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American Airlines Embraer 190 > E190 > Flashcards

E190 Flashcards

1
Q

Max Wind for Takeoff and Landing

A

50 Knots

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2
Q

Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) For Takeoff and landing

A

28 Knots

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3
Q

Maximum Headwind for Cat II/III Approaches

A

25 Knots

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4
Q

Maximum Crosswind (Including Gusts) for Autoland

A

15 Knots

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5
Q

Maximum Crosswind for landing with Visibility less than 3/4 or 4000 RVR

A

15 Knots

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6
Q

Maximum Takeoff and Landing Tailwind Component

A

10 Knots

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7
Q

Maximum Operating Alititude

A

41,000 Feet

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8
Q

Maximum Altitude With Flaps Extended

A

20,000 Feet

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9
Q

Maximum Operating Speed

A

VMO

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10
Q

Maximum Operating Mach Number

A

.82

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11
Q

Turbulent Airspeed

  • Below 10,000
  • Above 10,000
A
  • 250 KIAS

- 270KIAS/.76M

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12
Q

Tire Limit Ground Speed

A

195 KIAS

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13
Q

Maximum Airspeed for Windshield Wiper Operation

A

250 KIAS

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14
Q

Maximum Gear Extension and Extended Speed (VLO/VLE)

Maximum Gear Retraction Speed (VLO)

A
  • 265

- 235

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15
Q

Maneuvering Speed (Va)

A

240 KIAS

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16
Q

Define Icing condition

A

OAT ground and flight below +10 C or below and;
Visible moisture in any form (i.e. clouds, fog,vis 1 sm or less, rain, sleet, ice or
When operating on ramps, taxiways, or runways where surface snow, ice, standing water, or slush may be ingested by engines, freeze on engines, nacelles, or engine sensor probes.

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17
Q

During taxi out and takeoff, the _____________ must be set to ___ when OAT is _____ and icing conditions exist or are anticipated

A

MCDU TO Dataset MENU REF A/I
ALL
10 C or below

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18
Q

Max Fuel Imbalance

A

800 Lbs for all phases of flight

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19
Q

TAS, TAT and SAT information are only valid above ____knots

A

60 KIAS

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20
Q

MAX and MIN Limitations are indicated by _________?
Caution Range is indicated by_________ ?
Normal Operating Range is indicated by_________?

A

Red
Amber
Green

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21
Q

True/False

Reverse thrust is for Ground use only

A

True

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22
Q

Maximum Reverse thrust is not permitted below ____ KIAS. Below ___ KIAS reduce reverse to thrust idle

A

60 KIAS (both answers)

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23
Q

APU Starter Limits OFF TIME (START IS MONITORED BY FADEC)

A

1st and 2nd , 60 Seconds OFF

3rd, 5 minutes OFF

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24
Q 
APU Altitude for
Start
Electrical
Bleed
Engine Start Assist
A

30,000
33,000
15,000
21,000

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25
Q

Altimeter Limits

  • On ground
  • Max Difference between Captain and F/O in flight
A
  • 75 Feet

- 200 Feet

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26
Q

Max Landing Weight

A

97,000

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27
Q

TEST Acronym Stands for What?

A

Type of Emergency
Evacuation
Signal
Time

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28
Q

Max Taxi Speed Straight Ahead is _______. During a 90 degree turn it is ___?

A

30 Knots G/S

10 Knots G/S

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29
Q

Term that refers to the flight deck being designed to operate in flight with all systems normal when the overhead, main, glareshield and control pedestal panels have NO lights on and there are no aural warnings

A

Dark and Quiet Flight Deck

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30
Q

What is CAMI in regards to FCU and MCDU inputs.

A

Confirm-FMS inputs with the other pilot when airborne
Activate-the input
Monitor-mode annunciation to ensure a/p performs as desired
Intervene if neccessary

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31
Q

Describe the FIPS acronym

A

Flight Plan Page- Monitoring the required charted waypoints on the FLT Plan Page versus whats charted

Indicated airspeed and thrust mode: Monitor PFD for Airspeed and FMA for thrust mode

PFD vertical deviation indicator-Each dot equals 250 feet +- profile

Symbology: Symbols on MFD map display

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32
Q

List the required confirm items?

A 
IDG
Thrust Levers
Start/Stop Switches
Fire Handles
Elevator Disconnect Handle
Aileron Disconnect Handle
Alternate gear extension
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33
Q

What limits are there on a restricted F/O (Less than 100 hours)

A

PIC must make all takeoffs and landings
1. At all airports designated as Special Qualification Airports.
2. The prevailing visibility in the latest WX report at the airport is at
or below 3/4 mile.
3. The RVR for the runway to be used is at or below 4000 feet.
4. The runway to be used has water, snow, slush, or similar
conditions which may adversely affect aircraft performance.
5. The braking action on the runway is reported less than good.
6. The crosswind component of the runway is in excess of 15
knots.
7. Wind shear is reported in the vicinity of the airport.
8. Any other condition which the PIC determines it prudent.

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34
Q

What is the minimum visibility a First Officer can perform a takeoff?

A

1/4sm or 1800 RVR

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35
Q

What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Equipment Flow

A

If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, or when the flightdeck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember

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36
Q

What is the Trigger for the Flightdeck Preparation Flow

A

If it is the first flight of the day, after a crew change, after maintenance has been performed in the flightdeck, or when the flight deck has been left unattended and not in view of a pilot crewmember.

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37
Q

What happens at 15 minutes prior to planned departure

A

Captain makes Welcome Aboard Announcement & Briefs the jumpseater

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38
Q

Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification complete the following occurs

A 
Start the APU
Verify IRS alignment and position
Flt Plan Acceptance
Fit for Duty
Accomplish the Before Start Flow
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39
Q

What is the Trigger for the before start flow

A

Approximately 10 minutes prior to planned departure and after ATC Route Clearance Verification Completed.

