of a pulmonary artery catheter. Which finding most strongly suggests left-sided heart failure?

Decreased mean pulmonary artery pressure
Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure
Decreased central venous pressure
Increase in the cardiac index

A

Increased pulmonary artery diastolic pressure

92
Q

The nurse is assessing a client with left-sided heart failure. What assessment finding is expected?

jugular vein distention
air hunger
pitting edema of the legs
ascites

A

air hunger

93
Q

The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client following pericardiocentesis. Which interventions should the nurse implement? Choose all that apply.

Record fluid output.
Place the client in a supine position.
Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
Evaluate the cardiac rhythm.
Monitor heart and lung sounds.

A

Record fluid output.
Assess vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
Evaluate the cardiac rhythm.
Monitor heart and lung sounds.

94
Q

A client with left-sided heart failure is in danger of impaired renal perfusion. How would the nurse assess this client for impaired renal perfusion?

Assess for reduced urine output.
Assess for elevated blood potassium levels.
Assess for reduced blood sodium levels.
Assess for elevated blood urea nitrogen levels.

A

Assess for elevated blood urea nitrogen levels.

95
Q

The nurse is admitting a client with heart failure. What client statement indicates that fluid overload was occurring at home?

“My food tastes bland without salt.”
“I cut back on going up the steps during the day.”
“I eat six small meals a day when I am hungry.”
“My best time of the day is the morning.”

A

“I cut back on going up the steps during the day.”

96
Q

A client has been experiencing increasing shortness of breath and fatigue. The health care provider has ordered a diagnostic test in order to determine what type of heart failure the client is having. What diagnostic test does the nurse anticipate being ordered?

A

an echocardiogram

to determine the ejection fraction, identify anatomic features such as structural abnormalities and valve malfunction, and confirm the diagnosis of HF.

97
Q

A client with CAD thinks diltiazem (Cardizem) has been causing nausea. Diltiazem (Cardizem) is categorized as which type of drug?

calcium-channel blocker
diuretic
beta-adrenergic blocker
nitrate

A

calcium-channel blocker

98
Q

The client asked the nurse to describe Stage C heart failure. What is the best explanation by the nurse?

a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but has risk factors of heart disease
a client who reports symptoms of heart failure at rest and is a candidate for a heart transplant
a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but has a cardiac history and is taking medications
a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with increased physical activity

A

a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with increased physical activity

99
Q

The nurse instructs a client with heart failure on restricting sodium in the diet. Which client statement indicates that teaching was effective?

“Lemon juice and herbs can be used to replace salt when cooking.”

“I will add a water softener to my water at home.”

“Canned vegetables have low sodium content.”

“Food prepared at home is saltless unless I add it while cooking.”

A
100
Q

A client presents to the ED reporting anxiety and chest pain after shoveling heavy snow that morning. The client says that nitroglycerin has not been taken for months but upon experiencing this chest pain did take three nitroglycerin tablets. Although the pain has lessened, the client states, “They did not work all that well.” The client shows the nurse the nitroglycerin bottle; the prescription was filled 12 months ago. The nurse anticipates which order by the physician?
Serum electrolytes
Ativan 1 mg orally
Chest x-ray
Nitroglycerin SL

A

Nitroglycerin SL

101
Q

The laboratory values for a client diagnosed with coronary artery disease (CAD) have just come back from the lab. The client’s low-density lipoprotein (LDL) level is 112 mg/dL. The nurse recognizes that this value is

within the optimal range.
extremely high.
below the optimal range.
above the optimal range.

A

above the optimal range.

above 100

102
Q

A patient in cardiogenic shock after a myocardial infarction is placed on an intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP). What does the nurse understand is the mechanism of action of the balloon pump?

The balloon inflates at the beginning of diastole and deflates before systole to augment the pumping action of the heart.
The balloon will inflate at the beginning of systole and deflate before diastole to provide a long-term solution to a failing myocardium.
The balloon keeps the vessels open so that blood will adequately deliver to the myocardium.
The balloon delivers an electrical impulse to correct dysrhythmias the patient experiences.

A

The balloon inflates at the beginning of diastole and deflates before systole to augment the pumping action of the heart.

103
Q

A nurse is assessing a client with suspected cardiac tamponade. How should the nurse assess the client for pulsus paradoxus?

Measure blood pressure in either arm with the client holding his breath, then with the client breathing normally.
Measure the blood pressure in either arm as the client slowly exhales and then as the client breathes normally.
Measure the blood pressure in right arm as the client inhales slowly, then measure the blood pressure in the left arm as the client exhales slowly.
Measure blood pressure in the right arm, then in the left arm as the client slows the pace of his inhalations and exhalations.

A

Measure the blood pressure in either arm as the client slowly exhales and then as the client breathes normally.

104
Q

Which medication is given to clients who are diagnosed with angina but are allergic to aspirin?

A

clopidogrel