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40
Q

What is the Trigger for the Before Pushback Flow

A

After receiving the cabin ready notification and all doors are closed

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41
Q

What is the Trigger for the After Start Flow

A

After the ground equipment is clear, the captain has announced “I have a salute,” and engine(s) are stablized

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42
Q

What is the Trigger for the Taxi Flow

A

Aircraft departing the gate, Final Load Closeout received and both engines are running.

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43
Q

What is the Trigger for the Before Taking the Runway Flow

A

2-3 minutes prior to taking the runway

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44
Q

What is the Trigger for the After Landing Flow

A

After the aircraft has cleared the active runway. Defined as all parts of the aircraft have cleared the respective hold short line.

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45
Q

What is the Trigger for the Shutdown Flow

A

After the aircraft is parked at the gate with the parking brake set

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46
Q

System failures are primarily monitored via____?

A

EICAS

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47
Q

Photoluminescent Strips must be charged _____ minutes prior boarding. The strips will be available for approximately ___ hours

A

15 Minutes

7 Hours

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48
Q

Vent Flaps should be Open or Closed from the outside before opening from the outside.

A

Closed

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49
Q

Emergency Lights are expected to last approximately ____ Minutes?

A

10 Minutes

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50
Q

Escape slide lighting is powered by an independent lighting system. A dedicated battery powers the escape slide lights, which will be on for a minimum of ___ Minutes

A

10

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51
Q

Engine and APU bleed air are used to primary pressurize the potable waste system. If bleed pressure is not available or below its optimal range an_________ will take over.

A

air compressor

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52
Q

Which display units (DU) can be reverted

A

2 and 4 only

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53
Q

What displays airspeed, altitude, ADI, HSI, vertical speed, radio aids, autopilot, flight directors and radio altitude information

A

Primary Flight Display (PFD)

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54
Q

What presents map and plan navigation formats and various system synoptic formats selectable by the flight crew

A

Multi Function Display (MFD)

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55
Q

Which screen displays engine and system parameters such as flaps, gear, spoiler, trim position, fuel, APU, environmental information and crew awareness messages.

A

EICAS

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56
Q

In case of a failure on the EICAS DU, its information may be presented on the _____ by selecting the appropriate DU on the reversionary panel

A

MFD

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57
Q

Automatic EICAS decluttering occurs _____ seconds after landing gear and flap/slats are retracted

A

30 seconds

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58
Q

What allows the pilot to interface with multiple aircraft systems and operations including radios, navigation, CBs and ACARS

A

MCDU

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59
Q

The dual concentric rotary knob on the CCD is used to control what?

A

Weather Radar
Radio Frequencies
Scrolling EICAS Messages

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60
Q

What causes the Emergency Lights Power Unites (ELPU) to automatically operate

A

Loss of the DC BUS 1

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61
Q

Opening the passenger and service doors from the outside automatically disengages the _______ from the floor fitting, disarming the slide

A

girt bar

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62
Q

After the third chime ends, the cockpit door will open unless the INHIBIT PB is not pressed within

A

30 Seconds.

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63
Q

The service tank indication illuminates on the flight attendants panel when waste tank capacity reaches____

A

75%

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64
Q

The Air Management System provides control over

A

bleed control, environmental control, hot air leak detection,crew oxygen monitoring and wing/engine anti ice

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65
Q

Bleed air is used to supply _____different and independent bleed systems

A

2

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66
Q

What are the functions of bleed air?

A

Environmental Control System (ECS)
Engine Start
Engine and Wing Anti-ice
Water pressurization

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67
Q

What controls priority when the engine and APU bleed are availability simultaneously

A

AMS

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68
Q

Recirculation Fans are commanded off when:

A

Dump button is pressed
Smoke is detected in the recirculation bay;
Cargo (fwd or aft) smoke warning
Both packs are commanded off (i.e. you turn off both pack PBs)

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69
Q

The Cabin Pressure Control System (CPCS) operates in both Automatic and Manual Modes. Normal operation is in the

A

Automatic mode

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70
Q

How many channels does the Cabin Pressurization Controller have? How often do they alternate

A

2

After each flight

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71
Q

Pushing the DUMP PB will

A

Turn Packs off
Turn Recirculation Fans off
Control Cabin rate of climb at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400ft
At 12,400 it commands the outflow valve to full closed

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72
Q

What color light on the bleed PB indicates a associated bleed leak has been detected

A

Amber

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73
Q

Prior to pushback the crew notices that the landing field elevation is not displayed on the EICAS. What can be done to correct this issue?

A

Closeout the flight plan.

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74
Q

What automatically monitors and controls the APU

A

A dedicated FADEC unit

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75
Q

What provides fuel flow for APU starting when DC power in the only source of electricity (i.e. battery start)

A

A single DC fuel pump located in the right wing tank.

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76
Q

The APU can supply

  • Electrical AC power up to
  • Bleed air for engine start up to
  • Bleed air for air conditioning up to
A
  • 33,000
  • 21,000
  • 15,000
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77
Q

Maximum altitude for APU start is

A

30,000 Feet

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78
Q

On the GROUND what will trigger an automatic shutdown of the APU

A 
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault
APU fire
APU EGT overtemperature
APU High Oil Temerpature
APU low oil pressure
sensor failure
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79
Q

In FLIGHT what will cause an automatic shutdown of the APU

A

Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC Critical Fault

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80
Q

The APU normally goes through a cool down period of ____. Pressing the APU Control EMER STOP will cause what?

A

1 Minute

Immediate shutdown without any cooling down period

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81
Q

In the event of an APU fire what color does the upper half of the APU EMER STOP PB turn.

A

RED

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82
Q

What turns on the FD automatically

A

TOGA PBs
Autopilot Activation
Windshear detection

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83
Q

Anytime the autopilot is disengaged, an aural alarm will be triggered for ____seconds

A

5

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84
Q

The Flight Mode Annunciator Indicates what?

A

autothrottle
autopilot, active AFCS channel
lateral and vertical modes

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85
Q

What is the basic lateral and pitch modes

A

Roll

FPA

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86
Q

The crossbars are represented as the FD during which phase of flight

A

Takeoff

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87
Q

FLCH guidance is associated with what autothrust mode

A

SPDe (Speed over elevator). This is where speed is controlled by elevator inputs.

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88
Q

Why is it important to turn the flight directors OFF when on a visual approach where the FD are not being used for guidance

A

To allow SPDt (Speed on Thrust)

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89
Q

What FMA indication will be annunciate during a windshear event

A

WSHR

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90
Q

What three things can be accomplished after flap retraction after takeoff?

A

FMS Speed Selected
TRS Climb 1 Selected
VNAV pb

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91
Q

The logic for the vertical modes are within the

A

FGCS

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92
Q

Setting minimums to BARO on both sides via the minimums control knobs on the display controller panel tells the system logic to expect what kind of approach

A

CAT 1

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93
Q

For an autoland to occur what must be set

A

Flaps 5

RA indicating less than 1500ft

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94
Q

There are five autoland modes what are they

A 
Align-at 150ft
Flare- at 50 ft
Retard- at 30ft
De-Rotation- main gear touchdown
Roll Out-main gear touchdown
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95
Q

With the APP button pressed the system tries to arm the____

A

highest capable approach available

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96
Q

PREV (Preview) allows capture of an _____ course while still using FMS as the active NAV source

A

ILS

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97
Q

Autothrust engages when AT TO in pressed and all parameters are within limits and at TLA above

A

50 degrees

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98
Q

Speed on thrust (SPDt) modes include

A

G/S
ALT
VS
FPA

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99
Q

The AC electrical system consists of what?

A

2 IDGs
1 APU
RAT
Inverter

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100
Q

Can an IDG be reconnected in flight after manual disconnection

A

NO

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101
Q

The AVAIL light on the GPU indicates what

A

That the GPU volts/amps are within limits

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102
Q

Why must the AC GPU PB be pushed out when not in use

A

to reset for the next connection

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103
Q

When does the RAT auto deploy

A

Whenever AC power sources are not powering the AC buses

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104
Q

What is the minimum airspeed for the rat to be powered

A

130 Knots

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105
Q

The crew can visually monitor remote CBs located inside the electronics bay through the

A

MCDU

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106
Q

VERY IMPORTANT

Electrical system source priority is

A

The ONSIDE IDG
INSIDE APU
OUTSIDE GPU
OPPOSITE IDG

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107
Q

An amber light located next to the IDG indicates

A

Low Oil Pressure or high oil temperature on the associated IDG

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108
Q

Will the hot battery bus be powered with the battery 2 switch in the off position?

A

Yes.

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109
Q

Fire protection system provides detection and extinguishing for:

A

Engines
APU
Cargo (FWD and AFT)
Lavatories

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110
Q

Pulling the Engine Fire Handle does what?

A

Closes the associated:
Bleed
Fuel
and Hydraulic Shutoff Valves

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111
Q

What are the indications of an ENGINE fire

A 
Master Warning X 2
EICAS Warning Message ENG (1 or 2) FIRE
FIRE warning light on respected ITT 
Respective Fire Handle illuminates
Aural Warning is announced
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112
Q

Where are the fire bottles located

A

both are under fuselage fairing, aft of the right wing

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113
Q

What are the indications of an APU FIRE

A

Aural Warning
Red Stripped bar on the APU EMER STOP Button
2 X Master Warn lights illuminated
EICAS Warning message APU FIRE Displayed

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114
Q

The cargo fire extinguishing system has how many bottles

A

2

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115
Q

What is the indication of smoke in the AFT CRG or FWD CRG

A

Aural Warning
2 X Master Warning Lights
Associated cargo compartments extinguishing button illuminates
EICAS Warning CRG AFT SMOKE or CRG FWD SMOKE

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116
Q

Pressing the associated cargo smoke fwd or aft in FLIGHT does what

A

Discharges the high rate fire bottle immediately into the selected cargo compartment. Then ONE minute later, the second fire bottle is discharged at a reduced flow rate

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117
Q

Pressing the associated CARGO SMOKE FWD/AFT a second time prior to the one minute will do what

A

Immediately discharges the low rate extinguisher

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118
Q

Does the low rate bottle automatically discharge on the GROUND

A

No, only in flight.

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119
Q

Is there any indication given of a Lavatory Fire

A

Yes, if there is smoke in either FWD or AFT LAV the following occurs:

2 X Master Warn lights
EICAS Warning message “LAV SMOKE”
An alarm sounds in the associated lav
A flashing amber light on the respective flight attendant Rainbow light panel

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120
Q

What fire and smoke protection do we have in the lavatory.

A

The LAV is designed with a smoke detector that is a particulate sensor in which smoke will activate (not necessarily fire). However, if the temperature inside the waste container reaches a certain point, a fuse melts and releases the extinguishing agent automatically

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121
Q

FLY BY WIRE controls which surfaces? Which control surface is not FBW

A

Elevator, rudders, roll spoilers as well as the secondary flight controls.

Not Ailerons

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122
Q

Loss of data from all FCM or multiple ACE failures will force the airplane into which flight mode

A

Direct Mode

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123
Q

Electrical Built in Test takes approximately how long

A

3 Minutes

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124
Q

Manual Trim is activated by

A

Switches on each control column and standby switches located on the main pedestal

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125
Q

After an electrical failure, followed by RAT deployment the trim will function at what rate

A

Half Speed

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126
Q

Aileron control is accomplished through

A

a conventional cable system

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127
Q

Rudder trim is limited to ___ seconds.

A

3

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128
Q

With the RAT as the only source of electrical power, the SF-ACE will prevent the slats and flaps beyond

A

position 3

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129
Q

After touchdown the when will Multifunction spoilers and ground spoilers will extend ____

A

WOW
Wheel spin up above 45 kts or airspeed above 60 knots
TLA below 26 degrees

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130
Q

Flap position 4 is gated for

A

go-around and takeoff

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131
Q

Flap position 5 and full are used for

A

landing only

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132
Q

What is used to primarily tune the radios

A

MCDUs

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133
Q

ADS provides primary air data information to

A

PFD
flight controls
IESS
other avionic systems

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134
Q

The ADS system components consists of what?

A

ADSP (Air Data Smart Probes)
TAT (Total Air Temp)
ADA (Air Data Applications)

135
Q

How many ADS probes are there

A

4

136
Q

Each ADS receives and computes data and send their information to support what indications on the PFD and MFD

A

Airspeed Indicator, altimeter, vertical speed, side slip indicator, flight controls, IESS airspeed/altitude/vertical speed, Static Air Temperature (SAT) and Total Air Temperature (TAT)

137
Q

ADS 1 is the default for and provides information to the _________. ADS 2 is the default for and provides information to the _________.

A

Captain

First Officer

138
Q

If the primary ADS fails, the Reversionary logic reverts the ADS source to which ADS

A

3

139
Q

Green Dot represents

A

Drift down speed when the slats/flaps are retracted

The ideal flap maneuvering speeds for Slat/Flap extension for the current aircraft weight.

140
Q

In an electrical emergency configuration the IESS is powered by what?

A

RAT or the aircraft batteries if the RAT is not available

141
Q

If the speed displayed on the airspeed/mach readout is magenta then the speed is being set by what?

A

FMS

142
Q

Green Dot will temporarily be removed when what occurs

A

SLAT/FLAP transition

143
Q

FPA represents what

A

Flight Path in reference to the horizon

144
Q

Fuel is stored in ______and is connected by a ______

A

2 wings tanks

crossfeed valve

145
Q

Total fuel capacity and capacity per tank

A

28,880

14,440

146
Q

Each fuel tank contains the following pumps

A

ejector fuel pump
AC electric pump
three scavenge ejector pumps
Right wing contains DC electric fuel pump

147
Q

Fuel Low Level Warning

A

6170 lbs

148
Q

Single Point Refueling/Defueling panel is located

A

Under right wing

149
Q

What is the function of the DC fuel pump in the right tank

A

Provides pressure for APU start
Provides pressure for engine start when AC power is not available
Provides pressure for engine start when the AC Fuel pump is not available (i.e. pump on MEL)

150
Q

How is the fuel cross feed operated during flight

A

set the xfeed to low 1 or low 2 with the AC pumps in AUTO.

151
Q

When will EICAS show a FUEL IMBALANCE message

A

when the imbalance exceeds 800lbs

152
Q

Can the fuel tanks be gravity refueled?

A

Yes, each tank is has a refuel port located on the top of each wing

153
Q

What would be an alternate method for determining fuel quantity.

A

on the MFD Fuel Synoptic page

154
Q

A fuel pump that fails would be indicated on the fuel synoptic page with a_____

A

gray circle with a green windmill beneath an amber cross

155
Q

To prevent the possibility of a fuel leak through the fuel tank vents, DO NOT exceed _____KIAS when fuel tank quantity is greater than ______lbs

A

290

11,000

156
Q

The E190 has how many hydraulic systems

A

3

157
Q

How are the hydraulic system’s parameters and indication monitored

A

MFD Hydraulic Synoptic Page

158
Q

How many hydraulic pumps are there?

A

7
2 Engine Driven Pumps
4 Electric 1, 2, 3A, 3B
1 PTU

159
Q

In flight with the selector set to AUTO, the hydraulic system logic activates the electric pump when?

A

EDP fails or engine failure

when flaps are selected to any position greater than 0

160
Q

How is the PTU driven

A

by a hydraulic motor installed in the #1 system which drives a pump in the #2 system which uses #2 qty

161
Q

Function of the PTU and when is it used

A

assists the landing gear retraction and extension if engine 2 or #2 EDP fails

162
Q

How is the hydraulic system 3 different than system 1 and 2

A

It utilizes 2 electric pumps

backs up only the 3 primary flight controls

163
Q

When will HYD pump B come on

A

In flight whenever the HYD 3 pump A fails with the selector in AUTO. When the selector is set to on.

164
Q

What will provide hydraulic power to the flight controls during an electrical emergency

A

the system 3 accumulator until RAT is providing power to the HYD Pump 3A

165
Q

Hydraulic System 3 Consists of

A

Elevator (right outboard)
Rudder (lower actuator)
Ailerons( Left and Right outboard)

166
Q

Name some of the users of the HYD System 1

A 
Elevator (left outboard)
Rudder (upper actuator)
Thrust Reverser (Engine 1)
Multi Function Spoilers  ( 3 and 4 Left and Right)
Ground Spoilers (Left and Right panel 2)
***Outboard Brakes
***Emergency Parking Brakek
167
Q

Hydraulic System 2 users include

A 
Elevator (left and right inboard)
Ailerons (left and right inboard)
thrust reverser (engine 2)
Multi-Function Spoilers (left and right panel 5)
Ground Spoilers (left and right panel 1)
****NOSE WHEEL
****Inboard Brakes
****Landing Gear
****Emergency Brake
168
Q

Which HYD Reservoir has greater capacity

A

number 2 due to landing gear being a major component

169
Q

During a single engine taxi with engine 1 operating. Electric hydraulic pump 2 will automatically do what unless the parking brake is recycled

A

turn off

170
Q

The ice and rain protection system provides anti-ice protection for ?

A

Engine cowls and slats outboard of engine nacelle. The TAIL is NOT protected.

171
Q

Anti-Ice system parameters and indications can be found on the ____?

A

Anti-ice synoptic page

172
Q

During an engine fire what indication do you have that the fire has gone out?

A

Engine fire warning on EICAS no longer displayed.

173
Q

With the ICE PROTECTION Mode selector knob in the _____ position. The wing and engine anti-ice system will operate automatically according to system logic

A

AUTO

174
Q

When will the wing anti-ice valves open if ALL is selected on the MCDU T/O Data Set Menu.

A

Speeds above 40 knots

175
Q

When will the ice detectors activate the engine and wing anti-ice system

A

If ice is detected above 1700 AGL or 2 minutes after lift off

176
Q

What is displayed when an icing condition has been detected.

A

a cyan ICE CONDITION message on EICAS

177
Q

A RED light on the nose gear towing light indicates

A

Steering is not disengaged
parking brake is set
main brakes applied

178
Q

A Green light on the nose gear towing lights indicate

A

steering disengaged
parking brake is not set
main brakes not applied

179
Q

Where is the steering disengage switch actuated and where is it verified

A

Behind each control yoke there is a PB. Verified on the EICAS Steer Disconnect memo

180
Q

Autobrake setting indication is located where

A

EICAS Page

181
Q

How is the parking brake verified on

A

By the ON indication on the EMERG/PRKG BRAKE light

182
Q

Nosewheel steering provides angles of ____ until ___kts and decreases to ___ at ___ knots

A

+- 76
40knots
+-7
100

183
Q

IF two WOW sensors on the same landing gear fail what will be inhibited

A

gear retraction

184
Q

Landing Gear Aural Warning cannot be silenced under what conditions

A

SLAT/FLAP lever in a landing position (5 or full)
OR
When the FLAP position is 1,2,3 or 4 AND
Radio altitude below 700ft AGL
TLA with 2 engines 38 degrees or below
TLA 57 degrees or below with a single engine

185
Q

The landing and RTO modes of the autobrake system will disarm if what occurs

A

selector is set to OFF
pedal brakes are applied
brake control system failure is detected
either thrust level is advanced beyond idle during autobrake application

186
Q

What does the Alternate Gear Extension Lever Do?

A

Relieves residual hydraulic pressure in the landing hear lines and opens all landing gear uplocks

187
Q

What is the function of the DN Lock REL button (RED)

A

Mechanically bypasses the system protection logic.

188
Q

In the event you have a dual radio altimeter failure. The LG WRN can be inhibited by pushing the LG WRN INHIB TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

189
Q

Which HYD systems power the brakes

A

System 1 and 2

190
Q

The Brake Control Module or BCM functions includes

A

Locked Wheel Protection
Antiskid Protection
Automatic wheel braking
touchdown protection

191
Q

When is antiskid deactivated

A

at wheel speeds below 10 knots

192
Q

During APU cool down period what services are available.

A

Electrical only, bleed is shutdown

193
Q

The emergency brake has sufficient pressure to provide ___full brake applications

A

six

194
Q

Autobrake modes include

A

Low, Medium, HI, RTO

195
Q

The Free Wheel Steering Mode is used for

A

Ground handling, towing, failure of the normal steering system

196
Q

Gear in transit on EICAS is indicated by____?

A

amber cross-hatched box on the respective landing gear.

197
Q

IRS or Inertial Reference System computes what?

A

airplane position, ground speed, heading and altitude

198
Q

How long do the IRSs take to align?

A

approximately 17 minutes

199
Q

The main component of the Inertia Reference System is the Inertia Reference Unit. How many IRUs are there installed on the 190

A

2

200
Q

During power up, automatic alignment is provided. What would accidentally inhibit this process.

A

aircraft movement

201
Q

RAIM can be verified two ways.

A

Primarily by the dispatchers notation on the flight release.
Pred Raim function on the MCDU

202
Q

The FMS determines the best navigational mode. Navigation Priority Modes in order of priority are:

VERY IMPORTANT

A

GPS
DME/DME
VOR/DME
IRS

203
Q

Required Navigation Performance for FMS Navigation include
Enroute ENRT RNP ___?
Terminal TERM RNP ___?
APPROACH APPR RNP___?

A

2.0
1.0
.3

204
Q

On the ground, the XPDR only replies to mode ____ interrogations

A

S

205
Q

On Takeoff the FMS sends inputs to the PFD to show V2 then once reached it pitches for V2 + 10 until the vertical mode is changed.
TRUE/FALSE

A

TRUE

206
Q

A _____ disc is located on the front left nose section and in the event of an overpressure within the Flight Crew Oxygen System it will_______?

A

Green

Blow out

207
Q

Pressing the TEST/RESET button with the crew oxy mask stowed will

A

test the oxy mask and activate the microphone and speaker.

208
Q

Passenger Service Units supply oxygen for ______?

A

12 Minutes

209
Q

What happens when the passenger mask doors are automatically or manually activated

A

An ON light illuminates on the PASSENGER OXYGEN panel and

the FSTN BELTS and NO ELEC DEVICES sign automatically turn on.

210
Q

What are the portable oxygen cylinders used for?

A

Flight attendants to assist passengers and for first aid purposes

211
Q

The engine is controlled via dual channel ____

A

FADEC

212
Q

The FADEC energizes _____ during ground engine starts

And _____ during flight engine starts

A

one igniter

both igniters

213
Q

FADEC does not provide start protection for hot or hung starts and no light off protection during in flight engine starts.

TRUE or FALSE

A

TRUE

214
Q

Uncommanded thrust reverser deployment does what to the thrust while in flight

A

Limits engine thrust to idle

215
Q

Thrust reversers are ______ actuated

A

Hydraulically

216
Q

What component of the engine controls requested and Max N1 and ATTCS

A

FADEC

217
Q

FADEC provides engine start protections against____? Any also controls other limits including

A

Hung Start
Hot Start
No Light Off

Overspeed, Over temperature

218
Q

ATTCS stands for what and does what?

A

Automatic Takeoff Thrust Control System. Basically it uptrims the good engines output during takeoff, go around. It also provides a power boost during windshear events.

219
Q

What are the indications of an in-flight auto relight

A

A WML icon is displayed next to the respective engine N2

220
Q

IMPORTANT (ESPECIALLY ON HOT DAYS AND/OR Quick TURNS)

During engine ground starts, FADEC will not allow fuel flow if ITT is above _____.

A

120 degrees C

The engine motors to quickly reduce the ITT below 120

221
Q

ATTCS is selected ______ by default

A

ON

222
Q

ATTCS commands RSV (Reserve Power) whenever it is armed, TLA at TOGA, and

A

N1 values on both engines Greater than 15% different
One Engine fails during Takeoff & Go Around
Windshear is detected

223
Q

A derated thrust for takeoff (FLEX TO-1 or TO-2) will be shown where?

A

EICAS

224
Q

TO-1 or TO-2 is used for what kind of takeoff

A

Normal takeoff

225
Q

Go around mode is activated in flight whenever

A

The landing gear is down and toga is pressed

226
Q

Final Approach idle is activated below 1200 feet AGL and

A

Landing Flaps and landing Gear Down

227
Q

The START/STOP selector knob commands the FADEC to shut down the engine provided what else?

A

The associated thrust lever is in the IDLE position

228
Q

EICAS has how many levels of alerts

A 
4
Warning (RED)
Caution (AMBER
Advisory (CYAN)
Status (WHITE)
229
Q

EICAS messages are presented in a chronological order according to their

A

priority

230
Q

There are ____ aural warning priority levels

A

4

Bell, Chime, Triple Chime, Voice Messages

231
Q

What would trigger a configuration warning

A 
No Takeoff Flaps
No Takeoff Brakes
No Takeoff Spoilers
No Takeoff Trim
Parking brake
232
Q

The stall protection system provides a ________ as a warning to the flight crew of a possible impending stall

A

Stick Shaker

233
Q

EPGWS receives its inputs from ____

A

GPS, IRS, Slats Flaps, ADS, FMS, Radar Altimeter

234
Q

When a terrain warning/caution exists the map on the MFD wil automatically revert to what range?

A

10nm

235
Q

Windshear detection system is activated between?

A

10 to 1500 ft RA

236
Q

TCAS mode selection is selected through the _______?

A

MCDU RADIO Page

237
Q

The GND PROX INHIB button is used for what function?

A

Inhibits the EGPWS avoiding unwanted terrain alerts in airports not covered by the EPGWS database.

238
Q

What chapter of the OM can supplemental normals be found

A

OM 1, Chapter 4

239
Q

How can supplemental normals be conducted

A

Read and Do
Read then Do
by Memory

240
Q

The EVACUATION Checklist is different in that crews conduct the checklist

A

Simultaneously.

241
Q

PBE’s are rated to last how long

A

15 minutes

242
Q

If a normal checklist is lost where can you immediately obtain a new one.

A

An extra copy is located in the rear of the QRH or on MY 365 APP

243
Q

Which threat level is the most severe?

A

Level 4

244
Q

Are contact approaches allowed?

A

No

245
Q

What must be stated by the F/O during an autoland prior to 1000 RA.

A

Autoland Green

246
Q

Are autobrakes required for autolands? Normal landings?

A

Yes.

It is recommended….so yes.

247
Q

What aircraft approach category is the E190 normally operate in.

A

Category C 121-140kts

248
Q

System resets can be found where

A

OM 1 Chapter 4.

249
Q

What are three basic ways of contacting dispatch inflight

A

ACARS, Through a phone patch with local operations, ARINC

250
Q

At what speed does the PM verify that HOLD is annunciate do on FMA

A

80 knots

251
Q

On takeoff thrust HOLD is annunciate on the FMA at what airspeed?

A

60 Knots

252
Q

With the T/O Data Set A/I Ref to ALL. What surfaces are protected

A

Left and Right Engine Cowl Inlets

Outboard 3 slats ONLY (inboard slats are not protected by A/I)

253
Q

IESS Takes how long to initialize

A

90 Seconds

254
Q

MAU Stands for?
SPDA Stands for?
RICC/LICC/AICC EICC Stands for?
What powers the SPDA

A

Modular Avionics Unit
Secondary Power Distribution Assembly
Right/Left/Auxiliary/Emergency Integrated Control Center
The respected ICC powers the associated SPDA

255
Q

There are two alignment modes for the IRS. What are they and when are they used

A

Stationary: When aligning the position on the ground (IRS Aligning can take up to 17 minutes

Align in Motion: While the aircraft is in flight and the IRS is realigned which can take 15-30 due to continuous motion and movement

256
Q

If the IRU Fails, the display will revert to what data only

A

Attitude only. No position

257
Q

What are two way of selecting the Weather Radar to on, while still on the ground?

A

BOTH pilots select FSBY (Force Standby) on their respective MAP on the MFD

A single pilot may override the protection while on the ground by clicking the FSBY 4 times.

258
Q

Can an IDG be reselected once Disconnected

A

NO. Once disconnected, it is mechanically disabled and can only be reconnected by Maintenance.

259
Q

What is the purpose of the inverter inside the electrical system. What does it power

A

Converts DC power from the batteries to AC. This is again only when the Batteries are the only source of power. Used to provide power to the igniters

260
Q

Where are the Thermal CBs Located?

Where are the virtual CBs located?

A

Left and Right CB panel

Inside the MCDU

261
Q

What powers the AC Bus 2 and the AC ESS under normal operations

A

IDG 2

262
Q

If the brake is released with the GPU connected what will happen

A

EICAS GPU Connected

263
Q

EPGWS on the MFD Map Displays Yellow. What does this mean? Displays Red?

A 
Yellow = 60 Seconds from impact
Red= 30 Seconds from impact
264
Q

There are 4 levels of automation. What is the highest level of automation. What is the lowest level.

A

The highest level of automation is level 4 where FMS commands Vertical and Lateral Guidance

The lowes is Level 1. No FD, No A/P, NO A/T = RAW DATA

265
Q

The Oxygen PSI is checked by its color coding. Green indicates what? Cyan Indicates what?

A

O2 levels are adequate for 3 cockpit crew members

O2 levels are adequate for 2 cockpit crew members

266
Q

By selecting BARO/RA to RA. You are telling the computers to expect what kind of Approach

A

RA is used for CAT II/III Autoland operations only. CAT II the pilot would select the RA from the Jepp Plate and select the RA knob to the desired alititude (rounding up if nessisary 95 = 100. For CAT III operations a 50 Decision Height is entered. The Captain must see the airport environment or go around.

267
Q

What piece of paperwork is received automatically four minutes after departure?

A

FPR - Flight Plan Review

268
Q

What altitude is referenced by the 10,000 Ft call? MSL or AGL

A

AGL. So if field elevation is 560 ft MSL. The 10,000 foot call would be called at 10,560 ft.

269
Q

At what speed does track annunciate on the FMA?

A

100 kts

270
Q

The airspeed trend vector informs the pilot of the expected airspeed in ______second from present time.

A

10

271
Q

The airspeed tape has two colors on the slow side of the scale. Amber and Red. What do they represent?

A

Amber is 1.13 VS

Red is Stick Shaker (Stall is imminent)

272
Q

Declutter of the EICAS occurs when? When is the EICAS fully restored.

A

After 30 seconds.

1)Full EICAS PB pressed
2)Flaps/Slats Out
3)System abnormality/limitation caution or warning
Autobrakes

273
Q

APU Fire Light on the over head panel will illuminate under two conditions. What are they?

A

APU Fire is recognized AND the EMG STOP is pushed
OR
APU Fire is recognized AND you do nothing

274
Q

On the ground the APU will auto shutdown after how many second after a APU fire is sensed

A

10

275
Q

In flight will the APU auto shutdown?

A

No

276
Q

On the ground will the cargo extinguisher automatically fire the second bottle after the first bottle is discharged

A

No. The second low rate bottle disperses agent over 60 minutes which is not needed on the ground

277
Q

How might you arm and activate any cargo fire agent?

A

By pressing the associated cargo fire push button twice within 2 minutes

278
Q

What two optional items can be accomplished after the flaps are at 0 and the after takeoff checklist is complete?

A

Climb 1

VNAV selected

279
Q

The BANK push button on the FGCS, when pressed, inhibits bank angles above _____degrees. Above ________ft this function is automatic.

A

17 degrees

25,000

280
Q

When should 121.5 be monitored by the flightdeck crew

A

Anytime when com 2 is available regardless of altitude.

281
Q

The DVDR test is completed by the Captain prior to the first flight of the day. During the test, he/she verifies what?

A

No EICAS Failure Messages

Fwd/Aft CVR Fail

282
Q

HDG Fail or ATT Fail on the PFD might indicate what?

A

IRS Failure

283
Q

The Auto position of the IDG knob does what?

A

Automatic Operation due to system logic. Connects the IDG to the associated AC BUS when electrical source priority calls for its use. (IDG,APU,GPU, Opposite IDG)

284
Q

Placing the IDG Knob to the OFF position does what?

A

Opens the contactor between the IDG and the associated AC Bus

285
Q

The Auto position on the AC BUS TIES Knob does what? By placing the knob into the Open position does what?

A

Allows automatic operation of the electrical systems according to system logic. Thus placing the knob into the Open potion opens the contactor isolating the buss.

286
Q

With the Batteries in the off position. Which busses are powered?

A

HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2

287
Q

With the BATT 1 selector ON. What bus(ses) are powered?

A

DC ESS busses, AC standby bus, and hot battery busses

288
Q

What busses are powered with the BATT 1 ON and BATT 2 placed in Auto

A

DC ESS buses and the AC Standby Bus

289
Q

What does the AC Standby Bus Power

A

Engine Exciters

290
Q

Under what conditions will the RAT automatically deploy

A

Whenever there there is a loss power to the AC Busses

291
Q

It can take up to how long for the RAT to start producing power. During this time period what powers the AC Essential Bus

A

8 seconds. Batteries

292
Q

When are the Batteries able to be charged

A

Anytime there is an AC power.

293
Q

Batteries are capable powering the electrical system for approximately _______?

A

10 Minutes

294
Q

What does the RAT Power (AC/DC)

A

AC ESS Bus and DC ESS Buses (Through the ESS TRU) charges the batteries

295
Q

What BUS normally powers the AC ESS BUSS

A

AC BUS 2

296
Q

What lights are available with BATT power only?

A

DOME light and EMERGENCY LIGHTS via their own dedicated ELPUs

297
Q

How many hydraulic actuators are powered by HYD Sys 3?

A

4

298
Q

Pulling the Fire Handle does what

A

Closes the associated bleed, hydraulic shutoff valves and shuts off the wing spar fuel valve.

299
Q

Under what conditions would the APU Fire Extinguisher PB light illuminate

A

APU EMRG STOP PB pressed

One minute after the Fire Alarm and no further action is taken

300
Q

What precautions might be taken after any cargo agent has been used?

A

Use caution when opening cargo doors due to the fact halon has been used. Ground personnel need to know prior to opening if able.

301
Q

If the windshield wipers are used on a dry surface, what protection is available?

A

They will stop and remain off until the wiper knob is placed in the off position.

302
Q

What are the two major systems used by the #2 Hyd system

A

Landing Gear and Nose Wheel Steering

303
Q

How can you taxi with the number 1 engine operating if the nose wheel steering is on the number 2 hydraulic system

A

With the number 2 Electric Hydraulic Pump in AUTO, and the EDP not operating (i.e Eng 2 not on), the electric pump will operate thus powering the number 2 system. UNLESS the Park Brake is set for more than 6 minutes. When this occurs the EHYD Pump 2 shuts off until the Park Brake is recycled.

304
Q

What happens to the respective hydraulic system during an engine flameout?

A

The associated FADEC will send a signal to depressurize the associated hydraulic system to reduce the torque loads for help facilitate a windmill start

305
Q

Pressing the DUMP PB does what

A

Turn Packs OFF, Recirculation fans off, depressurizes the cabin at 2,000 FPM up to 12,400.

306
Q

What happens to the windshield heat with a single AC power source

A

Due to load shedding, on the ground windshield heat is turned off. In flight only, the left windshield heat is powered or if failed the right windshield.

307
Q

The engine and wing ice protection remains activated until ____ minutes after the detector is no longer sensing an icing condition.

A

5 minutes

308
Q

The Bleed PB will illuminate ______ in the event of a bleed leak.

A

Amber

309
Q

Which is the only cargo compartment used to store live animals. Why is this

A

FWD. Because its ventilated

310
Q

The FADEC places the packs in what position during engine start

A

OFF

311
Q

In the AUTO position, when do the passenger masks deploy?

A

If the cabin pressure altitude is above 14,000ft.

312
Q

The passenger O2 masks provide ______ minutes of o2 via a _______

A

12 Minutes chemical generator

313
Q

The BANK PB does what? When is is automatically activated

A

selects max bank angle to 17degrees. Above 25,000 ft Bank angle is automatically limited to 17 degrees.

314
Q

Cabin Altitude HI in conjunction with a red cabin altitude indication will be displayed whenever cabin altitude exceeds.

A

9,700 ft

315
Q

What is the function of the Ground Proximity Terrain Override Inhibit PB

A

If an airport and/or runway (i.e. New runway construction) is not listed in current database. Pressing the PB will inhibit unwanted EPGWS warnings and Terrain Alerts.

316
Q

What is the Ground PROX Flap Override PB used for?

A

Inhibits normal alerts for non standard flap settings due to QRH procedures needing flaps different than landing flap settings

317
Q

There are two items to accomplish to extend the landing alternatively. What are they and describe what occurs.

A

Electrical override extension- bypasses the gear selector to electronically override the PSEM to lower the gear.

Alternate Gear Extension Handle- relieves all hydraulic pressure in the landing gear system and releases the up locks to allow for Gravity free fall.

318
Q

Are speed brakes available in Direct Mode?

A

No

319
Q

Which trim switch(s) are able to be controlled by the autopilot system

A

Stabilizer trim (pitch) only

320
Q

The Landing Gear Warning PB when pressed does what? Why/when is this PB used

A

The landing gear aural logic uses the thrust
lever angle, flap setting and radio altimeter to determine if the airplane is in the landing
configuration.
If any of the landing gear are not down and locked, the aural warning LANDING GEAR
is annunciated and can not be silenced under certain Conditions

This PB is used when there is a dual radar altimeter failure.

321
Q

The engine anti ice valve fails in what position during an electrical failure?

A

Fails open allowing continuous anti ice heat to the engine cowl.

322
Q

How many actuators are energized by the #3 hydraulic system

A

4 actuators
Lower rudder
Aileron left and right
Right outboard elevator

323
Q

PTU in automatic mode turns on when? What is its purpose?

A

Failure or EDP Failure. On landing the PTU will start when:
Flaps not at zero
Landing Gear NOT up and locked
EDP 1 operating and quantity in HYD Reservoir 2

Assists in gear retraction and extension provided an engine

324
Q

What is powered when the batteries are off and it’s a cold dark airplane. (Major Items)

A

Engine Fire Extinguishers. So if you pull fire handles and twist the bottles will blow. Engine fuel SOV and Hydraulic SOV

325
Q

When in AUTO the fuel AC pump will run when?

A

Ejector fuel pump fails
Starting Engines
Cross feeding

326
Q

When will PTU automatically operate?

A

Flaps out of 0 or landing gear not up and locked, number 1 EDP operating, HYD 2 reservoir above 12%.

327
Q

In flight cargo smoke annunciation… Will the fire extinguishers activate automatically?

A

No, you must push the fire extinguisher discharge button to discharge the high rate fire ex. After one minute, if still indicating fire low rate will automatically discharge.

328
Q

Will automatic fire extinguisher discharge take place after a cargo smoke indication?

A

No, it must always be manually fired to prevent possible accidental discharge while personnel are in compartment.

329
Q

When will system 3B pump automatically operate?

A

When selected to auto and system 3A pump fails in flight.

330
Q

Standby hydraulic pumps will operate on the ground with both engines running when?

A

Flaps out of 0 degrees, 50 kts wheel spinup, thrust lever takeoff

331
Q

Selecting dump on pressurization controller while in MANUAL mode will cause what to happen?

A

Both recirc fans and packs are turned off. Rear outflow closes and forces the cabin to climb at 2,000 FPM until 12,400ft.

332
Q

The pressurization abort mode is active when?

A

Airplane stops climbing
Cruise mode not activated
Pressure altitude less than 10,000 ft or
Airplane less than 5000 ft AFE

333
Q

Engine Starter Limitations
1st and 2nd
3rd through 5th

A

90 Seconds On / 10 Seconds Off (GROUND ONLY)

120 Seconds ON/ 5 Minutes Off (IN Flight ONLY)

334
Q

How is the last three thousand feet of an instrument approach runway lit?

A

Centerline lights alternating red and white from 3000 to 1000 then solid red , runway edge lights yellow last 2000 feet.

American Airlines Embraer 190 (4 decks)

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